Intermediate Accounting 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is classified as a cash equivalent?
A) Inventory held for resale
B) 5-year certificate of deposit
C) Treasury bills with 60 days to maturity
D) Restricted cash held for long-term

A

Treasury bills with 60 days to maturity

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2
Q

A note receivable was issued at face value with a 12% annual interest rate. How much interest income should be recognized after 3 months on a $20,000 note?
A) $200
B) $400
C) $600
D) $2,400

A

C) $600

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3
Q

Fujita Company has beginning raw material inventory of $62,800, purchases of $54,000, and materials used of $83,500. What is the ending raw material inventory?
A) $33,300
B) $92,300
C) $114,800
D) $29,300

A

A) $33,300

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4
Q

Under a perpetual inventory system, when a sale occurs, the journal entry includes:
A) Debit to purchases
B) Debit to inventory
C) Debit to Cost of Goods Sold
D) Credit to purchases

A

C) Debit to Cost of Goods Sold

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5
Q

Using FIFO, if the beginning inventory is 500 units @ $3.50, purchases are 300 units @ $4.00 and 200 units @ $5.00, wat is COGS for 350 units sold?
A) $1,750
B) $1,400
C) $1,650
D) $1,850

A

A) $1,750

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6
Q

Under the dollar-value LIFO method, if base year inventory is $100,000 and current year inventory at current cost is $120,000 with a price index of 1.20, what is ending inventory?
A) $100,000
B) $110,000
C) $120,000
D) $130,000

A

A) $100,000

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7
Q

A company issues a $10,000, non-interest-bearing note discounted at 12%. How much cash does the company receive?
A) $10,000
B) $9,700
C) $9,400
D) $9,100

A

B) $9,700

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8
Q

Calculate the estimated inventory lost in a fire if: Beginning inventory = $100,000, Purchases = $140,000, Sales = $220,000, Gross margin = 30%
A) $120,000
B) $110,000
C) $140,000
D) $130,000

A

D) $130,000

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9
Q

Which cost flow assumption generally results in the highest net income during periods of rising prices?
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) Weighted Average
D) Specific Identification

A

FIFO

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10
Q

A company has a gross profit of 25% on cost. If net sales are $400,000, what is the estimated cots of goods sold?
A) $100,000
B) $320,000
C) $300,000
D) $250,000

A

B) $320,000

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11
Q

Under GAAP, how are bad debts typically estimated?
A) Direct write-off method
B) Percentage of net credit sales
C) Cash basis accounting
D) Only after legal actions

A

B) Percentage of net credit sales

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12
Q

What is a legal liability?
A) A planned obligation
B) Arises only through normal operations
C) Arises from contracts or legal requirements
D) Created by public announcements

A

C) Arises from contracts or legal requirements

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13
Q

The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts appears on the balance sheet as a:
A) Liability
B) Expense
C) contra-asset
D) Asset

A

C) contra-asset

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14
Q

Which inventory system provides better control inventory?
A) Periodic
B) LIFO
C) Perpetual
D) LIFO

A

C) Perpetual

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15
Q

If the NRV (Net realizable value) of inventory falls below cost, what rule is applied?
A) Conservatism
B) accrual
C) Going concern
D) Materiality

A

A) Conservatism

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16
Q

Which of the following is a constructive liability?
A) A trade payable
B) A lawsuit settlement
C) Warranty obligations created by past practice
D) a signed promissory note

A

C) Warranty obligations created by past practice

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17
Q

A note payable classified as a current means it is:
A) due within 3 months
B) due within 6 months
C) due within one year
D) Due in 5 years

A

C) due within one year

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18
Q

Which inventory method typically results in the lowest taxable income during periods of rising prices?
A) FIFO
B) LIFO
C) Average cost
D) Specific identification

A

LIFO

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19
Q

Accounts receivables are classified as:
A) noncurrent assets
B) current assets
C) current liabilities
D) deferred revenues

A

B) current assets

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20
Q

When goods are shipped FOB destination, who owns the goods during transit?
A) Customer
B) seller
C) freight company
D) insurer

A

seller

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21
Q

Net purchases are calculated as:
A) Purchases - Purchase Returns
B) Purchases - Purchase Returns - Purchase discounts
C) Purchases - Feight-in
D) Purchases + Freight-out

A

Purchases - Purchase Returns - Purchase discounts

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22
Q

Which of the following qualifies as a contingency?
A) a definite account payable
B) a future income tax refund
C) a pending lawsuit
D) a trade discount

A

a pending lawsuit

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23
Q

What is recognized when a dividend is declared?
A) revenue
B) expense
C) asset
D) liability

A

liability

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24
Q

Which item is included in cash and cash equivalent?
A) Inventory
B) accounts receivable
C) treasury bills maturity in 60 days
D) 1-year certificate of deposit

A

treasury bills maturity in 60 days

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25
When a short-term note is refinanced into long-term debt before financial statements are issues, it is classified as: A) Long-term liability B) current liability C) deferred revenue D) accrued liability
Long-term liability
26
Under the gross price method, a cash discount not taken results in: A) Extra revenue B) no effect C) extra expense D) asset write-off
no effect
27
Inventory shipped FOB shipping point should be included in: A) seller's inventory B) buyer's inventory C) freight carrier's inventory D) no one's inventory until arrival
buyer's inventory
28
Which ratio best measures immediate liquidity? A) debt-to-equity ratio B) quick ratio C) Inventory turnover ratio D) gross margin ratio
quick ratio
29
If the market price declines after signing a noncancelable purchase contract, wha tis recognized? A) Revenue B) liability C) asset D) expense
liability
30
Which cost flow method assumes the last goods purchased are sold first? A) FIFO B) Average Cost C) LIFO D) Specific identification
LIFO
31
Which of the following is not classified as a cash? A) Travel advances B) checking accounts deposits C) coins and currency D) postdated checks
Postdated checks
32
What does the receivables turnover ratio measure? A) company profitability B) inventory management C) cash flow from operations D) efficiency in collecting receivables
D) efficiency in collecting receivables
33
Bad debt expense under the allowance method is recorded: A) only when an account is deemed uncollectible B) at the time of sale, based on an estimate C) only after legal proceedings D) as an adjusting entry to inventory
at the time of sale, based on an estimate
34
What best describes a trade receivable? A) employee loan B) customer credit sale C) Note receivable from shareholders D) interest income
customer credit sale
35
Which item would not qualify as a cash equivalent? A) treasury bill due in 2 months B) money market fund C) 6-month CD D) accounts receivable
accounts receivable
36
A petty cash fund is used to: A) pay large capital purchases B) finance accounts payable C) handle small incidental expenses D) record employee wages
handle small incidental expenses
37
Which method recognizes inventory losses immediately? A) LIFO B) Retail inventory method C) specific identification D) lower of cost or net realizable value
lower of cost or net realizable value
38
The primary benefit of internal cash controls is to: A) increase cash flow B) detect and prevent fraud C) increase inventory turnover D) reduce taxes
detect and prevent fraud
39
Under which method does inventory reflect the most current costs? A) LIFO B) FIFO C) Average cost D) specific identification
FIFO
40
A trade discount is recorded: A) as a separate item B) as a reduction in sales revenue C) as an increase to accounts receivable D) not recorded at all
not recorded at all
41
What type of account is Allowance for Doubtful Accounts? A) Asset B) liability C) contra-asset D) expense
contra-asset
42
A company uses 2/10, n/30 terms. What does it mean? A) 2% discount if paid within 10 days; otherwise full amount due in 30 days B) 10% discount if paid within 2 days; otherwise full amount due in 30 days C) full payment required within 2 days D) no discount allowed after 10 days
2% discount if paid within 10 days; otherwise full amount due in 30 days
43
Compensating balances are reported as: A) operating expenses B) investments C) restricted cash D) accounts payable
restricted cash
44
Net realizable value for accounts receivable is: A) total accounts receivable B) accounts receivable minus uncollectibles C) cash equivalents D) accounts receivable plus bad debt expense
accounts receivable minus uncollectibles
45
The inventory turnover ratio indicates: A) how often inventory is sold and replaced B) profit per unit sold C) company's debt position D) cash conversion cycle
how often inventory is sold and replaced
46
Which GAAP principle requires inventory to be stated at lower of cost or NRV? A) full disclosure B) matching C) conservatism D) revenue recognition
conservatism
47
Which of the following would not be considered a contingent liability? A) pending lawsuit B) bank loan C) product warranty D) Environment cleanup obligation
Bank loan
48
What is the main difference between a secured borrowing and a sale of receivables? A) risk transfer B) cash received C) recordkeeping complexity D) accounts payable involvemen
risk transfer
49
When a company collects an account that was previously written off, it: A) recognizes new revenue B) credits Allowance for Doubtful Accounts C) debits bad debt expense D) credits accounts receivable
credits Allowance for Doubtful Accounts
50
What does a high receivables turnover ratio suggest? A) poor collections B) strong collections C) high bad debt risk D) high inventory levels
strong collections
51
If cash sales for the month are $40,000 and credit sales are $80,000, what is total net sales? A) $80,000 B) $40,000 C) $120,000 D) $100,000
$120,000
52
A $5,000, 90-day note bears interest at 8%. How much interest revenues should be recognized? A) $100 B) $80 C) $120 D) $200
$100
53
The net realizable value of accounts receivable is $100,000 and the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $5,000. What is the gross accounts receivable balance? A) $95,000 B) $100,000 C) $105,000 D) $110,000
$105,000
54
Ending inventory error overstated by $10,000 causes: A) understatement of income B) overstatement of income C) overstatement of liabilities D) understatement of liabilities
overstatement of income
55
The cost-to-retail is 70%. Ending inventory at retail is $200,000. What is ending inventory at cost? A) $130,000 B) $140,000 C) $150,000 D) $170,000
$140,000
56
A company uses FIFO. Beginning inventory was $2,000. Purchases during the year were $12,000. Ending inventory was $3,000. What is cost of goods sold? A) $12,000 B) $11,000 C) $13,000 D) $14,000
$11,000 (2,000+12,000-3,000=11,000)
57
If a company sells $300,000 on credit and estimates bad debts at 1%, what is bad debt expense? A) $1,500 B) $3,000 C) $2,000 D) $5,000
$3,000 (300,000*0.01=3,000)
58
Warranty expense for the year is estimated at 2% of $500,000 in sales. What amount of warranty liability is recorded? A) $5,000 B) $10,000 C) $15,000 D) $20,000
$10,000
59
Company sells inventory for $15,000 with a cost of $9,000. What is gross profit? A) $9,000 B) $6,000 C) $24,000 D) $15,000
$6,000
60
Company issues a $10,000, 6-month note payable at 6% interest. How much interest payable should be recorded after 4 months? A) $200 B) $400 C) $300 D) $500
$200
61
What type of account is Notes Receivable? A) liability B) revenue C) asset D) expense
asset
62
What are compensating balances? A) Discounts on inventory B) minimum cash balances held at banks C) employee bonuses D) long-term payables
minimum cash balances held at banks
63
Which method reports higher ending inventory under rising prices? A) FIFO B) LIFO C) Average Cost D) specific identification
FIFO
64
What does the gross profit methed estimate? A) net income B) ending inventory C) operating expenses D) sales returns
ending inventory
65
What happens when a company writes off a bad debt under the allowance method? A) total assets decrease B) total assets stay the same C) total assets increase D) total liabilities increase
total assets stay the same
66
A contingent liability is accrued if it is: A) probable and reasonably estimable B) reasonably possible C) remote D) unlikely
probable and reasonably estimable
67
What is included in the quick ratio? A) cash, accounts receivable, inventory B) cash, marketable securities, accounts receivable C) cash, inventory, prepaid expenses D) accounts payable, inventory, notes payable
cash, marketable securities, accounts receivable
68
Which best describes a trade discount? A) discount for paying early B) discount off list price C) volume purchase discount D) advertising rebate
discount off list price
69
Which inventory system continuously updates inventory records? A) periodic B) Perpetual C) physical count D) LIFO reverse
perpetual
70
Which item below is NOT considered a cash equivalent? A) 60-day treasury bill B) certificate of deposit maturing in 1 year C) commercial paper D) money market fraud
certificate of deposit maturing in 1 year
71
What principle requires inventory to be stated at lower of cost or market? A) full disclosure B) conservatism C) consistency D) matching
conservatism
72
Which receivables method violates GAAP? A) allowance method B) direct write-off method C) percentage of sales method D) percentage of receivables method
direct write-off method
73
An example of a contingent loss would be: A) trade discount B) lawsuit C) sale discount D) bank reconciliation
lawsuit pending
74
Which ratio best measures immediate liquidity? A) current ratio B) debt ratio C) quick ratio D) gross margin ratio
quick ratio
75
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts normally carries what balance? A) debit B) credit C) zero D) no balance
credit
76
Gross profit is equal to: A) Net sales minus COGS B) total revenue minus operating expenses C) net income minus dividends D) net cash inflow
Net sales minus COGS
77
A noncelable purchase agreement is considered: A) revenue B) asset C) commitment D) liability
commitment
78
Sales returns and allowances are ported as: A) liabilities B) contra-revenue C) expenses D) asset
contra-revenue
79
Which cost flow assumption most closely matches actual flow for food products? A) LIFO B) FIFO C) average Cost D) Specific Identification
FIFO
80
If the sales price is $500 and cost is $300, gross margin % is: A) 60% B) 40% C) 50% D) 30%
40%
81
Uncollectible accounts are reported as: A) operating expenses B) liabilities C) reductions of revenues D) contra-assets
contra-assets
82
A dishonored note should be transferred to: A) inventory B) accounts receivable C) allowance for bad debts D) deferred revenue
accounts receivable
83
Which account would credit memo affect? A) Notes payable B) cash C) accounts receivable D) unearned revenue
accounts receivable
84
At what point is revenue recognized for a sale of goods FOB shipping point? A) when the order is placed B) when goods reach the buyer C) when goods leave seller's dock D) buyer inspects goods
when goods leaves seller's dock
85
Which account will NOT appear on a post-closing trial balance? A) accounts receivable B) inventory C) sales revenue D) notes payable
sales revenue
86
LIFO conformity rule requires: A) companies using LIFO for taxes must use LIFO for financials B) companies using FIFO must disclose LIFP C) companies adjust to average cost D) inventory counts every 6 months
companies using LIFO for taxes must use LIFO for financials
87
A company using gross profit method estimate ending inventory by: A) physical count B) purchases C) sales and gross margin D) operating expenses
sales and gross margin
88
Purchase returns are: A) debit to accounts payable B) credit to inventory C) debit to purchases D) credit to sales revenue
credit to inventory
89
Sales discounts forfeited are reported as: A) revenue B) contra-revenue C) expense D) inventory
revenue
90
Accounts receivable turnover ratio is calculated as: A) Sale/accounts receivable B) accounts receivable/sales C) net income/sales D) gross profit/sales
Sale/accounts receivable
91
A note due in 10 months is classified as: A) long-term liability B) investment C) current liability D) deferred expense
current liability
92
Which of the following affects the cost of inventory? A) interest expense B) purchase discounts C) dividends paid D) salaries payable
purchase discounts
93
Warranty expense is recognized when: A) The warranty is paid B) the product sold C) the warranty expires D) the lawsuit
the product sold
94
What kind of account is accrued expense? A) revenue B) asset C) liability D) expense
liability
95
Which of the following decreases retained earnings? A) Net income B) Dividends declared C) issuance of stock D) purchase of inventory
dividends declared
96
Net sales are calculated as: A) sales - sales discounts - sales returns B) sales - COGS C) Sales + purchases D COGS - operating expenses
sales - sales discounts - sales returns
97
Which inventory method results in highest COGS during inflation? A) FIFO B) LIFO C) Average cost D) specific identification
LIFO
98
An accrued liability arises when: A) cash is paid before expense B) Expense is incurred before cash is paid C) cash is collected before revenue D) revenue is recognized before delivery
Expense is incurred before cash is paid
99
What is a disadvantage of LIFO? A) higher taxable income B) lower ending inventory value C) increased gross profit D) inventory costs overstated
lower ending inventory value
100
Ending inventory is misstated. What other item is impacted? A) net sales B) gross profit C) depreciation D) accounts receivable
gross profit