Interview Flashcards

Question

Maximum operating altitude?

Answer 1

Max speed = VMO/MMO Phase = Cruise

Answer 2

230kt = phase holding (1 displayed on slat/flap display) 215kt = phase TOF (1+F displayed on slat/flap display)

Answer 3

200kt TOF/Approach

Answer 4

185kt TOF/Approach/landing

Answer 5

177kt Landing

Answer 6

VMO = 350kt MMO = M0.82

Answer 7

280kt = M0.67

Answer 8

250kt = M0.60

Answer 9

220kt = M0.54

Answer 10

Maximum ground speed = 195kt

Answer 11

Minimum control speed for landing 109kt

Answer 12

-2000 to 14100ft.

Answer 13

40m +2.5kt

Answer 14

40m +1.5kt

Answer 15

Do not exceed a taxi speed of 20kt during a turn.

Answer 16

230kt. Applicable when wipers are sweeping. Not applicable if wipers are not sweeping for any reason.

Answer 17

73900 or 71900

Answer 18

73500 or 71500

Answer 19

20min, lack of fresh air will reduce the cabin´s air quality.

Answer 20

To prevent any adverse effect on the bleed air system.

Answer 21

No limitation

Answer 22

9550ft +-350ft

Answer 23

+-7Hpa (0.1psi)

Answer 24

100ft AGL and at least 5s after liftoff

Answer 25

Permitted provided if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above, the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500ft AGL.

Answer 26

AP on = 1NM

Answer 27

AP on = 0.5NM

Answer 28

AP on = 0.3NM

Answer 29

Navigation accuracy remains sufficient for RNP operations provided that RNP value is checked and entered on the MCDU and HIGH ACCURACY is displayed.

Answer 30

Waypoint coordinates.

Answer 31

50ft, A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed.

Answer 32

Minimum decision height = 22ft Minimum RVR = 75m

Answer 33

Config full

Answer 34

20kt without automatic rollout, 15kt with automatic rollout

Answer 35

Only CAT 1 without autoland.

Answer 36

Wet and dry runways GS angle between -2.5 and -3.15 degrees Airport elevation between -1000ft and 6500ft. Aircraft weight below maximum landing weight

Answer 37

Dry and wet runways, contaminated runways was not demonstrated.

Answer 38

No more than IDLE reverse is used, wind does not exceed the maximum wind conditions for automatic rollout

Answer 39

Yes, provided that airline checked the ILS beam quality and the effect of the terrain profile before runway have no adverse effect on AP/FD guidance. Effect of terrain profile within 300m before runway threshold must be evaluated. FC is aware of LOC or G/S beam fluctuations and PF is prepared to immediatly discconect the AP and take appropriate action At least CAT II capability is displayed on FMA and FC used CAT II/CATIII procedures Visual references are obtained at an altitude appropriate for CAT 1 approach, if not go-around must be performed.

Answer 40

Must wait 60min before a new start attempt

Answer 41

Maximum N speed = 107%

Answer 42

If APU failed to start or automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown

Answer 43

20000ft 22500ft (single pack operation) 15000ft (dual pack operation)

Answer 44

Use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice is not permitted.

Answer 45

All engines operative = 5 minutes, EGT 635 degrees One engine inoperative = 10min, EGT 635 degrees

Answer 46

EGT = 635 degrees

Answer 47

Not limited, EGT 610 degrees

Answer 48

100% Ambient conditions and on configuration of the engine air bleed. These parameters may limit N1 to a value that is less than above-mentioned N1 value

Answer 49

Express the rotaional speed of turbine engines as a percentage of the maximum normal operating RPM. N1 is the speed of the low pressure spool and serves as the primary power setting, N2 is the speed of the high pressure spool which indicates if aircraft systems have sufficient power.

Answer 50

11qt + estimated consumption (average is 0.3qt/h)

Answer 51

30min cooling period required to three failed cycles, or 4min of continous crank, or 5min cumulated crank.

Answer 52

2 minutes.

Answer 53

When N2 is above 10% on-ground and 18% in flight.

Answer 54

70kt. Aircraft stop.

Answer 55

On contaminated runways.

Answer 56

Higher than TMAXFLEX = ISA + 55 degrees Lower than the flat temperature (TREF) Lower than the actual OAT

Answer 57

Runway condition (dry, wet or contaminated) We do not have it. Selection of TOGA is not permitted when a derated takeoff is performed.

Answer 58

Able to start in crosswind up to 35kt.

Answer 59

30 degrees at engine start, the altitude must be limited to 35000ft until the center tank is empty. 40 degrees at engine start, the altitude must be limited to 30000ft until center tank is empty. 49 degrees at engine start, the altitude must be limited to 25000ft until the center tank is empty. At high altitude with high fuel temperature, the pressure supplied by the center tank pumps becomes lower than the pressure supplied by the wing tank pumps.

Answer 60

Full = 500kg maximum asymmetry 3000kg (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank) = 1050kg maximum asymmetry 1450kg = (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank) 1450kg maximum asymmetry

Answer 61

370kg maximum asymmetry

Answer 62

Full = 1500kg maximum asymmetry 4300kg (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank) = 1600kg maximum asymmetry 2250kg (tank fuel quantity, heavier tank)= 2250kg maximum asymmetry

Answer 63

690kg maximum asymmetry

Answer 64

1500kg. ECAM FUEL WING TK LO LVL etc must not appear for takeoff.

Answer 65

OAT on ground or after takeoff or the TAT in flight is at or below 10 degrees and visible moisture in any form is present (clouds, fog with visibility of 1sm (1600m) or less, rain, snow, ice crystals) Also exist when OAT on ground and for takeoff is at or below 10C and operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacalles or engine sensor probes.

Answer 66

Ice accumulation on the airframe reaches approximately 5mm thick or more.

Answer 67

White crystalline deposit which usually developt on exposed surfaces on cold and cloudless nights. Very thin = lines or markings can be distinguished beneath it.

Answer 68

+-85 degrees.

Answer 69

Maximum 30 degrees.

Answer 70

Ask for aircraft inspection prior to vacate the runway or taxi. If ground crew suspects that a tire burst may damage the LDG gear, maintanence action is due.

Answer 71

73 degrees north and 73 degrees south.

Answer 72

North of 73 degrees north and south of 60 degrees south Flying at latitudes beyond these limits are prohibited

Answer 73

Preflight checks, use of oxygen when only one FC member is in the cockpit, unusable quantity (to ensure regulator operation with minimum pressure), normal system leakage The most demanding case among the following: Protection after loss of cabin pressure, with mask regulator on NORMAL: - During emergency descent for all FC members and observers for 13min - During cruise at FL100 for two flight crew members for 107min. - Protection against smoke with 100% oxygen for all FC members and observers during 15min at 8000ft cabin altitude

Answer 74

Less than 15NM from the airfield and operations form/to runways not incorporated in the GPWS database and for specific approach or departure procedures, whhich have previously been intentified by the operator as potentially causing expected or spurious terrain alters. Decision to inhibit predictive GPWS functions must not be based on flight crew judgment only.

Answer 75

Electrical wipers with two speeds (SLOW/FAST). Rotary selector controls each wiper.

Answer 76

Mean sea level pressure corrected for temperature. When this is set on your altimeter, it will read your height not altitude. It will read zero at airfield elevation and after TOF it will read your height above that specific airfield.

Answer 77

Pressure measured at station when reduced down to mean sea level pressure. When you set this on your altimeter, it will read your altitude. It is the lowest forecast pressure at mean sea level for a given day to ensure that safe terrain seperation is maintained regardless of the days variation in pressure.

Answer 78

Divide airfireld altitude in feet by 30 to get the number of millibars above MSL. Add this to QFE to get QNH or subtract it from QNH to get QFE.

Answer 79

If an arc is displayed on the ECAM WHEEL page, above the brake temperature (indicating a brake temperature > 100 degrees, select brake fans ON. This will ensure MAX energy rejected TOF will be sustained, the brake temperature for taxi will be in appropriate areas.

Answer 80

If they are running, check brake temperature is below 150C. If temperature is above 150 degrees, delay takeoff until 150C is reached with fans running then switch them off.

Answer 81

Should be delayed for a minimum of about 5 minutes or at the gate (whichever occurs first). The arc displayed on ECAM WHEEL page, suggesting the selection of brake fans at taxi out should be ignored for taxi in. Also, even if we get BRAKE HOT after landing should not lead to immediate selection of brake fans as long as 500 degrees is not likely to be reached.

Answer 82

When passangers is BELOW 141.

Answer 83

Do not press the engine fire pushbuttons, this would cut of the FADEC power supply which would prevent motoring sequence.

Answer 84

Nose gear bay, air condition compartment, main gear bay, tailcone.

Answer 85

ECU (engine control unit CFM), EEC (Electronic engine control IAE) and EIU (engine interface unit) while the engine is running. You can only do it when both engines are shut down.

Answer 86

BSCU (Brake steering control unit) should not be resetted if aircraft is not stopped.

Answer 87

In flight the crew must restrict computer resets to those listed in the table or applicable TRs or OEBs.

Answer 88

In flight: Do not pull SFCC (could lead to SLATS/FLAPS locked) in flight. On ground: Okay but hydraulic must be depressurized.

Answer 89

Associated CKPT CTL = OFF Wait 3s Associated CKPT CTL = ON Wait 3s Record in Logbook even if not successful

Answer 90

Associated C/B = CROSSCHECK (PF and PM) Associated C/B = PULL Wait 5s Associated C/B = PUSH Wait 3s Record in Logbook even if not successful

Answer 91

Two types, Monitored (green) = when out for more than 1 minute, the C/B tripped warning is triggered on ECAM = monitored by ECAM Non-monitored (black).

Answer 92

They have red caps to prevent them from being reset = we can not.

Answer 93

GEN 1 and GEN 2 has priority over APU generator and external power. External power has priority over the APU generator when EXT PWR pb is on.

Answer 94

Entire network, except the DC bus entartainment. You need two generators to supply the DC bus entariment except on ground if APU generator or the external power is sufficient.

Answer 95

Not permitted.

Answer 96

Never in the air. Engines off, parking brake on and then.

Answer 97

Via two pack flow control valves, two packs, the mixing unit which mixes the air that comes form the packs and the cabin. Air is then distrubated to the trim air valves which takes help from the hot air valve and then to the cockpit and the cabin.

Answer 98

Ram air inlet can provide ambient air to the mixing unit. It ventilates the cockpit and cabin to remove smoke, if both packs fail. The pushbutton opens the ram air valve, provided ditching is not selected. Outflow valve opens about 50% provided it is under automatic control and DELTAP is less than 1PSI. Check valve located downstream the ram air door will not open = No airflow will then be supplied. The outflow valve control remains normal and no emergency raim air flows in.

Answer 99

Via the hot air pressure regulating valve and the trim air valves that add hot air, from the air coming from the mixing unit.

Answer 100

During cruise can modify each cabin zone temperature that is selected from the cockpit with +-2.5 degrees.

Answer 101

Automatically and independently of each other. 1. Warm pre-conditioned bleed air enters the cooling path via the pack flow control valve and is transfered to the primary heat exchanger. 2. Then the cooled bleed air enters the compressor section of the air-cycle machine and is compressed to a higher pressure and temperature. 3. It is cooled again in the main heat exchangers and enters the turbine section where it expands and in expanding generates power to drive the compressor and cooling air fan. 4. The removal of energy during this process reduce air temperature, resulting in very low air temperature at turbine discharge. 5. From here the air goes do the mixing unit and then to the trim air valves and then distrubuted to the cabin and cockpit.

Answer 102

Pneumatically operated and electrically controlled. ACSC1 regulate this valve. Valve closes automatically if both ACSC1 or ACSC2 fail, or the duct overheats or at least two trim air valves fail. Remains operative even if either the forward or aft cabin trim air valve fails.

Answer 103

Cockpit by ACSC1 and cabin by ACSC2. Electrically controlled by the zone controllers or the ACSC. Acting on the trim air valves.

Answer 104

Sensors, in the cockpit for cockpit zone and in the lavatory extraction circuit and galley ventilation system for the cabin.

Answer 105

From 18C to 30C, you have 18, 24 and 30.

Answer 106

TOF = when TOF power is set and the main landing gear struts are compressed. Landing = As soon as the landing gear struts are compressed as long as the speed is at or above 70kt. Opens 20s after the speed drops below 70kt.

Answer 107

Single pack operation or APU is supplying bleed air.

Answer 108

Failed open = no effect. Failed closed = Optimized regulation is lost. Trim air valves are drived to fully closed position. Which means if hot air valve close, the trim air valves close. Pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected value and pack 2 controls the cabin temperature to the mean value of the selected temperatures. When duct overheat is detected.

Answer 109

Optimized temperature regulation to the corresponding zone is lost. The temperature is fixed.

Answer 110

Two. They circulate the air in the cabin.

Answer 111

Ground function = Fully opens the outflow valve on ground Prepressurization = During takeoff, increases cabin pressure to avoid surge in cabin pressure during rotation Pressurization in flight = Adjust the cabin altitude, and rate of change to provide passengers with a comfortable flight. Depressurization = After touchdown, gradually releases the residual cabin overpressure before theground function fully opens the outflow valve.

Answer 112

One of the two cabin pressure controllers CPCs operates the outflow valve.

Answer 113

From the FMGC. If it fails and not available for automatic pressurization, the crew only needs to sleect the landing field elevation.

Answer 114

Automatic mode (normal), semi automatic mode or manual mode (manual motor of the outflow valve used).

Answer 115

Two identical, independent, automatically controls the system by maintaining proper cabin pressure. ADIRS, FMGC, EIU (engine interface unit) and LGCIU. 70s after each landing, or if the operating system fails. Set MODE SEL pb to MAN, for at least 10s, then returning it to AUTO will select the other system. It uses landing elevation and QNH from FMGC and the pressure altitude from ADIRS. Captains BARO reference from the ADIRS and the manual LDG ELEV selection

Answer 116

Two independent pneumatic valves prevent cabin pressure from going too high. (8.6PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient).

Answer 117

Ground, takeoff, climb, cruise, descend, abort

Answer 118

Before takeoff and 55s after landing, outflow valve fully opens to ensure there is no residual cabin pressure. At touchdown, any remaining cabin pressure is released at a cabin vertical speed of 500ft/min.

Answer 119

Controller maintains cabin altitude at the level-off value or at the landing field elevation, whichever is higher. but still limited to maximum 8000ft.

Answer 120

Maintains a cabin rate of descent such that cabin pressure is equal to the landing field pressure +0.1PSI, shortly before landing. Maximum is 750ft/min.

Answer 121

If aircraft does not climb after takeoff, the abort mode prevents the cabin altitude from climbing. Cabin pressure is set back to takeoff altitude +0.1 PSI.

Answer 122

Send close signal to outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation, pack flow control valves. IF outflow valve in manual control, it will not close automatically even if ditching is pressed.

Answer 123

Flashes if it reaches 1750ft/min, stop flashes when returning below 1650ft/min.

Answer 124

Below or at -0.4PSI or above or at 8.5PSI.

Answer 125

Reaches 8800ft and stop flashing below 8600ft.

Answer 126

FWC. 1. ELEC PWR 2. 1st Engine started 3. 1st engine to power 4. 80kt 5. Liftoff 6. 1500ft 7. 800ft 8 Touchdown 9. 80kt 10. 2nd ENG shutdown 11. 5MN after.

Answer 127

Flight phase 3,4 and 5. Phase 7 and 8

Answer 128

Avionics, batteries, lavatories and galleys.

Answer 129

Open-circuit configuration, operates when avionics duct temperature is equal or above 40C, throttle not at TO and aircraft on ground. Air comes in from skin air inlet valve, passes through filter and then blower fan, continue to avionics equipment, to the extract fan and out from skin air outlet valve.

Answer 130

In flight = Operates when skin temperature is below the in-flight threshold which is +35C temperature increasing or +32C temperature decreasing. On ground = when avinoic duct temperature is below 40C. Skin Air inlet and outlet valves are closed. The air circulates and air is added from the avionic bay and the cargo underfloor instead.

Answer 131

Venturi in the skin of the aircraft draws air from the space around the batteries and vents it overboard. Resulting airflow ventilates the batteries.

Answer 132

To prevent possible interferance to radar surveillance system It should not be selected before the holding point/lining up.

Answer 133

TA/RA mode is the default mode of the TCAS. Too see other traffic and be visible for other traffic. We can depart with TA only in specific airports, and for specific procedures that may provide false resolution advisories. We turn it to TA/RA at the acceleration flow pattern after TOF.

Answer 134

We check that the voltage is above 25.5V, this ensures a charge above 50%. A charging cycle of 20min is required. BAT1 and BAT2 auto, EXT PWR = on, check on ELEC SD page that the battery contactor is closed and the batteries are charging. After 20min = BAT1 and BAT2 off, BAT 1 and BAT2 voltage check above 25.5V, BAT1 and BAT2 auto.

Answer 135

Wheel chocks, landing gear doors = check pisition, APU area = check. Do not pressurize the hydraulic systems until clearence is obtained from ground personnel.

Answer 136

Yes, it should be started 30min after the selection of batteries to AUTO.

Answer 137

Less than 25% of maximum capacity.

Answer 138

DO not transmit on HF during refueling operations and only perform HF radio checks when appropriate (no personeel in the immediate vicinity).

Answer 139

Automatic shutdown of the APU and the discharge of the APU fire extinguisher bottle may occur.

Answer 140

Not recommended. In extremly hot conditions (OAT>36C) when APU can provide more cool air when GPU provides electrical power.

Answer 141

Do not use it if ground personnel confirms that a LP or HP ground air unit is connected to the aircraft. We can also ocnfirm it on the BLEED SD page, if there is pressure in the bleed system.

Answer 142

AUTO FLT RUD TRV LIM SYS associated with CAT2/CAT3/CAT 3 DUAL inop systems or COM SATCOM FAULT.

Answer 143

1. Before the first flight of the day or 2. Crew change or 3. When departure airport is located between latitudes 2 degrees north and 2 degrees south or 4. GPS is not available and the NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route or 5. GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3h.

Answer 144

If a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5NM. Aircraft must be stopped on ground. Any aircraft movement will automatically restart the IRS alignment. Do not align IRS during engine start, or while the engines are running.

Answer 145

Icing conditions with OAT at +3C or below, this time will be used to determine the remaing taxi-out time before the next engine acceleration for ice shedding.

Answer 146

Must be completed at the end of the cockpit preperation.

Answer 147

IF the OXY pressure is half boxed in amber in the DOOR SD page.

Answer 148

May change to environmetal conditions. If OAT is above 20C, a fliud level above the normal range (up to half of the normal range) is acceptable.

Answer 149

Check it is in the green band. If required use the electric pump on yellow hydraulic system to recharge the brake accumulator.

Answer 150

When one brake is above 500 degrees, or 350 degrees with brake fans ON.

Answer 151

Life vests stowed Crash axe stowed PBE is stowed and ready for use Portable fire extinguisher is lockwired and pressure gauge within the green area Smoke goggles are stowed Oxygen masks are stowed Flashlights are stowed Escape ropes stowed

Answer 152

Never use rain repellent to wash the windshield and never use it on a dry windshield. Use only in case of moderate to heavy rain. When aircraft on ground, engines off.

Answer 153

Must be set to ON to enable the flight crew to check brake wear indicators.

Answer 154

In order to perform the test, ensure that the PRK BRK is on. Contineous tone or short tone. A short tone, or short tone and a beep every 4s, or two short tones and a beep every 4s.

Answer 155

BAT 1 and BAT 2 to off then auto. 10s after auto, check the ELEC SD page that the current charge of the battery is below 60A, and is decreasing. If the charge of at least one battery is not below 60A, wait until the end of the charging cycle of the batteries and perform this check again.

Answer 156

Check no flags, reset attitude if necessary. +/- 1s UTC, to comply with this precision for ATC datalink communication, the flight crew must either use the clock in GPS mode or use the clock INT mode and synchronize the clock with the GPS at least one time per day. This ensures that the UTC time drift is below +/- 1s UTC.

Answer 157

OFF. Releasing the parking prevents the critical structures from being exposed to high temperature levels for an extended time.

Answer 158

2 ADR 2 PFD functions 1 transponder 1 AP 1 FCU channel (open climb/open descend) 1 FWC SYS1 if AP1 is used, SYS2 if AP2 is used. 150ft. PFDs = 90ft. Standby and PFD = 295ft

Answer 159

3 min for test completion.

Answer 160

Until the message PLEASE WAIT dissapears from the MCDU.

Answer 161

Automatic. GPS position. If IRS alignment based on GPS position not availble = apply the manual position initialization procedure.

Answer 162

Computed from the ZFW and ZFWCG entered by the crew on the MCDU. Therefore, this data must be carefully checked (CPTs responsibility).

Answer 163

THS until the laodsheet is received. When entered in the MCDU, the THS value will be used to trigger the F/CTL PITCH TRIM/MCDU/CG disagree alert.

Answer 164

Indicates in the TOW used in both systems (EFB/FMGS).

Answer 165

+-20ft between both PFD +-100ft between ISIS and PFDs +-300ft between mechanical standby altimeter and PFDs.

Answer 166

Do not do it, it may generate the AUTO FLT A/THR OFF warning at engine start.

Answer 167

On the ECAM DOOR/OXY SD page, check amber REGUL LO PR indication is not displayed. It ensures that the LP valve is open.

Answer 168

In the tow position. NW STRG DISC memo on the ECAM indicates this position. Do not start the engines during pushback in order to avoid possible damage to the nose landing gear upon yellow hydraulic pressurization.

Answer 169

To power the yellow hydraliuc system, that pressurizes the parking brake. After all amber crosses (except N1 and N2) and messages have disappeared on the engine parameters (upper ECAM display) and ENG SD page.

Answer 170

Loss of ECAM DUs. We should abort the start by setting the ENG MASTER to OFF, then perform a 30s dry crank. Applies an automatic recovery sequence without ECAM message. It is not necessary for the crew to shut down the engine.

Answer 171

EPR about 1.01 N1 about 21.4% N2 about 57.8% EGT aboout 414C FF about 350kg/h

Answer 172

If the last engine is started withing 40s following the end of the cargo doors operation.

Answer 173

During all ground operations, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. Pneumatically/by pressure from the thrust. Increase the N2 of the associated engine by 5%. When valves are open, retard the thrust levers to IDLE. If ENG ANTI ICE pb-sw is set to ON, IGNITION memo appers on the ECAM because continuous ignition is automatically selected.

Answer 174

An indication of up to 0.3 degrees L or R in the RUD TRIM position indication.

Answer 175

If heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after takeoff.

Answer 176

Improve performance when using TOGA thrust. In case of FLEX takeoff, selecting packs OFF or APU BLEED ON will reduce takeoff EGT and thus reduce maintanence costs.

Answer 177

RWY and departure area has been checked for being free WX radar display has been checked Airborne frequency is prepared in STBY window if known.

Answer 178

If crosswind at or below 20kt and no tailwind = half forward. Apply it until the airspeed reaches 80kt and release gradually to reach neutral at 100kt to counter nose-up effect. In case of tailwind or if the crosswind is above 20kt = sidestick full forward. Increase thrust levers progressively to reach takeoff thrust by 40kt ground speed.

Answer 179

ENG SD page replaces WHEEL SD page on the ECAM lower display.

Answer 180

Check actual N1/EPR of the individual enginees has reaches the N1/EPR rating limit before aircraft reaches 80kt and check EGT. Then announce THRUST SET.

Answer 181

Achiev continious rotation with a rate of 3 degrees/s towards a pitch attitude of 15 degrees.

Answer 182

Result in an EGT increase.

Answer 183

Of the cost index. At least 0.3g buffet margin. We can, FMGC will accept it provided that it does not exceed the level at which the margin is reduced to 0.2g.

Answer 184

Because of the landing gear retraction.

Answer 185

Suspect a fuel leak. Suspect a fuel quantity overread.

Answer 186

Reverse MAX. Dry = we may use IDLE. Wet = select IDLE only if all the following conditions are satisfied: Landing distance assessment has been made with the following parameters = MEDIUM TO POOR landing performance level for the in-flight landing distance computation, no reverser credit and the result of the landing distance assessment is within the DA.

Answer 187

During approach, the GS mini function in MANAGED speed mode takes into account the gust.

Answer 188

Speed is managed and FMS flight phase is the approach phase. It takes advantage of aircraft intertia when wind varies during approach to provide an appropriate indicated target speed. When we fly this speed = the energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level that ensures standard aerodynamic margins versus the stall. Energy level the aircraft will have at touchdown with an indicated speed equal to VAPP, and with the wind equal to the tower reported wind as inserted in the PERF APPR page. The ground speed then equals to ground speed mini. During approach, FMGC computes the managed target speed in order to keep the ground speed at or above the gorund speed mini.

Answer 189

It uses the tower headwind component, the current headwind component and the VAPP. Tower headwind component = Avarage wind provided by ATIS and the value we enter in PERF APPR page. Current headwind = Current wind measured by the ADIRS on the aircraft longitudinal axis. VAPP computation = FMS computed the VAPP and displays it on the PERF APPR page. It takes into account the tower headwind component. VAPP = VLS + 1/3 x twr headwind component or VAPP = VLS + 5kt. NOTE: 1/3 of the twr reported headwind has 2 limits = 0kt as the minimum value (no wind or tailwind) and+15lt as the maximum value.

Answer 190

Additional/planning in order to meet company stabilization criteria and longer LDR (less drag, higher pitch + higher touchdown speed). Conditions of windshear. In turbulence that is not associated with windshear (no significant change of wind direction or speed during the approach, thermals) or tailwind exists or is anticipated on the approach.

Answer 191

Climb = up to SAT -40C. Descend = even if SAT below -40C, it must be on. It reduces the descent path angle when the engines are at IDLE. We can compensate for this by incresing the descend speed or by extending up to half speedbrakes.

Answer 192

If NAV ACCURACY is low, it can show us false indications.

Answer 193

Decelerated approach is not permitted, and the aircraft speed should be stabilizes at around VREF + 5kt in final.

Answer 194

More than 3NM before the final descent point. At 2000ft AGL minimum and one dot below.

Answer 195

Flaps 1 and S-speed at or above 2000ft AGL.

Answer 196

Check for three green indications on the landing gear indicator panel. At least one green triangles on each landing gear strut on the WHEEL SD page is sufficient to indicate that the landing gear is downlocked. Rely also on the LDG GEAR DN LDG memo message to ocnfirm that the landing gear is downlocked.

Answer 197

After the landing gear is downlocked it accomplish the alternate braking functional test. If residual pressure = RESIDUAL BRAKING PROC APPLY.

Answer 198

BEFORE conf full. Retract them before selecting flaps full to prevent a pitch down when the speed brakes automatically retract.

Answer 199

ON only in severe icing conditions. We should not land with it.

Answer 200

VFE -15kt when possible.

Answer 201

3s after being armed. Below 5000ft AGL. Above 5000ft AGL it displays CAT 1.

Answer 202

LOC and GS = 0.5dot. XTK > 0.1NM and V/DEV > 1/2 dot. One the vertical scale, one dot corresponds to 100ft, therefore 1/2 is 50ft.

Answer 203

Autoland is not authorized. 40ft, latest 30ft. As soon as one of the main gears touches the ground, latest when nose wheel have touched.

Answer 204

Do not use FINAL APP, use NAV/FPA or TRK FPA.

Answer 205

It must be available on at least one FMS. Maximum acceptable difference between altimeters is 100ft.

Answer 206

From minima down to MAP, the FD provides an additional guidance. The FD must be switched off if the guidance is not relevant. After the MAP, disregard the FDs as it reverts to HDG V/S

Answer 207

Use appropriate remaining AP/FD in the following cases: GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND or NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on one ND. GPS primary lost on both ND, XTK > 0.3NM, NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE, NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both NDs. Also in case of deviation of 75ft below VDEV = 3/4dot.

Answer 208

As soon as both engines are set to IDLE.

Answer 209

Both main landing gears on ground, both thrust levers at or below IDLE position. If one or more thrust levers remain above the IDLE detent.

Answer 210

Ground spoilers extend at reverse thrust selection. The autobrake will not activate.

Answer 211

When aircraft reaches taxi speed, and before it leaves the runway. Reversers should be stowed when aircraft speed reaches 25kt.

Answer 212

At low airspeeds, the airflow caused by gases reentering the compressor, can cause engine stall that may result in excessive EGT.

Answer 213

Before 20kt. Otherwise we can get an ECAM.

Answer 214

In order to provide power to the engine fire extinguisher bottles, and avoid electrical transients and load shedding.

Answer 215

1. Temperature difference between two brakes of a gear is more than 150C and the temperature of one of these brakes is ABOVE or equal to 600C. or 2. The temperature difference between two brakes of a gear is more than 150C, and the temperature of one of these brakes is BELOW or equal to 60C. or 3. The difference between the average temperature of the left gear brakes and right brakes is above or equal to 200C. or 4. The temperature of one brake exceeds 900C.

Answer 216

1. If idle reverse were used = cooling time starts when the flight crew retards the thrust lever during the flare. 2. If full reverse were used = cooling time starts when the flight crew sets the thrust lever to idle reverse during the landing rollout = latest 70kt.

Answer 217

Set it on before engine shutdown to avoid engine exhaust fumes from entering the air conditioning.

Answer 218

Wait until APU flap is fully closed (about 2min after the APU AVAIL light goes out) before switching off the batteries. Switching the batteries before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight. APU fire extinguishing is not available.

Answer 219

Only available during an automatic landing. 1. At least one AP is engaged. LAND and A/THR speed mode are engaged. 2. FLARE engages 3. When aircraft raches approx 30ft, the A/THR retard mode automatically engages. FMA DISPLAYS THR IDLE and A/THR sets the thrust to IDLE 4. A retard callout triggers at 10ft RA, asking the fight crew to set the thrust levers to IDLE 5. Flight crew sets the thrust levers to IDLE = A/THR disconnects and the RETARD mode disengages.

Answer 220

For automatic landing = 10ft, manual landing = 20ft. In manual or automatic landing, the RETARD callout triggers independently of the thrust lever position.

Answer 221

Extraction fan draws ambient cabin air thruough the lavatories and galleys and exhausts it near the outflow valve. The fan runs continually when electric power is available.

Answer 222

An extraction fan draws air from forward cargo compartment or aft cargo compartment and exhausts it overboard, Air from the cabin replaces the exhausted air thus ventilating the cargo compartments. Uses the hot engine bleed air, which is also used for cockpit and cabin temperature control, mixing it with the ambient cabin air that flows through the cargo compartment.

Answer 223

2 flight management guidance computers FMGC 2 Multipurpose control and siplay units MCDU (third optional) 1 flight control unit (FCU) 2 flight augmentation computers FAC

Answer 224

Flight time, mileage, speed, economy profiles and altitude. MCDU.

Answer 225

28 days. Updating operating takes 20min to complete or 5min if crossloaded from the opposite FMGC.

Answer 226

99 waypoints 10 runways 20 navaids 5 routes

Answer 227

Short-term interface between the flight crew and the FMGC. Used to select any flight parameters or modify those selected in MCDU.

Answer 228

2 Flight augumentation computers. Rudder, rudder trim, yaw damping inputs, warning for low-energy, windshear detection and flight envelope and speed functions (VLS, VFE on PFD etc.)

Answer 229

Thrust levers.

Answer 230

ARC (map mode), ROSE NAV (map mode), ROSE VOR, ROSE LS, PLAN

Answer 231

DUAL MODE = normal mode Independent mode = each FMGC being controlled by its associated MCDU- Single mode = using one FMGC only.

Answer 232

1 AP = Related FMGC is master = onside FD for guidance, controls the A/THR, controls FMA 1 and 2 2 AP = FMGC1 is master No AP = FD1 on = FMGC1 master. FD2 on = FMGC2 master. If no AP engaged = A/THR is controlled by FMGC1.

Answer 233

The FMGS will only operate in independent mode. Check database number and validity. INDEPENDENT OPERATION ON GROUD ONLY: CROSSLOAD the database to restore dual operation. ONLY authorized personnel should take the responsibility to crossload the FMGC database. IN FLIGHT: DO NOT SWITCH the navigation databases. Make the same entries on both MCDUs to have both AP/FDs orders.

Answer 234

System automatically selects the degraded mode = single mode. OPP FMGC IN PROCESS If NDs not both in same mode or range, the associated ND displays "MAP NOT AVAIL" and "SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE". When they are on same range and mode = OFFSIDE FM CONTROL is displayed.

Answer 235

Yes, but only one FMGC at a time. Crew may attempt a double and simultaneous CB reset.

Answer 236

When GW computed by FMGC and the GW computed by the FAC disagree by more than 7t.

Answer 237

PFD1 displays FD1 guidance orders, computed by FMGC1. PFD2 displays FD2 guidance orders, computed by FMGC2.

Answer 238

HDG or TRACK and V/S or FPA engages. 10s.

Answer 239

Ground = aircraft power-up. In flight = automatically if the crew engages the SRS GA mode or the AP/FD TCAS mode engages upon a RA.

Answer 240

Bank exceeds 45 degrees or aircraft pitch exceeds 25 degrees up or 13 degrees down. The pitch bar disappears in ROLL OUT mode.

Answer 241

All FD pb remain on Both PFDs display the guidance orders from the remaining FD 1FD1 appears on the FMA if FD2 fails, or 2FD2 if FD1 fails.

Answer 242

If the guidance orders are not available while the FD is engaged, a FD red flag appers on the PFD and the FD bars disappear.

Answer 243

Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated. Stabilizer and rudder can also be mechanically controlled.

Answer 244

Stabilizer = Electrical for normal or alternate control, mechanical for manual trim control. Rudder = Mechanical, however control for yaw damping, turn coordination and trim is electrical.

Answer 245

7. 2 ELACs (elevator aileron computer) 3 SECs (flight augumentation computer) 2 FACs (flight augumentation computer)

Answer 246

2, 3 and 4. 25 degrees.

Answer 247

Flaps full, SEC 1 and SEC3 both are faulty. Retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and FC resets the lever.

Answer 248

Rejected takeoff = If they spoilers armed and wheel speed exceeds 72kt, ground spoilers will automatically extent as soon as both thrust levers are set to IDLE. If not armed = Wheel speed exceeds 72kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine.

Answer 249

When aircraft passes 50ft, THS is frozen and flight mode changes to flare mode. System memorizes the aircraft´s attitude at 50ft. As the aircraft descends through 30ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude to -2 nose down over a period of 8s.

Answer 250

Three outboard leading-edge slats (3-4-5) of each wing and engine air intakes. Flight compartment windows, sensors, pitot probes and static ports, waste-water drain mast.

Answer 251

In flight, hot air from the pneumatic system heats the three outboard slats. Air is supplied through one valve in each wing. On ground, FC can initiate a 30s test sequence by turning the system ON. Affected side´s wing anti-ice valve automatically closes. N1 and EPR limit is reduced, idle N1 and EPR is increased. The valves close.

Answer 252

Independant air bleed form the high pressure compressor protects each engine nacalle from ice. Air is supplied through a two-position (open and closed) valve that FC controls with two pushbuttons. When air is unavailable (engine not running).

Answer 253

The valves close. The valve open.

Answer 254

2 Window heat computers WHC. Automatically when at least one engine is running or when aircraft in flight or manually before flight when FC switches ON the probe/window head pushbutton.

Answer 255

Three PROBE HEAT COMPUTERS PHCs automatically control and monitor: Captain probes, F/O probes and STBY probes. TAT probes are not heated ON GROUND and pitot heating operates at a low level.

Answer 256

Open position = RH valve may be inoperative in OPEN position provided that the associated ECAM procedure is applied and increase fuel by 3-4% according to MEL. Closed position = One or both may be inoperative in closed position provided that the aircraft is not operated in known or forecast icing condition.

Answer 257

Closed = One or both may be inoperative in closed position provided that the aircraft is not operated in known or forecast icing condition. Open = One or both may be inoperative in open position provided that performance penalties are applied (3-4% extra) and OAT is below ISA+35C.

Answer 258

Any EPR difference more than 1.25 and EPR differs more than 0.3.

Answer 259

Speedbrakes extended, engines not at IDLE.

Answer 260

Alpha floor.

Answer 261

Inhibited.

Answer 262

Outside only.

Answer 263

It automatically unlocks.

Answer 264

On the CPTs PFD when the captains ILS push button is selectec ON. NOT ON ND.

Answer 265

Loss of power and display unit failure.

Answer 266

As you approach within 750ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 250ft.

Answer 267

Only when the flap handle position is in position 1.

Answer 268

Reminder that the status page holds a maintenece message.

Answer 269

IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat

Answer 270

Never disconnect an IDG unless engines are running nor push the IDG button for more than 3s.

Answer 271

Charging current increases as an abnormal rate.

Answer 272

25V or less

Answer 273

DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay.

Answer 274

The electrical system will not allow paralleling of generators.

Answer 275

No. Electrcial power to both AC BUS 1 and 2 is lost and the aircraft speed is above 100kt.

Answer 276

When selected off, generator 1 is removed from all buses but continue to power one fuel pump in each wing.

Answer 277

ELAC1 and SEC1.

Answer 278

DME1 and transponder 1.

Answer 279

The landing gear is up.

Answer 280

The load of any geenrator is above 100% of its rated output.

Answer 281

ACP 1 and 2, VHF1, RMP1, VOR1, ILS1

Answer 282

When aircraft speed is above 50kt and on batteries only.

Answer 283

TR1 via DC BUS1 and DC BAT BUS

Answer 284

APU bleed valve is open.

Answer 285

One zone controller and two pack controllers.

Answer 286

The pylons and the APU.

Answer 287

Intermediate.

Answer 288

3. 2 automatic, 1 manual.

Answer 289

Engine 1 and APU leak detection.

Answer 290

Bleed leak

Answer 291

200 degrees.

Answer 292

If system detects an air leak (except during engine start).

Answer 293

Detection loops associated with BMC1.

Answer 294

Wing anti-ice closes on associated side, engine anti ice still operating.

Answer 295

Electric, not pneumatic

Answer 296

Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.

Answer 297

Only on the ground.

Answer 298

Operate the aircraft below 15000ft.

Answer 299

2 minutes.

Answer 300

Wing = 17min. All tanks = 20min.

Answer 301

Reminder to show that a transfer valve is open.

Answer 302

To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (feeding segregation).

Answer 303

Outer cell of the wing tanks and inner cell of the wing tanks.

Answer 304

1. Run for 2 minutes after both engines are running. 2. Will not restart until slats are retracted in flight. 3. Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty.

Answer 305

At least one center tank pump is energized.

Answer 306

Electrically held closed.

Answer 307

False. It´s heated automatically on ground before engine start. The heat is reduced to avoid injury for the ground personel.

Answer 308

High power

Answer 309

The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically.

Answer 310

Air bleed from the high pressure compressor.

Answer 311

N2 is below idle.

Answer 312

3. Engine pump, electrical and hand pump.

Answer 313

+-75 degrees

Answer 314

An overheat.

Answer 315

Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure. (NOT OVERHEAT). GREEN OR YELLOW reservoir overheat/low air pressure/low level.

Answer 316

Yes, if the parking brake is set.

Answer 317

Landing gear normal extension, landing gear retraction, reverse 1, normal brakes

Answer 318

During the first engine start. Automatically after first engine start.

Answer 319

The warning level. NOT RESERVOIR CONTENTS

Answer 320

Extends RAT, pressurizes BLUE system, DOES NOT START EMERGENCY GENERATOR.

Answer 321

Yes, select the ECAM HYD page.

Answer 322

With a delay if the bleed air was in use. 60s.

Answer 323

Only when an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs

Answer 324

APU FIRE pushbutton illuminated. SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated.

Answer 325

Runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient ONLY.

Answer 326

Mechanical shaft power for driving the accessory gearbox and produces bleed air (engine starting and pneumatic supply).

Answer 327

When selected off, the APU generator is de-energized.

Answer 328

Ground services, normal aircraft supply, aircrafts batteries or in combination with the external power.

Answer 329

Fire (on ground only), underspeed, overspeed, EGT overtemperature, reverse flow, low oil pressure, DC power loss

Answer 330

Yes, but ONLY for electrical power. The APU bleed valve should not be opened while using wing anti-ice.

Answer 331

Its own magnetic alternator.

Answer 332

6, TO/GA, FLX/MCT, CL, IDLE, REV IDLE and MREV

Answer 333

Two, one per engine.

Answer 334

15s, we will loose the alpha floor protection.

Answer 335

From lift off and down to 100ft radio altitude in landing configuration.

Answer 336

Variable thrust and fixed speed.

Answer 337

Yes, thrust lever position is risregarded.

Answer 338

Decreasing below 5qt.

Answer 339

A/THR switch ON when throttles are NOT in engagement mode.

Answer 340

No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.

Answer 341

No, it is totally electrical.

Answer 342

Fuel used is reset, both igniters are powered and fuel flow is indicated.

Answer 343

Yes, by depressing the autothrust push button on FCU. This is the reason why we do not disconnect the A/THR from the FCU button while in fight, we do it from the red buttons on the A/THR to still have the alpha floor protection.

Answer 344

No. Only during ground except for manual start.

Answer 345

Yes, by manually disengaging the auto thrust.

Answer 346

Starter valve closure and ignition cut off.

Answer 347

Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.

Answer 348

A hot start, an overtemp, a stalled start or no lightoff.

Answer 349

It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask door.

Answer 350

An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.

Answer 351

The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400PSI.

Answer 352

When selected ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew´s masks

Answer 353

14000ft +0, -500ft

Answer 354

The DOORS page.

Answer 355

Electrical and flammable liquid fires.

Answer 356

15 minutes.

Answer 357

Disarm the door. It will not deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.

Answer 358

Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.

Answer 359

Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.

Answer 360

The memo has become amber because one engine is running.

Answer 361

Above 260kt +-5kt.

Answer 362

Yes, but only manually.

Answer 363

Marks hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100C.

Answer 364

The other brake systems and anti-skid are deactivated.

Answer 365

May be possible if gravity gear extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.

Answer 366

One ADIRS is functioning.

Answer 367

BSCU/yellow system

Answer 368

Comparing wheel speeds with aircraft reference speed.

Answer 369

Both yellow brake system and the brake accumulator.

Answer 370

Speed below 70kt, one engine running, towing in normal position, aircraft on ground

Answer 371

Landing gear is not down locked in approach configuration.

Answer 372

ADIRS 1 & 3.

Answer 373

Autobrake is disengaged.

Answer 374

Maximum +-6kt depending on aircraft speed.

Answer 375

5 minutes.

Answer 376

VHF1 and VHF3.

Answer 377

RMP1 and RMP2.

Answer 378

Automatically energized after first engine start or five minutes after AC electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

Answer 379

FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.

Answer 380

Only in flight.

Answer 381

Amber sign call flashes on VHF2 key.

Answer 382

RMP1 and RMP2 only.

Answer 383

COMMAND switch.

Answer 384

The RMP is being tuned to a transceiver from another RMP.

Answer 385

Information on RAD NAV is not available.

Answer 386

CAB reception knob and the ATT transmission key on ACP.

Answer 387

Drops 5 degrees.

Answer 388

Radio height below 50ft (100ft if AP connected), Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.

Answer 389

One aileron and four spoilers on each wing. (NOT RUDDER)

Answer 390

Resets to zero. Not reseted automatically.

Answer 391

Four wing tip brakes. It locks the high speed devices = flaps in case of asymmetry (NOT THE SLATS), overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement. Hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.

Answer 392

The affected spoilers automatically retract.

Answer 393

5deg/sec 1deg/sec 20 degrees.

Answer 394

After the slats are extended.

Answer 395

Relivies wing structure loads by deflacting the ailerons and spoilers.

Answer 396

Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.

Answer 397

Hydraulic power for actuation.

Answer 398

2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

Answer 399

It freezes at its present position and assumes low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.

Answer 400

AP disengages Bank angle is limited to 40 degrees The aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to VMO/MMO.

Answer 401

From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50ft RA.

Answer 402

Two, controls/monitor the slat and flaps system.

Answer 403

25 degrees nose up, reduced to 20 degrees at low speed.

Answer 404

Captains side-stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton.

Answer 405

G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.

Answer 406

The "pitch up" order is equal to a single stick defection.

Answer 407

LDG gear down and dual radio altimeter fault.

Answer 408

There is no feedback.

Answer 409

Out of normal law, below 100ft RA in landing configuration, If A/THR not available.

Answer 410

VMO is reduced to 320kt and MMO does not change.

Answer 411

It is not available when not in normal law.

Answer 412

Minimum fuel consumption (max range).

Answer 413

10 minutes.

Answer 414

Indication that alignment has stopped as the present position has not been entered from the FMGS.

Answer 415

When HDG or TRK mode is used.

Answer 416

A/P will disengage when one engine is started.

Answer 417

Pull the altitude, vertical speed or speed knob.

Answer 418

V2/SRS + 10kt.

Answer 419

FCU, thurst levers and MCDU.

Answer 420

Either MCDU1 or MCDU2.

Answer 421

Both NDs and DDRMI

Answer 422

PFD1, ND2 PFD2, ND1

Answer 423

Blue or magenta.

Answer 424

Green or blue.

Answer 425

Entry is required for minimum FMGS operation.

Answer 426

Four smoke detectors and two channel smoke detection control unit.

Answer 427

Must be shut down manually and the agent manually discharged.

Answer 428

The APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.

Answer 429

Pylon nacelle, core and fan.

Answer 430

Smoke in the avionics ventilation system.

Answer 431

Yes. APU will initiate auto shutdown and discharge the extinguishing agent.

Answer 432

Avionics compartment.

Answer 433

The extinguisher bottle has been discharged.

Answer 434

Only after the fire warning no longer exists.

Answer 435

Only APU and lavatory waste bins.

Answer 436

5sec X = FIRE warning

Answer 437

BLOWER AND EXTRACT push button fault lights will illuminate.

Answer 438

No smoke detectors, only two fire detection loops. A and B.

Answer 439

50 to 2500ft.

Answer 440

Pressure drops.

Answer 441

Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured.

Answer 442

Absoloute temperature expressed in celsius.

Answer 443

React like an altimeter.

Answer 444

A full yellow circle.

Answer 445

Feed every engine from any fuel tank.

Answer 446

Voltage and frequency.

Answer 447

Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

Answer 448

The maximum take-off mass.

Answer 449

The centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.

Answer 450

The climb requirement with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.

Answer 451

Weight of the airplane, without traffic load and fuel.

Answer 452

Unusable fuel and full operating fluids.

Answer 453

A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

Answer 454

When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

Answer 455

The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.

Answer 456

1.6 (1.67 x the actual landing distance)

Answer 457

The take-off safety speed.

Answer 458

Decreases the take-off speed V1.

Answer 459

The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

Answer 460

A high runway elevation and tail wind.

Answer 461

Visibility increases to 800m for the next 2hrs.

Answer 462

Dry powder.

Answer 463

At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

Answer 464

Category C — 224 km/h (121 kt) or more but less than 261 km/h (141 kt) IAS

Answer 465

Continue the fight maintaining VMC and land as soon as Practicable.

Answer 466

Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

Answer 467

Downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing.

Answer 468

Only above the critical Mach number.

Answer 469

Primary aerodynamic control only.

Answer 470

Minimum value = VAPP Maximum value: CONF 0, 1, 2, 3 = VFE next, CONF FULL = VFE next -5kt

Answer 471

Removal of snow/ice from the aircraft.

Answer 472

Applying fluid to stop ice from building up on the aircraft.

Answer 473

Type 1 = Low viscosity, limited hold-over time, used mainly for de-icing

Answer 474

Type 2, 3 and 4 = High viscosity, longer hold-over time, used for de-cing and anti-icing

Answer 475

One step = Single application of heated and diluted deicing/anti-icing fluid = provides shorter holdover time and should be used in low moisture conditions only. Holdover time starts from the beginning of the application of the fluid. Two steps = First applying the heated deicing fluid, then by applying a protective anti-icing fluid. Thet can not be applied together. Holdover time starts from the beginning of the apllication of the second fluid.

Answer 476

Because it reduces the friction between the tires and the surface of the runway. Also crates a layer of fluid between the tires and the runway surface = reduce contact area.

Answer 477

SPEED SPEED SPEED to attract PF eyes to the speed scale. VLS-7kt on FPA 3 degrees.

Answer 478

WXR/PWS in position 1 or 2 and the aircraft radio height is below 1800ft. When aircraft speed is above 100kt and up to 50ft. Up to 100kt, both warning and cautions are available within a range of 3NM. During final approach, the visual and aural warning alerts are downgraded to caution (MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY on ND) between 370ft AGL and 50ft AGL and range between 1.5NM and 0.5NM. This means it is inhibited on landing below 50ft. 5NM ahead of the aircraft.

Answer 479

320NM +-80 degrees +-15 degrees

Answer 480

Priority over TCAS, GPWS, and other FWC aural warnings. Inhibited by reactive windshear and aural messages of stall warnings.

Answer 481

Available when weather radar is ON and triggers when red or yellow weather in detection area or turbulence in the detection area. 3min ahead of the aircrfat, in a corridor of 2NM on each side and in a corridor of 4000ft above and below the current track. Below 1500ft = inhibited Above 1500ft = displayed on ND and above 2500ft = additional WEATHER AHEAD aural message is emitted.

Answer 482

The FAC in takeoff and approach phase. At takeoff = 3s after liftoff up to 1300ft RA At landing = from 1300ft RA to 50ft RA And with at least CONF 1 selected.

Answer 483

Aircraft above 900ft, TCAS in TA/RA, at least one AP and one FD available and EGPWS/WINDSHEAR/STALL warning is not triggered.

Answer 484

All engines operative, both thrust levers are below the CL detent or one thrust lever is above CL detent, aircraft above 100ft and no windshear is detected. A/THR becomes active.

Answer 485

Vmca is defined as the minimum speed, whilst in the air, that directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative (critical engine on two engine aerolanes), operating engine(s) at takeoff power and a maximum of 5 degrees of bank towards the good engine(s). We counteract the yawing moment with the rudder.

Answer 486

Minimum control speed on ground. Vmcg is defined as the minimum calibrated airspeed, during the takeoff run at which, if the critical engine suddenly fails, it is possible to maintain directional control using only aerodynamic controls. Vmcg must not be greater than V1.

Answer 487

When the surface is covered by any visible moisture or water up to and including 3mm in depth. Runway covered by a fluid contaminant with a depth of more than 3mm. Dry snow, wet snow, standing water, slush. Below 3mm there is no risk of hydroplaning.

Answer 488

Laser based inertial reference system (aircraft sensors) which provides attitude, heading, aircraft position, track, heading, acceleration, ground speed and the flight path vector.

Answer 489

Initially always we will think it is unreliable speed but thats not the case. Call out numbers immediatly "I have 150kt" etc and if all three = PFD1, ISIS and PFD2 shows same speed = we do not have unreliable speed. BE CAREFUL, all the S-speeds, F-speeds, overspeeds etc. are gone on the PFD = we need to configure aircraft without them = check the placard for flaps and gear and be quickly with configuration!

Answer 490

Doesnt matter if damage or not ALWAYS press the SPEED button after the speed is pulled and fly with SPEED not MACH. If you hear a loud bang = damage = do not increase speed. Stay with same or decrease speed.

Answer 491

100ft. 300m. At least one AP engaged in APPR mode CAT2 or CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL must be displayed on FMA AP should be disconnected no later than 80ft AGL.

Answer 492

50ft 200m At least one AP engaged in APPR mode CAT3 SINGLE/CAT 3 DUAL

Answer 493

E = Enhanced = forward looking capability for terrain is added. Based on terrain database and FMGC current position, not on radar returns.

Answer 494

Mode 1 = Excessive rate of descend Mode 2 = Excessive terrain closure rate Mode 3 = Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around Mode 4 = Terrain clearence not sufficient Mode 5 = Excessive descent rate below GS

Answer 495

2.5% 3.2% 2.1%

Answer 496

Avoid all red/magenta and yellow¤ areas by 20NM Avoid all red/magenta and yellow¤ areas by 15NM Avoid all red/magenta and yellow¤ areas by 5NM, preferebly 10NM

Answer 497

* ENGINE FAILURE WITHOUT DAMAGE: T/L IDLE, ENG MASTER OFF. * ENGINE FAILURE WITH DAMAGE: T/L IDLE, ENG MASTER OFF, FIRE P/B PUSHED, 1 AGENT DISCHARGED. * ENGINE FIRE: T/L IDLE, ENG MASTER OFF, FIRE P/B PUSHED, AGENT 1 (AND 2) DISCHARGED AS REQUIRED

Answer 498

1. GO AROUND FLAPS and set levers to TOGA. 2. PF READS THE FMA = MAN TOGA, SRS, GA TRK, A/THR BLUE. 3. PM selects flaps 1 step and announce Positive CLIMB, PF = gear up, PM = gear up, flaps 3 and xxxx ft checked. 4. Advise tower. WZZ going around. 5. Select AP2 on. 6. Above F-speed = flaps 1. 7. Above S-speed = flaps up. 8. CLB on FMA = set two step back to CLB from TOGA. (or MCT in case off engine fail). 9. Follow missed approach procedure.

Answer 499

N1 and N2 = 0. Amber crosses, HIgh EGT, Loss of oil/hydraulic fluid, loud noise/vibration/buffeting, repeated/unctrolled engine stalls. If we have values on N1 and N2.

Answer 500

1. Control the aircraft with the rudders. 2. VR = Rotate initially to pitch 12.5/SRS. If no good climb rate = set TOGA on both engines. 3. PM = Positive climb = gear up = gear up, cancel master caution and reads the first line of the title. 4. PF will get NAV on FMA = pull heading. 5. Start TRIM the rudder, when trimmed engage AP. 6. PF = 400ft AGL = I have control, I have communication. Confirm failure. 7. PF = Tower, QATARI001, maydayx3 engine failure standby. - PM = Engine failure confirmed, with damage ENG 8. PF = ECAM actions 9. PF = Tower QATARI001 mayday, intention climb straight ahead 4000ft. 10. PM = Engine secured. 11. PF = Stop ECAM. 12. Engine secured or ENG OUT ACC whichever is later = 1600ft = push to level off. 13. PF = Activate secondary- 14. Above S-speed = flaps 0. When green dot reached = pull to OPN CLB. 15. THR MCT flashes on FMA = If TOGA = one step down. If FLX = One step down to CLB and then one step up back to MCT. 16. PF = Continue ECAM 17. PM = ECAM actions completed.

Answer 501

1. No buss sytem = If affected ADR´s cannot be identified = use pitch/thrust tables 2. Non-reversible BUSS system = turn all ADRS´s off to get it. 3. Reversible BUSS system (two BKUP spd/ALT PB available on the main instrument panel 4. Digital BUSS (DBUSS) system Below FL250. No limitation.

Answer 502

Switch off 2 ADRs without ECAM doesnt matter which one. Otherwise if we don´t do this OVERSPEED protection will kick in, in normal law which pitchs up the aircraft and you can stall. When we switch 2 ADRS off, we have no AP.

Answer 503

No ECAM will come up. We need to crosscheck PFD 1, PFD 2 and ISIS. If two same = we use it. We need to turn on the switching panel and turn OFF faulty ADR on overhead without ECAM! OTHERWISE we will get VLE EXCEEDENCE warning on ECAM (spurious) in this case.

Answer 504

1. AP OFF 2. A/THR OFF 3. FDs off 4. Below Thrust reduction altitude = TOGA, Pitch 15 5. Above thrust reduction altitude and below FL100 = CLB, 10 degrees 6. Above thrust reduction altitude and above FL100 = CLB, 5 degrees 7. Flaps if CONF 0, 1, 2, 3 = maintain current config. If FULL = select flaps 3 and maintain 8. Speed brakes check retracted 9. L/G = up

Answer 505

Will be more stable. The more stable an aircraft becomes, the less maneuverable it will be. Aft = less stable. Less force is required by the tail to counteract the nose down pitching moment.

Answer 506

FDODAR, always review the fuel first. D = Diagnose = situation O = Option = what options do we have? Continuing, diverting, returning D = Decide = What is your opinion? A = Assign = NITS briefing = Nature, Intention, Time, Special, Approach briefing R = Review = Has anything changed? Fuel, weather, Have we forgotten anything? Are we ready for the approach? If everthing OK = tell ATC ready for approach and do the approach checklist.

Answer 507

Emergency stations, emergency stations Brace Brace

Answer 508

From 80kt up to 1500ft or 2 min after liftoff whichever occurs first. 1. Major failure 2. Sudden loss of thrust 3. Abnormal indications 4. Amber ECAM warnings (sidestick fault, failed engine, reversers unlocked, reverser fault and thrust lever fault). 5. Any RED ECAM WARNINGS

Answer 509

1. Thurst levers idle = max reverse. (stow at 70kt if enough runway left) 2. When aircraft stopped = parking prake on 3. PA = Attention crew at stations, attention crew at stations 4. Order ECAM actions. PM announce the spoilers, reverse green, decel 70kt. "QATARI001 Stopping. Locates the emergency crew checklist and starts ECAM.

Answer 510

Keep it in normal do not touch it if ADR3 is failed there is no point. AP and A/THR. THR LK on FMA = THR LEVERS MOVE. We go into alternate law and indications and PFD 1 and ISIS is lost. Land with flaps 3. When gravity gear down = direct law. VAPP = VREF + 10kt. When gravity gear down = fuel burn of 180% more = 2.8 more.

Answer 511

During the takeoff roll.

Answer 512

The trim air valves.

Answer 513

Dual pack failure or smoke removal.

Answer 514

Hot air manifold.

Answer 515

Only the CAB PRESS page.

Answer 516

The zone controller.

Answer 517

Only the aft cargo is heated and ventilated.

Answer 518

One of three electric motors.

Answer 519

The anti-ice-valve.

Answer 520

230 degrees.

Answer 521

The secondary gives constant temperature of 24 degrees. Pack one = 20 degrees Pack two = 10 degrees

Answer 522

Alignment has been completed. No present position has been entered = alignment fault.

Answer 523

Bearing only for VOR1 and VOR2.

Answer 524

VOR1 receiver is inoperative.

Answer 525

ARC and ROSE NAV only.

Answer 526

1. PFD 2. ND 3. SD

Answer 527

1 dot above 100ft RA.

Answer 528

It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE

Answer 529

No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys.

Answer 530

BATT HOT buses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC, ESS AC SHED

Answer 531

GEN1 supplies AC BUS1 and the downstream systems, EXT PWR supplies AC BUS 2.

Answer 532

Never. Purpose of the shed buses is to reduce load on the batteries.

Answer 533

DC BUS1, DC BUS 2 and batteries

Answer 534

Mixing unit.

Answer 535

Engine bleed, APU load compressor and HP ground connection.

Answer 536

Mode select fault.

Answer 537

Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level.

Answer 538

Open during a test sequence of 30seconds provided pneumatic supply is available.

Answer 539

Both indicates valve in transition, or valve disagree withs with selected position. Wing light could also indicate low pressure.

Answer 540

Will not work until the second engine is started.

Answer 541

Green and yellow.

Answer 542

In the fixed thrust mode, thrust is fixed and the elevator controls the speed.

Answer 543

Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking system.

Answer 544

Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computers.

Answer 545

Nose gear doors closed BSCU

Answer 546

300 degrees.

Answer 547

Gear is not locked in selected position.

Answer 548

Automatically inflate the double lane slide off the trailing edge of the wing.

Answer 549

Automatically energized after first engine start or five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft. 5 minutes after.

Answer 550

From any of the three RMPs. NOT THE ACPs

Answer 551

If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF1 on AM.

Answer 552

Pressing and releasing out the VOR reception knob and selecting the ON voice key on the ACP.

Answer 553

AOA protection active or flaps at full.

Answer 554

Navigation database and the takeoff runway entered into the MCDU by the pilot.

Answer 555

Managed guidance has been armed or engaged.

Answer 556

The APU BLEED and crossbleed valves are closed

Answer 557

Two complete cycles with associated warnings.

Answer 558

Combination of rolling and yawing oscillations that occurs when the dihedral effects of an aircraft are more powerful than the directional stability.

Answer 559

Badr Mohammed Al Meer

Answer 560

Poles = -45C Equator = -75C

Answer 561

14000 or below = 230kt. 14000 to 20000 = 240kt 20000 to 34000 = 265kt Above 34000 ft = M0.83

Answer 562

FL285-FL420.

Interview Flashcards

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