interview prep Flashcards
1
Q
What is the purpose of the Simplified Procurement Guidelines?
A
To assist public bodies in undertaking procurement classified as simplified procurement
Simplified procurement includes both micro procurement and small-scale procurement as per the Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property Regulations, 2024.
2
Q
Who should use the Simplified Procurement Guidelines?
A
Public officers involved in conducting simplified procurements, including:
* Accounting officers
* ‘Named’ procurement officers
* Technical officers
* Subject matter experts
* Requisitioning departments
* Other support staff
‘Named’ procurement officers refer to those specified in Regulation 8(1) of the Simplified Procurement Regulations, 2024.
3
Q
What is the legal context for the Simplified Procurement Guidelines?
A
The Guidelines should be read in conjunction with the Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property Act, 2015, and its associated regulations.
This includes regulations related to challenge proceedings, ineligibility proceedings, participation in procurement, and others.
4
Q
What are the key principles a public body must adhere to in simplified procurement?
A
Key principles include:
* Transparency
* Integrity
* Efficiency
* Accountability
* Value for money
* Fairness
* Equity
* Public confidence
* Local industry development
* Sustainable procurement
* Sustainable development
These principles are outlined in Section 5 of the Act.
5
Q
What are the two value thresholds for procurement under the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
A
- Micro procurement: Up to $75,000.00 inclusive of taxes, duties, and other charges.
- Small-scale procurement: Between $75,000.00 and $1 million inclusive of taxes, duties, and other charges.
These thresholds aim to streamline procurement processes for smaller contracts.
6
Q
What is the definition of Simplified Procurement?
A
Simplified Procurement refers to procurement processes streamlined for efficiency, applicable to certain financial thresholds.
This includes processes for procuring entities, suppliers, contractors, and consultants for contracts valued up to $1 million.
7
Q
True or False: The Simplified Procurement Regulations were signed into law on April 5, 2024.
A
True
8
Q
Fill in the blank: The Simplified Procurement Regulations are developed in accordance with the __________.
A
[Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property Act, 2015]
9
Q
What is prohibited in the procurement process according to the guidelines?
A
Prohibition of splitting of procurement.
This aims to prevent manipulation of procurement thresholds.
10
Q
What does Section IV of the Guidelines cover?
A
Complaints Process, including irregularities and breaches of the Act and Regulations.
It also describes the complaints process for simplified procurements.
11
Q
What is the purpose of the Procurement Depository?
A
To manage small-scale procurement effectively.
This is part of the framework established under the Simplified Procurement Regulations.
12
Q
What is the significance of the Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property (Simplified Procurement) Regulations, 2024?
A
They aim to streamline procurement processes for procuring entities, suppliers, or contractors for contracts valued up to one million dollars.
This represents a significant reform in public procurement management.
13
Q
What does the term ‘simplified procurement’ mean?
A
Both a micro procurement and a small-scale procurement
14
Q
What is the monetary threshold for procurement to be exempt from the procurement requirements under the Act?
A
One million dollars
15
Q
Define micro procurement.
A
Less than or equal to $75,000
16
Q
Define small-scale procurement.
A
More than $75,000 up to $1 million
17
Q
Which procurement requirements are NOT applicable under the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
A
1.Registration of suppliers or contractors in the procuring entity’s registry or in the procurement depository for :
- Payment to a public utility- regulation 18 (1) (a)
- Acquisition of goods or services available only via an online platform- regulation 18 (1) (b)
- Acquisition of goods, works, or services required for the conduct of business outside Trinidad and Tobago- regulation 18 (1) (c)
- Acquisition of air travel and hotel services for conferences- regulation 18 (1) (d)
- Acquisition of goods, services, or works during an emergency- regulation 18 (1) (e)
- One-off provision of goods, services, or works outside Trinidad and Tobago by suppliers/contractors who are not residents in Trinidad and Tobago - regulation 21
- Direct online purchases with no sales contact- regulation 22
2. Publication of the Annual Schedule of Planned Procurement Activities (only for micro-procurements) on the public body website or electronic format- regulation 7 (2)
3.Review by the Procurement and Disposal Advisory Committee (PDAC)-regulation 13 (a)
4.Observance of the standstill period- regulation 13 (b)
5.Public notice of the award of a procurement contract or framework agreement- regulation 13 (c)
6.Challenge proceedings set out in Part V of the Act- regulation 13 (d)
18
Q
Which procurement requirements remain applicable under the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
A
- Adherence to the promotion of the objects of the Act-regulation 3
- Inclusion of all simplified procurements in the annual procurement plan-regulation 7
- Stages of the public procurement proceedings-regulation 19
- Quarterly reporting to the OPR-regulation 29 and 38
19
Q
What is defined as ‘emergency procurement’ under the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
A
refers to a situation where a government agency needs to purchase goods or services immediately due to a sudden and unforeseen crisis or urgent need, allowing them to bypass the standard procurement process to quickly acquire what is required to address the emergency situation.
20
Q
What new provisions were introduced under the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
A
- Definition of ‘emergency procurement’-regulation 2
- Reporting by category of goods, works, or services for micro procurement-regulation 29
- Reduced tendering timeframes-regulation 11
- Establishment of a registry of suppliers or contractors-regulation 26
- Direct contracting procurement method for micro procurement-regulation 25
- Verbal quotations for micro procurement-regulation 16
21
Q
What are the stages of simplified procurement?
A
(regulation 19)
* Planning
* Solicitation
* Evaluation of submissions and award of the procurement contract
* Management and execution of the contract
22
Q
What are the objects of the Act that public bodies must consider during procurement proceedings?
A
- Transparency
- Efficiency
- Accountability
- Integrity
- Value for money
- Fairness
- Equity
- Public confidence
- Local industry development
- Sustainable procurement
- Sustainable development
23
Q
What information must be included in the public body’s registry of suppliers or contractors?
A
- Name
- National ID No.
- Address
- Contact Information
- Type of Business
- Description of goods, works, or services
24
Q
True or False: The OPR maintains its oversight function under the Simplified Procurement Regulations.
A
True
25
Fill in the blank: Simplified Procurement is depicted in _______.
Diagram 1
26
Regulation 26 requires the public body to
establish and maintain a registry of suppliers or
contractors participating in micro procurement.
27
The public body may utilise a combination of methods to establish and maintain its registry of
suppliers and contractors for its micro procurements, including the following?
a) Issue a public invitation to suppliers or contractors to register for identified lines of
business;
b) Identify suppliers or contractors registered in the Procurement Depository;
c) Utilise the supplier or contractor registers of other public bodies; and
d) Request relevant information from participating suppliers or
contractors via solicitation documents
28
What is required for public bodies when they invite suppliers or contractors not listed in their registry to participate in procurement proceedings?
Ensure that the supplier or contractor is qualified
29
Where is supplier and contractor information to be recorded?
in the public body’s registry, in a manual or electronic format, that facilitates ease of access (such as a spreadsheet or database).
30
What is the purpose of the Annual Schedule of Planned Procurement Activities?
a roadmap for an organization's procurement strategy, outlining the anticipated goods and services that need to be purchased throughout the year (not in pdf)
31
What may public bodies do regarding suppliers and contractors not listed in their registry?
Public bodies may invite suppliers and contractors not listed in their registry to participate in procurement proceedings. (regulation 27)
## Footnote
See Regulation 27 (2)
32
What is the timeframe for a supplier or contractor to register after being awarded a contract?
Twenty-one (21) days after the award of contract.
## Footnote
See Regulation 27 (3)
33
Where must suppliers or contractors wishing to participate in small-scale procurements register?
In the Procurement Depository hosted by the OPR. (regulation 30)
## Footnote
See Regulation 30
34
What minimum information must be submitted in the Procurement Depository?
The following information must be submitted:
* Name
* Address
* Contact Number
* Type of Business
* Nature of Business
* Line of Business
* Geographical Location
* Legal Capacity
* Copy of ID
* Ethical Code Declaration
## Footnote
Additional information may be determined by the OPR.
35
What should public bodies utilize for small-scale procurements?
Public bodies are to utilize suppliers and contractors registered in the Procurement Depository.
## Footnote
This is outlined in the regulations for small-scale procurements.
36
What must a public body ensure if it intends to award a contract to a supplier not registered in the Procurement Depository?
The public body must ensure that the supplier registers in the Procurement Depository prior to the award of the contract.
37
What must solicitation documents indicate regarding registration in the Procurement Depository?
The time frame allowed for the supplier or contractor to complete their registration.
38
What may a procuring entity request from a supplier or contractor under additional requirements?
(regulation 31) A procuring entity may request information relating to:
* Licenses
* Equipment
* Technical competence
* Other related matters.
## Footnote
See Regulation 31 (2)
39
What is the purpose of pre-qualification of suppliers or contractors?
To identify qualified suppliers or contractors who can be invited to make a submission for the provision of goods, services, or works. (regulation 14)
## Footnote
This is regulated under Regulation 14.
40
What must a procuring entity establish and maintain under the simplified procurement regulations?
A list of its pre-qualified suppliers and contractors.
41
What are the circumstances for utilizing pre-qualification?
Pre-qualification may be utilized when:
* The supplier or contractor has registered in the procuring entity’s registry or the Procurement Depository for the relevant line of business
* The procuring entity has issued an invitation to pre-qualify.
42
What is the focus of pre-selection of suppliers or contractors?
To pre-select suppliers or contractors based on factors such as:
* Geographical location
* Estimated contract value
* Specialised nature of the goods, works, or services
* Previous procurement history.
43
What does due diligence require from the procuring entity?
To ensure a supplier or contractor is qualified, certified, experienced, and resourced to perform the contract for both micro and small-scale procurements.-regulation 15
44
The procuring entity’s due diligence will mitigate against procurement what?
procurement, supply chain and contract management risks, and will promote the achievement of efficiency and value for money in the procurement proceedings
45
The degree of due diligence carried out by the procuring entity will vary on?
The nature, risk, and estimated value of the procurement.
46
Factors to be considered by the procuring entity in this regard will be identified during?
planning stage of the procurement proceedings, included in the solicitation document for the
tendering stage, examined, and where appropriate confirmed, during the evaluation stag
47
What documentary evidence may be required to prove legal capacity to enter into a contract?
Certificate of Incorporation and, where applicable, continuance (for limited liability companies) and Certificate of Registration (for sole traders)
48
What documentary evidence may be required to prove not insolvent, in receivership,
bankrupt or being wound up, affairs not being administered by a court or judicial officer, business activities not
suspended and not the subject of legal proceedings in any of the foregoing
Declaration (template provided in solicitation document)
49
What documentary evidence must be given for someone not been convicted within the
past ten years of corruption or fraud related offences locally or
internationally – (i) as individuals; or (ii) as directors or officers of a
company
Declaration (template provided in solicitation document
50
What is required to confirm that a supplier or contractor has fulfilled their tax obligations?
A Tax Clearance Certificate or a letter of exemption from the Board of Inland Revenue, Valid VAT Clearance Certificate or a
letter of exemption from the Board of Inland Revenue, Valid Compliance Certificate or a letter
of exemption from the National
Insurance Board
51
What must a supplier or contractor provide to demonstrate technical qualifications, and
competence, financial resources, equipment and other physical facilities, managerial capability,
reliability, experience and personnel to perform the procurement contract?
A portfolio of projects, client references, an equipment listing for the project, banker's letter and management accounts signed by accounts with the delegated responsibility of financial oversight
52
What is the purpose of the Health and Safety Policy Statement and Licenses (e.g. wireman, plumbing,
firearm user, food handler’s badge etc.) in the due diligence requirements?
To meet relevant industry standards.
53
What is a Banker’s Letter in procurement?
Template provided in solicitation documents
## Footnote
This letter serves as a financial reference from a bank regarding the supplier's creditworthiness.
54
Who must sign the Management Accounts?
Person(s) with the delegated responsibility of financial oversight
## Footnote
This ensures accountability and proper financial governance.
55
What does the Health and Safety Policy Statement refer to?
It refers to the Occupational Safety and Health Act Chap. 88:08
## Footnote
This act outlines the health and safety standards that must be adhered to in the workplace.
56
What types of licenses might be required for procurement?
* Wireman
* Plumbing
* Firearm user
* Food handler’s badge
## Footnote
These licenses are necessary to ensure that individuals are qualified to perform specific tasks safely and legally.
57
What is a one-time waiver in procurement?
A waiver granted to suppliers unable to provide satisfactory evidence of having fulfilled tax obligations
## Footnote
This waiver allows for flexibility in procurement processes while ensuring compliance is eventually met.
58
What is the first step in the one-time waiver process?
Public body invites submissions from suppliers or contractors
## Footnote
This initiates the procurement process and allows suppliers to respond.
59
What is the second step in the one-time waiver process?
Supplier or contractor fails to provide satisfactory evidence of payment of taxes and/or contributions as requested in the solicitation documents.
## Footnote
This initiates the procurement process and allows suppliers to respond.
60
In step 3 of the one-time waiver process, once the evaluation is complete and the award is approved what occurs?
the supplier or
contractor is awarded the contract or issued a purchase order.
61
In step four of the one-time waiver process, after a contract is awarded, how and when does a supplier have to provide documentary evidence of tax compliance?
Public body notifies the supplier or contractor in writing of the requirement in Regulation 10(3) that the supplier or contractor provide documentary evidence within six months from the date of the award of the contract, demonstrating compliance with all necessary tax and/or contributions as requested in the solicitation documents.
## Footnote
This timeline is crucial for ensuring that compliance is met in a timely manner.
62
In step 5 of the one-time waiver process, what must a public body do upon awarding a contract with a one-time waiver?
The public body shall promptly notify the OPR of the award and one-time waiver granted to the supplier or contractor by sending an email to support@opr.org.tt
## Footnote
This ensures that the OPR is updated and can monitor compliance with regulations.
63
What is the sixth step in the one-time waiver process?
OPR updates listing of suppliers and contractors provided with the one-time waiver on the Procurement Depository.
64
What is the sixth step in the one-time waiver process?
OPR updates listing of suppliers and contractors provided with the one-time waiver on the Procurement Depository.
65
What is the seventh step in the one-time waiver process?
The supplier or contractor meets its statutory obligations to pay all required taxes and/or contributions within six months from the date of the award and submit documentary evidence to the public body demonstrating compliance with these
obligations.
66
In step 8 of the one-time waive process, the public body must what upon receiving documentary evidence from the supplier or contractor.
inform the OPR, via email to support@opr.org.tt , upon
receiving documentary evidence from the supplier or contractor
67
What involves step 9 of the one-time waiver process?
OPR updates listing on the Procurement Depository.
68
What is the responsibility of each public body?
to ensure that it does not award
a contract to a supplier or contractor that has already been granted the one-time waiver by
another public body
69
How can each public body verify whether a supplier or contractor has been granted a one-time waiver?
by logging into the "Reports" section of the Procurement Depository and accessing the "One-time Waiver Listing of Suppliers and Contractors" report.
70
Who should a procuring entity shall not engage in future procurement proceedings with?
a supplier or contractor who has failed to submit satisfactory evidence of having fulfilled his obligations to pay all required taxes and contributions within six months from the date of the award
71
In regulation 6 (1) and (2), when should the public body engage in estimating the value of its procurements?
a) When preparing its budget estimates for submission to the Ministry of Finance
b) When preparing its Annual Procurement Plan
c) When planning a (new) procurement that may not have been included in the Annual
Procurement Plan.
72
In estimating the value of a procurement, a procuring entity shall include:
the estimated maximum total value of a procurement and b) in the case of a framework agreement, the estimated maximum total value of all anticipated procurement contracts under the framework agreement during the
duration of the agreement, taking into account all forms of remuneration to be
paid.
73
What should the estimated maximum total value of a procurement include?
* Items required
* Optional items
* Warranties
* After-sale service
* Project management
* Consumables
* Maintenance costs
## Footnote
This comprehensive estimation helps in budgeting and financial planning.
74
Information used to estimate the value of the procurement may be sourced from ?
1. Historical information in the public body’s record of procurement proceedings (e.g.
quotations, contracts or invoices); and/or 2. Market research with the aid of internet searches, supplier or contractor
catalogues, requests for information, advice from subject matter experts or similar
sources.
75
In accordance with Regulations 6(2), (3) and (4) of the Simplified Procurement Regulations, what
should be taken into consideration?
a) Estimation of Renewed Contracts or Procurement Contracts Awarded on a Regular
Basis
b) Estimating the Value of a Fixed Term Contract
c) Estimating the Value of the Procurement of Works
76
what is estimation based on?
the actual aggregate cost of similar contracts awarded during the previous twelve (12) months, and adjusted, where possible, for anticipated changes in value or quantity
77
If the fixed term contract does not specify a total price:
* for a lease or rental;
* for the purchase of a good for no more than twelve (12) months; or
* for the purchase of a service for no more than twelve (12) months,
what is the basis for calculating the estimated value?
the total contract value for the
duration of the contract.
78
The estimated contract value will include ?
the estimated value of any required goods necessary for the completion of the contract. Where optional items are specified in the solicitation document, the estimated value of the optional items shall be included in the estimation of the total value of the procurement.
79
What helps the public body to develop the most appropriate procurement and contract management strategies for promoting the objects of the Act?
The estimated value of the procurement combined with other factors such as the size,
nature and operations of the supply market and potential risks identified during the
planning process.
80
What is prohibited regarding the splitting of procurement contracts and what is the punishment?
Splitting the value to circumvent requirements of the Act and$500,000.00 and imprisonment for one (1) year.
## Footnote
This practice is an offense and can lead to severe penalties.
81
The public body shall not split the value of its procurements to benefit from the flexibilities that apply to?
a) Micro procurements (less than or up to $75,000.00 inclusive of taxes, duties and other charges), or b) Small-scale procurements (between $75,000.00 and $1Mn inclusive of taxes, duties and
other charges)
82
What are the two aspects of planning in public procurement?
* Strategic level planning
* Operational level planning
## Footnote
These aspects ensure that procurement activities are well-organized and aligned with organizational goals.
83
What is included in the Annual Procurement Plan?
Procurements below $1Mn and over $1Mn
## Footnote
This plan outlines all expected procurement activities for the year.
84
What are public bodies not required to include in their Annual Schedule of Planned Procurement Activities?
micro procurements
85
What is included in Operational level planning that is required for each round of procurement for the acquisition of goods,
works and services by the public body?
a) Defining the procurement need;
b) Completing the Market Research Report;
c) Completing the Procurement Strategy Development Form; and
d) Acquiring the required approvals for proceeding with the procurement actions.
86
What is the role of the Market Research Report in procurement?
Helps to describe the requirement (to assist in the development of the specifications, terms of
reference or statement of works) examine the supply and examine how the goods, works or services are usually provided (prepayment, retainers, online platforms only, payment methods, supply lead time, and so forth).
## Footnote
This report assists in understanding the market dynamics and supplier capabilities.
87
What is the purpose of the Procurement Strategy Development Form?
a) Analyse the information captured in the Market Research Report;
b) Identify procurement, supply chain and contract management risks and appropriate risk
mitigation strategies;
c) Develop the elements for the most suitable procurement method and procedures,
evaluation methodology and criteria and the contract management strategy; and
d) Develop its justification for the most appropriate:
* Procurement method;
* Procurement procedures; and
* Contract management strategy
88
Who has the authority to approve a simplified procurement?
The accounting officer of a public body.
89
The application of the petty cash float shall not be used to?
circumvent the provisions
of the Simplified Procurement Regulations.
90
What is a petty cash policy used for?
For minor, incidental expenditures such as lunches or kitchen supplies.
91
What must the 'named' procurement officer required to do and if they suspect a price may not be reasonable?
the ‘named’ procurement officer is required to approve the
use of direct contracting and for suspicion, verify the reasonableness of the price.
92
According to Regulation 25(3) where the ‘named’ procurement officer suspects that a price may
not be reasonable when compared with?
1) Previous prices paid for the goods, services or works (e.g. from invoices, contracts);
or
2) Current prices for the goods, services or works (identified via market research)
93
[Regulations 25(4) & (5)], If the ‘named’ procurement officer cannot justify the use of direct contracting, what happens?
he shall not approve its use and may utilise any other method of procurement.
94
About open bidding
Open Bidding: This procurement method is based on an invitation to bid that is advertised
publicly either nationally, regionally or internationally, as may be appropriate.
The conditions for use and procedures for open bidding are described in the following
documents:
* Regulations 5(2) & (3) of the Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property
(Procurement Methods and Procedures) Regulations, 2021;
* Sections 5 and 6 of the General Guidelines – Procurement Methods and Procedures
available on the OPR’s website at and
* Section 2.1 of the Desktop Reference: Procurement Methods and Procedures –
95
About limited bidding
Limited Bidding: With this type of procurement method, public bodies do not publicly
advertise the procurement. Instead, the invitation to participate in the procurement
proceeding is issued directly to a selected number of suppliers or contractors.
The conditions for use and procedures for limited bidding are described in the following
documents:
* Regulation 8(1) and 9(1) & (2) of Public Procurement and Disposal of Public
Property (Procurement Methods and Procedures) Regulations, 2021;
* Section 7.1 and 7.2 of General Guidelines – Procurement Methods and Procedures
and
* Section 2.3 of the Desktop Reference: Procurement Methods and Procedures
96
About Single Source
Single Source Selection: This procurement method allows the procuring entity to engage
one supplier or contractor for a procurement even though other suppliers or contractors
are available.
The conditions for use and procedures for single source selection are described in the
following documents:
* Regulation 12(2) of Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property
(Procurement Methods and Procedures) Regulations, 2021;
* Section 7.9 of General Guidelines – Procurement Methods and Procedures
* Section 2.3 of the Desktop Reference: Procurement Methods and
Procedures
97
About Sole Source Selection
: This method of procurement is utilised where there is only one
supplier or contractor in the market capable of providing the good, work or service.
The conditions for use and procedures for sole source selection are described in the
following documents:
* Regulation 14(2) of Public Procurement and Disposal of Public Property
(Procurement Methods and Procedures) Regulations, 2021;
* Section 7.9 of General Guidelines – Procurement Methods and Procedures
and
* Section 2.3 of the Desktop Reference: Procurement Methods and
Procedures
98
About direct contracting
This procurement method allows the procuring entity to select a supplier or contractor directly. This can be done via phone call, face-to-face, verbal
quotation, written quotation, bids or proposals. In engaging in direct contracting, a procuring entity shall obtain the approval of the ‘named’ procurement officer in accordance with the delegation of authority approved by the Accounting Officer. [Regulations 9 and 25(2)
99
What is the minimum submission time for simplified procurements?
open bidding-no fewer than 10 working days from the date of publication of the procurement notice, limited bidding- no fewer than seven working days from the date of issuance of the solicitation documents, request for quotation- no fewer than 2 working says from again the date of issuance, single source and sole source - no fewer than five working days from the date of issuance.
100
When may direct contracting be used?
i. The cost of engaging in any alternative procurement method would outweigh the
benefits gained from using that method; and
ii. The proposed price to be paid is fair and reasonable having regard to:
* The description of the goods, works or services to be acquired;
* The assessment of the value of the goods, works or services to be acquired;
* The geographical location of the place where the goods, works or services
are to be provided; and
* Such other factors as may be reasonable.
Example: an officer is out on the field and a situation arises, requiring the officer to procure a battery for the company’s motor vehicle, within the location of the incident.
101
Where warranted, bidding wise, the public body may increase?
the bid submission period to allow sufficient time
for suppliers or contractors to prepare and submit responsive bids that are aligned to the
requirements outlined in the solicitation documents
102
What does Direct Contracting allow a procuring entity to do?
Select a supplier or contractor directly.
103
What is a Request for Proposals?
A formal invitation for suppliers to propose a solution to a stated problem. . It is a process whereby the evaluators base the award decision not solely on price, but on a variety of factors, such as specific experience relevant to the project, methodology and workplan, and relevant experience and qualifications of key personnel
104
Fill in the blank: The accounting officer may delegate authority for simplified procurement in accordance with the limits of _______.
[financial authority and structure of the public body]
105
True or False: Public bodies can invite suppliers not listed in their registry during an emergency.
True.
106
What factors should be considered when determining the reasonableness of procurement submission times?
* The nature of the procurement
* Requests for extension from suppliers.
107
What are the main methods of procurement under the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
* Open Bidding
* Limited Bidding
* Single Source Selection
* Sole Source Selection
* Direct Contracting
* Request for Proposals.
108
What is the purpose of developing a contract management strategy?
To manage contracts effectively and mitigate risks.
109
Regulation 2 defines “emergency” as an exceptional and unforeseeable situation where?
a) Life, property, equipment or business continuity is immediately at risk; or
b) Standards of public health, welfare or safety need to be re-established without delay
110
In instances of an emergency, public bodies have the discretion, when conducting simplified procurements [Regulation 18(1)(e)], to?
invite a supplier or contractor not listed in their registry or
in the Procurement Depository.
111
What factors are considered in a Request for Proposals?
Factors include:
* Specific experience relevant to the project
* Methodology and workplan
* Relevant experience and qualifications of key personnel
## Footnote
Refer to Sections 7.3, 7.4, 7.6, and 7.7 of General Guidelines.
112
What is a Request for Quotations?
A means by which the procuring entity seeks to solicit prices and basic terms and conditions from providers of basic standard goods and simple services.
## Footnote
Refer to Section 7.2 of General Guidelines.
113
True or False: Verbal quotations can be accepted for small-scale procurements.
False
## Footnote
Verbal quotations are only accepted for micro procurements.
114
What must be captured in the Verbal Quotation Form and accepted by who?
A written record of the information provided by the supplier or contractor and may be accepted by the name procurement officer or delegate when engaging in micro procurements
## Footnote
This form is attached as Appendix IV.
115
What are the one-envelope and two-envelope systems in procurement?
They are systems used in the planning stage of procurement for evaluating proposals.
## Footnote
A procuring entity must determine which system to use and state it in the solicitation document.
116
List the contents typically included in solicitation documents.
Contents typically include:
* Letter of invitation
* Instructions to bidders/proponents
* Schedule of requirements
* Evaluation of bids/proposals
* Draft contract documents
* Sample contract and offer submission form
117
When is the one-envelope system applicable and technical?
Applicable for straightforward procurements with standard technologies, where the technical requirements can be clearly specified and the basis of evaluation is lowest cost.
Both technical and financial aspects are submitted in one envelope and evaluated
simultaneously.
118
When is the two-envelope system applicable and technical?
Applicable for more complex procurements where quality or technical excellence is of higher priority than cost. Technical and financial aspects are submitted in separate envelopes and evaluated sequentially
as follows:
1. Evaluate the technical proposals.
2. Evaluate the financial proposals of only the
suppliers or contractors whose technical proposals are substantially responsive.
119
The files maintained by
procurement officers should include?
the complete record relating to each simplified procurement
activity, electronically and/or manually (paper-based).
120
What information must be documented in the procurement strategy form?
Justification for the procurement method chosen.
## Footnote
This must be filed in the public body’s record of procurement proceedings.
121
What is the importance of proper record keeping in public procurement?
It is critical for maintaining a complete record relating to each simplified procurement activity.
## Footnote
Files should be maintained electronically and/or manually.
122
What documents should be included in the record of procurement proceedings?
Background information and justification for the procurement need- Market Research Report and Evaluation Report
Approval to execute each stage of the procurement proceeding- Purchase Requisition, Procurement Strategy Development Form and Internal Memo (where applicable)
Name of all suppliers or contractors invited to [participate and who participated in the procurement proceedings-
Record of the opening of submissions, Bid submission form, evaluation form
Reason for limiting the participation of
suppliers or contractors, where
participation is limited-Market Research Report, Procurement Strategy Development
Form and Evaluation Report
Justification for the procurement
method used-Market Research Report, Procurement Strategy Development
Form and Evaluation Report
123
What documents should be included in the record of procurement proceedings? pt 2
-Reason for the cancellation of the procurement proceedings (where applicable)- Evaluation Report,
-Reason for any unfulfilled contract (where applicable)- Project close-out report
Goods, works or services acquired-Purchase Order / Contract, Invoice
Process of evaluation of submissions used, including the reason for the selection of the supplier or contractor-Evaluation Report
Name of the supplier or contractor selected to provide the goods, works or services-Evaluation Report, Purchaser Order / Contract
124
What documents should be included in the record of procurement proceedings? pt 3
Evidence that the price paid was
reasonable-Market Research Report, Evaluation Report
,Previous invoices (where applicable)
Copy of all invoices and evidence of payments and Copy of the signed procurement
contract or where there is no signed procurement contract the reason for not including the copy- Section of the Procurement File
Report on the performance of the supplier or contractor who provides the goods, works or services-Supplier / Contractor Performance Appraisal Form
125
What is the purpose of debriefing unsuccessful suppliers or contractors?
To preserve and maintain good supplier relationships and encourage participation in public procurement.
126
What must a procuring entity inform suppliers or contractors after a contract award?
They must inform about:
* Decision made
* Name and address of the successful supplier or contractor
* Contract price
* Date of the award of the contract
127
A procuring entity shall submit on the Procurement Depository, or in such other manner as the OPR determines, no later than?
three (3) weeks after the end of each quarter, a report detailing
the following information relating to micro and small-scale procurements:
128
What is required in the quarterly reporting for micro and small-scale procurements?
1.Total spend for each category of goods, works or services-All contracts and purchase orders
awarded.
2.Number of procurements undertaken-All framework agreements established
3. Value of the procurements conducted-The method of procurement utilised.
4.Methods of procurement utilized-The supplier or contractor selected
5.Total number of micro procurements undertaken by each method of procurement-the contract price
6.Value attributed to each method of procurement
129
Fill in the blank: The categories of micro procurement include _______.
[Audit of Overseas Missions, Books and Periodicals, Car Park Fees, Catering, Construction of Facilities, Cultural Programmes, Delivery of Containers, Drugs and Other Related Materials, Employee Assistance Programme, Expenses of Cabinet-Appointed Bodies, Expenses of President's Establishment, Expenses of Prime Minister's Establishment, Expenses of the Office of the Leader of the Opposition, Fees, Folk and Arts Festivals, Food at Institutions, Fuel and Lubricants, Furniture and Furnishings, Government Vehicles Insurance Premium, Hosting of Conferences, Seminars and Other Functions, Housing Accommodation, Improvement and Extension Works on Assisted Primary Schools, Improvement and Extension Works on Government Primary Schools, Insurance, Janitorial Services, Lottery Tickets - Instant, Lottery Tickets - Traditional, Maintenance of Vehicles, Materials and Supplies, Medical Expenses, Office Equipment, Office Stationery and Supplies, Official Entertainment)
130
Fill in the blank: The categories of micro procurement include _______ part 2
Official Overseas Travel, Operations of Constituency Offices, Operations of Electoral District Offices for Councillors of Municipal Corporations, Other Contracted Services, Other Goods, Other Works, Other Services, Other Minor Equipment, Overseas Travel Facilities, Overseas Travel Facilities-Direct Charges, Postage, Promotions, Publicity and Printing, Quarrying Operations, Relocation of Overseas Staff, Rent/Lease- Office Accommodation and Storage, Rent/lease-Vehicles and Equipment, Repairs and Maintenance- Buildings, Equipment, Repatriation of Nationals, Road Re-Instatement WASA, Security Services, Special Programmes in Cities/Boroughs/Regional Corporations, Telephones, Tobago Heritage Festival, Tobago Indigenous and Traditional Art Academy, Training, Travelling and Subsistence, Travelling-Direct Charges, Uniforms, Vehicles and Water Trucking.
131
In regulations 45, 46 and 47, s, a complaint can be defined as a
formal written statement of an allegation that the following has occurred:
a) Bid rigging or other forms of collusion;
b) An irregularity in procurement proceedings; or
c) A breach of the Simplified Procurement Regulations.
## Footnote
A complaint can relate to bid rigging, irregularities in procurement proceedings, or breaches of the Simplified Procurement Regulations.
132
What are some examples of irregularities in procurement proceedings in solicitation stage?
Example:
* Solicitation document issued with submission deadline less than the minimum time for
making submissions.
* No extension to submission deadline where the procuring entity made a modification to
its solicitation document which the bidders/proponents have to take into account when
preparing their submission.
* Supplier or contractor consistently not invited to participate in procurement proceedings
## Footnote
These examples can occur at various stages of procurement.
133
What are some examples of irregularities in procurement proceedings in planning stage?
Weak justification for using a non-competitive procurement method
134
What are some examples of irregularities in procurement proceedings in evaluation and award stage?
Example:
* Evaluation based on criteria not included in solicitation documents.
* Error in totaling evaluation scores.
* Top-ranked bidder not awarded the contract.
* Bidder meeting the minimum technical score and submitting the lowest price not
awarded the contract where the selection method in solicitation document was least
cost.
* Bidder not qualified to perform the contract awarded.
135
What are some examples of irregularities in procurement proceedings in contract management and execution stage?
Example:
* Scope of works exceeded, or varied from, the requirements outlined in solicitation
document
136
What actions can be classified as bid rigging?
Collusive price-fixing and anti-competitive behavior which is designed to unfairly influence the outcome of a competitive tender process in
favour of one or more bidders
## Footnote
Bid rigging is designed to unfairly influence the outcome of a competitive tender process.
137
True or False: Suppliers or contractors must be registered to participate in simplified procurement when procuring from an online platform.
False
## Footnote
Suppliers or contractors are not required to be registered in the public body’s registry or the Procurement Depository.
138
Fill in the blank: A supplier or contractor may forward his complaint to the ______ if not satisfied with the decision of the Accounting Officer.
OPR
## Footnote
The complaint must be forwarded within seven working days of the decision.
139
What constitutes a breach of the Simplified Procurement Regulations?
Failure to adhere to requirements or obligations under the Regulations
## Footnote
This includes offenses like splitting of procurement or breach of confidentiality.
140
What regulation should a complaint be submitted in accordance with?
Regulation 46
## Footnote
The complaint must be submitted in writing to the Accounting Officer of the relevant public body.
141
What regulation should a splitting of procurement be?
Regulation 5
142
What regulation should a breach of confidentiality be?
Regulation 17
143
What is the penalty for splitting of procurement under Regulation 17?
Summary Conviction—$500,000 and imprisonment for one year
144
What regulation should victimisation be?
Regulation 12
145
What is the maximum time frame for submitting a complaint after becoming aware of the circumstances?
Seven working days
## Footnote
This timeframe is stipulated in Regulation 46 (4) of the Simplified Procurement Regulations.
146
What is the role of the OPR regarding complaints?
To investigate all complaints received
## Footnote
This is in accordance with its powers under the Act.
147
What types of services fall under micro procurement categories?
* Janitorial Services
* Medical Expenses
* Office Equipment
* Security Services
## Footnote
These are examples from the procurement categories outlined.
148
What does Regulation 46 (5) require the OPR to do?
Investigate all complaints received pursuant to Regulation 46 (3) and (4)
## Footnote
This is in accordance with its powers under the Act.
149
What is the penalty for splitting of procurement under Regulation 5?
Summary Conviction—$500,000 and imprisonment for one year
150
What is the penalty for victimisation under Regulation 12?
Summary Conviction—$500,000 and imprisonment for one year
151
What is the first step in the complaints process under Simplified Procurement Regulations?
Accounting Officer receives complaint from Supplier/Contractor (in writing)
152
What is the Accounting Officer submitted complain consisting of?
Him becoming aware of the circumstances which give rise
to his complaint; or
b) The day on which he ought to have become aware of the
circumstances which give rise to his complaint.
153
Regulation 46 complaint from supplier or contractor
1. He is not satisfied with the decision of the Accounting Officer; or
2. The Accounting Officer does not communicate his decision within seven (7) working days
of his receipt of the complaint.
Regulation 46 (4) stipulates that where a supplier or contractor decides to forward his complaint
to the OPR, he shall do so within seven (7) working days of
154
What information must be included in the register of complaints according to Regulation 47 (1)?
* Name of Supplier or Contractor
* Address
* Name of Contact Person
* Contact Number
* Supplier or Contractor Type
* Line of Business
* Description of goods, works or services procured
* Tender Reference No.
* Date of Notice of Decision to Award Contract
* Date of Award of Contract
* Name of Successful Bidder
* Contract Price
* Date Complaint was received
* Nature of Complaint
* Details of Complaint
* Supporting Evidence/Documents
* Debriefing
* Status and/or Outcome of Complaint
* Other relevant information
155
What does Regulation 47 (2) require from procuring entities?
Submit a quarterly report to the OPR on the status or outcome of each complaint
156
What is one of the specific duties of the Accounting Officer in relation to Simplified Procurement?
Approving the Annual Procurement Plan in accordance with Regulation 7(1)
157
What is the responsibility of the ‘Named’ Procurement Officer?
Responsible for all simplified procurement
158
True or False: The Accounting Officer is responsible for ensuring all small-scale procurements are included in the annual schedule.
True
159
What is required from a procuring entity when engaging in direct contracting?
Obtain the approval of the ‘named’ procurement officer
## Footnote
This is according to Regulation 25(2).
160
What must the public body notify the OPR about regarding unsatisfactory evidence of payment?
That a supplier/contractor was unable to provide satisfactory evidence of having fulfilled its obligations to pay required taxes and contributions.
161
What is the consequence if a public body receives evidence after the six-month period?
Still required to notify the OPR
162
What types of documents can be submitted as evidence of payment of taxes and contributions?
* Valid Tax Clearance Certificate
* Valid VAT Clearance Certificate
* Valid Compliance Certificate
* Corporation Tax document
163
What is the purpose of the Complaint Form?
To report irregularities or breaches in procurement proceedings
## Footnote
The form is used to facilitate communication between complainants and the relevant public body regarding procurement issues.
164
What sections are included in the Complaint Form?
* Complainant Information
* Representative of the Complainant
* Information About the Officer/Public Body
* Details of the Complaint
* Description of the Complaint
* Previous Communication
* Supporting Documents
* Certificate of Truth
## Footnote
Each section is designed to gather specific information relevant to the complaint.
165
What should be included in the Complainant Information section?
* Name of Complainant
* Mailing Address
* Phone
* Email
* ID Card Number/Drivers Permit Number/Passport Number
## Footnote
This section collects the personal details of the complainant for identification purposes.
166
When should the Representative of the Complainant section be filled out?
When the complainant is being assisted or represented by someone else
## Footnote
This could include attorneys, corporate officers, trade union representatives, or family members.
167
What information is required about the Officer/Public Body in the complaint?
* Name of Person
* Position/Job Title
* Name of Public Body
* Business Mailing Address
* Phone
* Email
## Footnote
This information helps identify the individual or entity the complaint is directed towards.
168
What types of issues can be reported in the Details of the Complaint section?
* Irregularity in procurement proceedings
* Breach of Simplified Procurement Regulations
## Footnote
Specific examples include deviations from requirements and offences such as splitting of procurement or breach of confidentiality.
169
What is required in the Description of the Complaint section?
A description of the nature of the complaint, relevant facts, and circumstances leading to the complaint
## Footnote
This allows for a detailed understanding of the issues at hand.
170
What should be noted in the Previous Communication section?
Whether the complainant has tried to resolve the issue directly with the public body or representative
## Footnote
Details of any previous communications should be provided, along with relevant documents.
171
What is the purpose of the Supporting Documents section?
To list any documents that support the complaint
## Footnote
Complainants should attach copies of these documents to the form.
172
What does the Certificate of Truth section signify?
The complainant certifies that the information provided is true and accurate
## Footnote
Knowingly making false statements can lead to severe penalties including fines and imprisonment.
173
Fill in the blank: Knowingly making a false report to the OPR may incur a fine of ______.
$500,000.00
## Footnote
Additionally, it may lead to imprisonment for one year.
