Intermediaries Midterm 2 RVW Flashcards

(93 cards)

1
Q

In situations where asymmetric information problems are not severe, which market has a distinct cost advantage in providing short-term funds?

A

The money markets have a distinct cost advantage over banks in providing short-term funds.

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2
Q

Why do corporations and the U.S. government sometimes need to get their hands on funds quickly?

A

Cash inflows and outflows are rarely synchronized.

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3
Q

Which of the following are true statements about participants in the money markets? (3 Answers)

A

All of the above:
- Large banks participate by selling negotiable CDs
- U.S. government and corporations borrow due to cash inflow/outflow mismatches
- The Federal Reserve is the most influential participant.

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4
Q

Commercial banks are large holders of what and major issuers of what?

A

Commercial banks are large holders of U.S. government securities and major issuers of negotiable certificates of deposit.

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5
Q

How do finance companies raise funds in the money market?

A

By selling commercial paper.

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6
Q

If your competitive bid for a Treasury bill is successful, then you will?

A

Probably pay more than if you had submitted a noncompetitive bid.

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7
Q

Government securities dealers frequently engage in repos to? (3 Answers)

A

1.Manage liquidity, 2.take advantage of interest rate changes, and 3. lend/borrow short-term with collateralized loans.

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8
Q

Commercial paper securities are issued by? (4 Answers)

A

1.Only the largest and most creditworthy corporations, 2.are unsecured, 3.have interest rates varying by risk, and 4. never exceed 270 days maturity.

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9
Q

Money Markets instruments are? (4)

A

Short-term, low risk, highly liquid, and large denomination.

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10
Q

Money market __________ were invented because market interest rates rose above the statutory deposit rate caps on bank deposits specified by Regulation Q.

A

Mutual funds.

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11
Q

In a Treasury auction, a _________ bid is guaranteed to be filled at the High Rate, while a ___________ bid is only filled if their specified yield is lower than the High Rate.

A

Noncompetitive; competitive.

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12
Q

_________ is an attractive way to borrow for high-quality corporations because the rate is lower than a bank loan, but this market is susceptible to __________ in times of crisis.

A

Commercial paper; rollover risk.

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13
Q

(I) The primary issuers of capital market securities are financial institutions.
(II) The largest purchasers of capital market securities are corporations.

A

Both are false.

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14
Q

Bonds are securities that?

A

Represent a debt owed by the issuer to the investor and obligate the issuer to pay a specified amount at a given date, generally without periodic interest payments.

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15
Q

Treasury bonds are subject to ________ risk but are essentially free of ________ risk.

A

Interest-rate risk; default risk.

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16
Q

(I) In most years, the rate of return on short-term Treasury bills is below that on the 20-year Treasury bond.
(II) Interest rates on Treasury bills are more volatile than rates on long-term Treasury securities.

A

Both are true.

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17
Q

Typically, the interest rate on corporate bonds will be ________ the more restrictions are placed on management through restrictive covenants, because ________.

A

Lower; the bonds will be considered safer by buyers.

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18
Q

Restrictive covenants can? (3)

A

Limit dividends, the issuance of additional debt, and restrict mergers.

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19
Q

The current yield on a $6,000, 10 percent coupon bond selling for $5,000 is?

A

0.12

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20
Q

Capital market instruments last _______________ one year while money market instruments last
________________ one year.

A

More, Less

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21
Q

Of the major categories of fixed-income securities, ____________ have exhibited the largest increase over the past two decades, while _______________ have substantially decreased.

A

Treasury Bonds, Agency Securities and Money Market Securities (either answer)

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22
Q

In STRIPS instruments, each principle and interest payment becomes its own tradable ____________ security.

A

Zero Coupon

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23
Q

The two major types of municipal bonds are _________________________ bonds and
___________________ bonds

A

general purpose, project or revenue

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24
Q

A ___________ bond has collateral. In the event that the borrower can’t pay, the lender takes
control of the collateral assets. Bonds of this type have _____________ yield than otherwise (lower/higher).

A

Secured, Lower

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25
A _____________ provision allows the issuer to repurchase the bond prior to maturity at a predetermined price. Bond of this type have _________________ yield than otherwise (lower/higher).
Call, Higher
26
A ______________ bond can be swapped out for equity in the company. This can be advantageous when lending to startup companies with unestablished cashflows. Bonds of this type have ______________ yield than otherwise (lower/higher)
Convertible, Lower
27
An ___________ covenant tells the borrower that they must do, such as maintaining an interest coverage ratio or providing audited financial statements, while a ___________ covenant tells the borrower that they can’t do, such as paying dividends or issuing new deb
Affirmative, Restrictive
28
Which of the following are true of mortgage interest rates? (3 Answers
All of the above: - determined by current long-term market rates, the term length, and discount points - Mortgage interest rates correlate with Treasury bond rates - The interest rate on 15-year mortgages is lower than the rate on 30-year mortgages
29
Which of the following is true of mortgage interest rates? (Two Answers)
Only A and B: Longer-term mortgages have higher interest rates than shorter-term mortgages; In exchange for points, lenders reduce interest rates on mortgage loans
30
Which of the following is true of mortgage interest rates? (One Answer)
Longer-term mortgages have higher interest rates than shorter-term mortgages
31
Which of the following terms are found in mortgage loan contracts to protect the lender from financial loss? (3)
All of the Above: Collateral, Down payment, Private mortgage insurance
32
A borrower who qualifies for an FHA or VA loan enjoys the advantage that
only a very low or zero down payment is required
33
(I) ARMs offer lower initial rates and the rate may fall during the life of the loan. (II) Conventional mortgages do not allow a borrower to take advantage of falling interest rates
I) is true, (II) is false
34
Which of the following are useful for home buyers who expect their income to rise in the future?
Only A and C are useful: GPMs, GEMs
35
Distinct elements of a mortgage loan include (2)
Only B and C: Investment, Servicing
36
The mortgage market makes up over _________% of the total U.S. debt market, and single-family mortgages make up about _____________% of the mortgage market
20% to 30%, 70%
37
Discount points typically cost the borrower _____________% of the loan amount, and each purchased point lowers the interest rate by _____________%
1%, 0.25
38
True or False: Checkable deposits are the primary source of bank funds.
False
39
Because checking accounts are ________ liquid for the depositor than passbook savings, they earn ________ interest rates.
more; lower
40
Bank loans from the Federal Reserve are called ________ and represent a ________ of funds.
discount loans; source
41
Which of the following are reported as assets on a bank's balance sheet?
Reserves
42
Because of their ________ liquidity, ________ U.S. government securities are called secondary reserves.
high; short-term
43
Which of the following are primary concerns of a bank manager? (3 Answers)
All of the above: - Maintaining sufficient reserves; - Extending loans to borrowers who will pay high interest rates, but who are also good credit risks; - Acquiring funds at a relatively low cost
44
For a given return on assets, the lower the bank capital is,
the higher the return for the owners of the bank will be.
45
In general, banks make profits by selling ________ liabilities and buying ________ assets.
short-term; longer-term
46
The ________ Act of 1933 prohibited commercial banks from engaging in investment banking activities, and vice versa, while the _______ of 1999 repealed these provisions of the former Act
Glass–Steagall; Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
47
The primary source of funding for banks is ____________, making up ~60% of assets.
nontransaction deposits
48
The primary asset on banks’ balance sheet is ______, making up ~60% of assets, which are quite illiquid.
loans
49
The main ways that a bank can cover a large deposit withdrawal are (i) borrowing from other banks, (ii) ____, (iii) borrowing from the Federal Reserve, and (iv) reducing their loan portfolio
selling securities
50
When choosing how much capital to hold, bankers balance the desire to minimize the probability of ______ with the goal of maximizing returns to owners, subject to meeting regulatory capital requirements
bankruptcy
51
All else equal, higher levels of bank capital causes ROE to ________ (increase/decrease/no change).
decrease
52
When required bank capital increases, loan origination tends to ________ (increase/decrease/no change)
decrease
53
From ____ to 1980 there were virtually zero bank failures in the United States
1940
54
In the______ method, the FDIC allows the bank to fail and pays off deposits up to insurance limit. Other creditors are paid its share from liquidated assets. In the _____ method the FDIC find willing buyer to assume the failed bank’s liabilities
payoff; purchase and assumption (P&A)
55
Two facets of financial/microprudential bank supervision are _______, which addresses the adverse selection problem that risk-takers are more likely to want to own banks, and ___________, which reduces moral hazard by on-site inspection and verification of banking activities.
chartering; examination
56
Two facets of microprudential bank supervision are chartering, which addresses the _____ problem that risk-takers are more likely to want to own banks, and examination, which reduces ________________ by on-site inspection and verification of banking activities.
adverse selection, moral hazard
57
The _________ dimension of financial regulation is why lenders must advertise interest rates in a standardized Annual Percentage Rate (APR) format rather than at other horizons, such as weekly or monthly
consumer protection
58
The _________ prohibits insured banks from engaging in propriety trading, in an attempt to reduce risktaking induced by moral hazard.
Volker Rule
59
The idea of _______ is predicated on the notion that systematically important institutions should be protected to prevent contagious spillover effects in the event of a financial crisis. However, this implicit guarantee exacerbates the moral hazard problem.
Too-big-to-fail
60
The top 10 U.S. banks now account for approximately ____% of all U.S. bank assets.
60
61
The three major drivers of financial innovation are changes in demand-side conditions, changes in supply-side conditions, and ________.
regulatory arbitrage
62
_________ can be described as asset transformation that occurs outside of the traditional banking sector that takes deposits and makes loans.
Shadow banking
63
The _______ allowed banks to branch across state lines, overriding most remaining state-level restrictions. This encouraged bank consolidation and enhanced the efficiency of capital allocation, as banks could now deploy resources more flexibly across regions
Riegle-Neal Act of 1994
64
Which of the following statements is true about a bank's assets?
A bank's assets are its uses of funds.
65
Which of the following are reported as liabilities on a bank's balance sheet?
Checkable deposits
66
Which of the following are reported as assets on a bank's balance sheet?
Loans
67
Loans are the ____ category of a banks assets, they provide most of the bank's ____, and they earn the highest ____ of all bank assets.
largest; revenues; return
68
When a $10 check written on the First National Bank is deposited in an account at the Second National Bank, then
the liabilities of the First National Bank decrease by $10, the liabilities of the Second National Bank increase by $10.
69
The existence of deposit insurance can increase the likelihood that depositors will need deposit protection, as banks with deposit insurance
are likely to take on greater risks than they otherwise would.
70
Regulators attempt to reduce the riskiness of banks' asset portfolios by (2 Answers)
- limiting the amount of loans in particular categories or to individual borrowers - prohibiting banks from holding risky assets such as common stocks.
71
Ways in which bank regulations reduce the adverse selection and moral hazard problems in banking include (3 Answers)
- a chartering process, - preventing banks from acquiring certain risky assets, - high bank capital requirements.
72
The existence of deposit insurance can increase the likelihood that depositors will need deposit protection, as banks with deposit insurance
are likely to take on greater risks than they otherwise would.
73
In an effort to control the use of derivatives by financial institutions, the Dodd-Frank legislation of 2010 requires
standardized derivatives products.
74
The Federal Reserve Act required all ________ banks to become members of the Federal Reserve System, while ________ banks could choose to become members of the system.
national; state
75
Rising interest-rate risk ________ the ________ financial innovation.
increased; demand for
76
High-yield bonds rated below investment grade by the bond-rating agencies are frequently referred to as
Junk Bonds
77
Which of the following is not a reason for the disappointing revenue growth and profits of Internet-only banks?
High cost per transaction
78
The most important developments that have reduced banks' income advantages in the past twenty years include (3 Answers)
1.the growth of the commercial paper market, 2.the junk bond market, and 3.securitization.
79
Money market securities have all the following characteristics except they are not
money
80
Suppose that you purchase a 91-day Treasury bill for $9,850 that is worth $10,000 when it matures. The security's annualized yield if held to maturity is about
0.06
81
Federal funds are (definition, length, 2 facts)
1. short-term funds transferred between financial institutions, 2. usually for a period of one day, 3. have nothing to do with the federal government, 4. provide banks with an immediate infusion of reserves.
82
A negotiable certificate of deposit (3 Answers)
1.is a term security, 2.is a bearer instrument, 3.can be bought and sold until maturity.
83
The usual maturity range for commercial paper is
1 to 270 days.
84
(I) Securities that have an original maturity greater than one year are traded in capital markets. (II) The best known capital market securities are stocks and bonds.
Both are true.
85
(I) The coupon rate is the rate of interest that the issuer of the bond must pay. (II) The coupon rate on old bonds fluctuates with market interest rates so they will remain attractive to investors.
(I) is true, (II) false.
86
(I) Because interest rates on Treasury bills are more volatile than rates on long-term securities, the return on short-term Treasury securities is usually above that on longer-term Treasury securities. (II) A Treasury STRIP separates the periodic interest payments from the final principal repayment.
(I) is false, (II) true.
87
(I) Municipal bonds that are issued to pay for essential public projects are exempt from federal taxation. (II) General obligation bonds do not have specific assets pledged as security or a specific source of revenue allocated for their repayment.
Both are true
88
Corporate bonds are less risky if they are ________ bonds and municipal bonds are less risky if they are ________ bonds.
secured; general obligation
89
Which of the following are important ways in which mortgage markets differ from the stock and bond markets? (3 Answers)
1.Borrowers in the capital markets are government/businesses, borrowers in the mortgage markets are individuals; 2.Most mortgages are secured; 3.developing a secondary mortgage market has been more difficult
90
Which of the following are true of mortgages? (3 Answers)
1.A mortgage is a long-term loan secured by real estate, 2.A borrower pays a combination of principal and interest payments 3.Over 72 percent of mortgage loans finance residential home purchases.
91
During the early years of an amortizing mortgage loan, the lender applies
most of the monthly payment to interest on the loan.
92
Borrowers tend to prefer ________ to ________, whereas lenders prefer ________.
fixed-rate loans; ARMs; ARMs
93
A loan for borrowers who do not qualify for loans at the usual market rate of interest because of a poor credit rating or because the loan is larger than justified by their income is
a subprime mortgage.