Intentional Torts Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

prima facie case for any intentional tort

A

1) act (volitional movement) by the defendant

2) Intent by the defendant

3) Causation of the result to the plaintiff from the defendant’s act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(hypersensitivity) Recovery for intentional torts is allowed only when:

A

a reasonable person would be able to establish the claim (hypersensitivity is ignored)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is incapacity a defense for intentional torts?

A

No. Everyone is “capable” of intent, meaning that everyone can act with the desire to bring about tortious consequences

young children and persons who are mentally incompetent will be liable for their intentional torts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

intent for intentional torts is:

A

intent to bring about the forbidden consequences that are the basis of the tort. The defendant does not need to intend the specific injury that results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

transferred intent doctrine

A

D intends to commit a tort against one person but instead commits a different tort against that person or a tort against a different person

ONLY for:
- assault
- battery
- false imprisonment
- trespass to land
- trespass to chattels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causation is satisfied if

A

defendant’s conduct was a substantial factor in bringing about the injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

battery elements

A

1) harmful or offensive contact (direct or indirect)

2) contact must be with Ps person (anything connected to P)

3) Intent

4) Causation

*NO damages required - recovery can be punitive or nominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is contact harmful/offensive

A

harmful if it causes actual injury, pain, or disfigurement.

offensive if it would be considered offensive to a reasonable person.

consent implied for the ordinary contacts of everyday life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

elements of assault

A

1) Act by the defendant creating a reasonable apprehension in the plaintiff (fear not required)

2) Of an immediate battery (harmful or offensive contact to the plaintiff’s person)

3) Intent

4) Causation

*NO damages required - recovery can be punitive or nominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

effect of words for assault

A

usually words are not enough - must be coupled with conduct

can NEGATE reasonable apprehension (conduct but D states they will not batter P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

false imprisonment elements

A

1) act or omission on the part of D that confines or restrains P

2) P must be confined to a bounded area (no reasonable means of escape known to P)

3) P knows of the confinement (or is harmed by it)

4) Intent

5) Causation

*NO damages required - recovery can be punitive or nominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

IIED elements

A

1) act by D amounting to extreme and outrageous conduct

2) P must suffer severe emotional distress

3) Intent: recklessness as to the effect of Ds conduct will satisfy

4) Causation

5) Actual damages: P must show they suffered severe emotional distress, but proof of physical injury generally isn’t required. The more outrageous the conduct, the less proof of damages is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IIED: when is conduct extreme and outrageous

A

exceeds all bounds of decency tolerated in a civilized society

mere insults are USUALLY not enough unless:
- D is a common carrier or innkeeper
- P is fragile class (young, elderly, pregnant)

targeting KNOWN sensitivity is outrageous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In IIED in by bystander cases, causation can be shown by:

A

either prima facie case elements of emotional distress OR

(1) P present when the injury occurred

(2) the distress resulted in bodily harm or the plaintiff is a close relative of the third person AND

(3) D knew these facts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

trespass to land elements

A

1) physical invasion

2) of Ps real property (airspace and subterranean space included to a reasonable distance)

3) Intent to enter that particular piece of land

4) Causation

*Damages not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trespass to chattels elements

A

1) Act by D that interferes with P’s right of possession in a chattel (can be damaging or dispossession)

2) Intent to do the act of interference (D’s mistaken belief that they own the chattel is no defense)

3) Causation

4) Actual damages required: not necessarily to the chattel, but at least to a possessory right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

conversion elements

A

1) Act by D that interferes with the plaintiff’s right of possession in a chattel (theft, wrongful transfer, wrongful detention, substantially changing, severely damaging, misusing)

2) Actual damages: Interference is serious enough in nature or consequences to warrant that the defendant pay the chattel’s full value

3) intent

4) causation

18
Q

Intentional tort defenses

A

consent

defense of self/others/property

reentry onto land

recapture of chattels

necessity

19
Q

consent defense

A

1) consent (express or implied)

2) consent is valid (P had capacity to consent) (no mistake/fraud/duress exception)

3) D stayed within boundaries of the consent

20
Q

Consent by mistake

A

mistake will undo express consent if the defendant knew of and took advantage of the mistake

21
Q

consent by fraud

A

consent induced by fraud will be invalidated if it goes to an essential matter, but not a collateral matter

22
Q

consent by duress

A

consent obtained by duress will be invalidated unless the duress is only threats of future action or future economic deprivation

23
Q

self-defense is:

A

person reasonably believes that they are being or are about to be attacked, they may use such force as is reasonably necessary to protect against injury

24
Q

is there a duty to retreat

A

majority rule: no duty to retreat.

Modern trend: imposes a duty to retreat before using deadly force if this can be done safely, UNLESS the actor is in their home.

25
self-defense to the initial aggressor
Self-defense is not available to the initial aggressor unless the other party responds to the aggressor’s nondeadly force by using deadly force
26
can self-defense be extended if third party was injured while the actor was defending themselves?
May extend. But might be liable to third person if they deliberately injured the third person
27
self-defense: is mistake allowed?
A reasonable mistake as to the existence of the danger is allowed.
28
self-defense: how much force may be used?
only that force that reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the harm (including deadly force). If more force than is reasonably necessary is used, the defense is lost
29
when is defense of others available?
One may use force to defend another when they reasonably believe that the other person could have used force to defend themselves.
30
defense of others: is mistake allowed?
A reasonable mistake as to whether the other person is being attacked or has a right to defend themselves is permitted.
31
defense of others: how much force may be used?
defender may use as much force as they could have used in self-defense if they were the one threatened with the injury.
32
when is defense of property available
One may use reasonable force to prevent the commission of a tort against their real or personal property request to desist or leave must first be made UNLESS it clearly would be futile or dangerous.
33
can defense of property be used AFTER tort is committed against them?
generally does not apply once the tort has been committed BUT may use force in hot pursuit of another who has tortiously dispossessed the owner of their chattels This defense is not available against one with a privilege. Whenever an actor has a privilege to enter onto the land of another because of necessity, recapture of chattels, etc., that privilege will supersede the privilege of the land possessor to defend their property.
34
defense of property - is mistake allowed?
reasonable mistake is allowed as to whether an intrusion has occurred or whether a request to desist is required. NOT allowed as to whether the entrant has a privilege (for example, necessity) that supersedes the defense of property right, unless the entrant conducts the entry so as to lead the defendant to reasonably believe it is not privileged (such as by refusing to say what the necessity is).
35
defense of property - how much force?
Reasonable force. NO FORCE causing death or serious bodily harm unless + a serious threat of bodily harm.
36
defense of property - shoplifting detentions
shopkeeper has privilege to detain suspected shoplifter for investigation if: 1) reasonable belief as to the fact of theft 2) conducted in a reasonable manner and only nondeadly force can be used 3) reasonable period of time and only for the purpose of making an investigation
37
reentry onto land defense
At common law - could use force to reenter land only when an intruder came into possession tortiously Under modern law - self-help not allowed. there are summary procedures for recovering possession of real property
38
public necessity
if they acted to avert an “imminent public disaster. Actor is not liable to pay for damages.
39
recapture of chattels defense
reasonable force may be used only when in hot pursuit of one who has obtained possession wrongfully
40
private necessity
if the action was to prevent serious harm to a limited number of people. Under private necessity, the actor must pay for any injury they cause (unless the act was to benefit the property owner)
41
necessity is only a defense in what type of intentional tort
property torts
42