Intro pharmacology Flashcards

(152 cards)

1
Q

What are the five sources of drugs?

A

Plants, animals, minerals, microorganisms, chemical substances

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2
Q

Which drugs originate from plants?

A

Digoxin, Atropine, Codeine, Morphine

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3
Q

What is the function of atropine?

A

Blocks parasympathetic - heart rate goes up

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4
Q

What drugs derive from cows?

A

Collagen, Fibrogen

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5
Q

What drugs derive from pigs?

A

Heparin and insulin

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6
Q

What drug derives from pregnant mares?

A

Estrogen

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7
Q

Honeys from bees are used to treat?

A

Burns

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8
Q

Which drugs derive from minerals?

A

Magnesium, potassium, lithium

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9
Q

Which drugs derive from microorganisms?

A

Penicillin, strep, immunizations

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10
Q

Which drug is manufactured in a laboratory?

A

Lidocaine, versed, amphetamine BENZOS

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11
Q

What is the chemical drug name?

A

Long name you cant pronounce

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12
Q

What is the generic name of a drug?

A

Simplified chemical name LOWERCASED

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13
Q

What is the trade name of a drug?

A

Brand name FIRST LETTER IS CAPITAL

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14
Q

What is the official book for drug names?

A

United States Pharmacopedia

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15
Q

Which book documents look,composition, and names of drugs?

A

United States Pharmacopedia

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16
Q

Which book documents how drugs are appropriately prescribed?

A

Physicians Desk Reference

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17
Q

When was the pure food and drug act passed?

A

1906

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18
Q

What did the pure food and drug act prevent?

A

Mislabeling and adulterated drugs

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19
Q

When was the Shirley amendment was passed in which year?

A

1912

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20
Q

What did the shirley amendment prohibit?

A

False claims in advertising or labeling

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21
Q

When was the harrison narcotic act passed?

A

1914

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22
Q

What did the harrison narcotic act prohibit?

A

Opiates and cocaine

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23
Q

When was the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act passed?

A

1938

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24
Q

What did the federal, food, drug, and cosmetics act create and what did it require?

A

FDANew drugs be clinically tested and proven safe

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25
What is the role of the FDA?
Tracks drug orders, manufacturings, harmful side effects
26
When was the durham-humphrey amendment passed?
1952
27
What was the purpose of the durham-humphrey amendment?
Divided drugs into two categories: Legend drugs and over-the-counter
28
When was the Kefauver Harris Amendment passed?
1962
29
When was the controlled substance act passed?
1970
30
What was the purpose of the Controlled Substance Act?
Classified drugs into 5 schedules based on addictive potential
31
Schedule 1 drugs are?
Illegal Heroin, Marijuana, PCP, LSD
32
Schedule II drugs are?
Narcotics Morphine, Demerol, Oxycotin, Vicodin
33
Schedule III drugs are?
Narcotics are dilutedNorco
34
Schedule IV are?
BarbituratesBENZOS Anti-depressants/anxietyHypnoticsMuscle Relaxants
35
Schedule V drugs are?
Phenergan Cough medications with small amounts of codeine
36
What year was the DEA created?
1973
37
What is the role of the DEA?
Drug enforcement organization for US
38
What should a drug do?
Treats, prevents, or diagnoses a disease
39
Drug action is?
How drugs work
40
Albuterol works on?
Beta 2
41
What are therapeutic effects?
What drug will result in.
42
What are the therapeutic effects of albuterol?
Bronchodilation resulting in larger airway passage
43
What is label indication?
First studies for drug
44
What is off-label indication?
Drug use for reason other than first studies for drug
45
Absolute contraindication is?
Drug should NEVER be used if....
46
Relative contraindication is?
Drug shouldnt be used, but can be used if,.....
47
What is the absolute contraindication for nitro?
90mmHg
48
What is the relative contraindication for nitro?
100mmHg
49
Pharmacokenetics is?
How the body handles a drug over a period of time
50
What are the 4 phases of pharmacokenetics?
Absorption, Distribution, Biotransformation, Excretion
51
What are the two main variables affecting drug absorption?
Blood flow and pH
52
What are the routes for drug administration?
Topical, Enteral, Pulmonary, Parenteral
53
____ is absorption which occurs through GI tract.
Enteral
54
____ is absorption that occurs outside of GI tract.
Parenteral
55
What is the least reliable and slowest absorption route?
Enteral
56
Where are enteral administered?
Oral, rectal, nasogastric
57
Sublingual drug administration is considered what type of route?
Enteral
58
Time needed for gastric absorption depends on?
pH and gastric motility
59
Most drug absorption occurs in the?
Upper portion of small intestine
60
Rectal absorption requires what type of dose?
Double
61
What is the role of mesentery blood vessels?
Absorption of nutrients and supply of blood to intestines
62
The _____ is created from retreating mesentery blood vessels.
Portal system
63
Everything that is absorbed by the intestines is sent through the portal system to?
Liver for filtration
64
Why is rectal absorption doubled?
First pass
65
What is the most reliable way to administer a drug?
IV
66
What are the parenteral administration routes for drugs?
Subcutaneous, Intramuscular, IV, Intradermal, Intraosseous, Endotracheal
67
Subcutaneous injections should be less than?
1ml
68
An injection that occurs at a 45 degree angle is?
Subcutaneous injection
69
Intramuscular injection amount is limited to?
2-5ml
70
An IM injection in deltoid is limited to what amount?
2ml
71
An IM injection for glut max is what amount?
5ml
72
Which absorption occurs faster than SC injection?
IM
73
What is the only drug that is pushed fast?
Adenosine
74
All drugs should be pushed?
Slow
75
What type of injection takes place below epidermis?
Intradermal
76
What type of injection is primarily used for allergy testing and local anesthetics?
Intradermal
77
IOs should only be done if an IV cannot be started for ____ seconds.
90
78
Which type of drug administration results in systemic absorption via lung capillaries?
Endotracheal
79
What two types of drug administration should dose be doubled?
Endotracheal and rectal
80
What 4 drugs can be given via endotracheally?
LidocaineEpiAtropineNarcan LEAN
81
Pulmonary drug absorption is rapid due to?
Large surface area and blood rich alveolar capillaries
82
Racemic epi is used to treat which part of the airway?
Upper
83
______ is a purified form of albuterol.
Xopenex
84
What are the positive characteristics of xopenex?
Lasts longer and it is able to be given to heart patients
85
Atrovent is a _____ blocker.
Parasympathetic
86
Albuterol and atrovent are mixed for?
Major bronchodilation and parasympathetic blocking
87
Racemic Epi is only given to?
Children
88
What drug is given for cyanide poisoning?
Amyl Nitrite
89
Transcutaneous drug administration is?
Meant to be absorbed through the skin (Nitro/fentanyl patches)
90
Drug distribution depends on?
Capillary permeability to drug, cardiac output and regional blood flow
91
What are the two types of drug reservoirs?
Plasma protein binding - ALBUMIN Tissue binding
92
Tissue binding drug reservoirs are located in?
Fat tissue and bones
93
What drug turns teeth yellow when stored?
Tetracycline
94
________ drugs are what are in circulation.
Free
95
The blood-brain barrier only permits what types of drugs?
Lipid-soluble (EX general anesthetics and barbituates)
96
What 4 substances are allowed through the blood-brain barrier?
Anesthetics, Barbituates, Oxygen, Glucose
97
What 2 substances are not allowed to pass through the blood-brain barrier?
Antibiotics and bacteria
98
The ___ barrier is not permeable to many lipid-insoluble drugs.
Placental
99
What 4 drugs are able to pass through placental barrier?
Steroids, narcotics, anesthetics, some antibiotics
100
Biotransformation is?
A process by which a drugs is chemically converted to a metabolite
101
What is the purpose of biotransformation?
To detoxify a drug and render it less active
102
The _____ is the primary site of drug metabolism.
Liver
103
What is the main organ of execretion?
Kidneys
104
Clearance is?
Complete removal of a drug by the kidney
105
When is hemodialysis not effective?
For highly tissue or protein bound drugs
106
Breast milk is?
Acidic
107
What drugs pass through breast milk?
Prozac, Demoral, Cardizem, ACE inhibitors (PRILLS)
108
What is the main factor that influences actions of drugs?
Age
109
What is pharmacodynamics?
Study of what drug does to body
110
Agonists go?
With
111
Antagonists go?
Against
112
The ______ is how long drug lasts in system.
Therapeutic range
113
What is the half-life of a drug?
The time needed to metabolize or eliminate half of the total amount of drug in the body
114
A drug is considered gone from the body after _____ half-lives have passed.
5
115
Half-life is affected by?
Renal and hepatic function
116
What is adenosines half-life?
1-3 seconds
117
What is therapeutic index?
Measures relative safety of a drug
118
____ is two or more agents working together that all benefit.
Synergism
119
____ is one drug making another drug more effective.
Potentiation
120
What is an example of potentiation?
Morphine and phenergan
121
What is an example of synergism?
Chemo drugs
122
Drug potency can be affected by?
Temperature, light, moisture, shelf life
123
What is the most accurate way to determine drug dose?
Weight
124
Lytic is a?
Angonist
125
Mimetic is a?
Stimulator
126
What are the three types of anesthetics?
General, regional, local
127
Aspirin is what type of agent?
Anti-platelet
128
What type of drug agents are used to dissolve clots after formation?
Fibrinolytic Agents
129
What are some examples of NSAIDS?
Aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen
130
_____ is a pain reliever at site of pain.
Ibuprofen
131
Atropine is widely used to block _____ receptors.
Muscarinic
132
When is alpha 1 antagonism indicated?
For controlling hypertension
133
What occurs in Beta 1 stimulation?
Increase in heart rate, contractility, and conduction
134
What are the primary indications of beta 1 stimulation?
Cardiac arrest and hypotension resulting from inadequate pumping
135
What are the chief effects of beta 1 agonists?
Tachycardia, Dysrhythmias, chest pain from increasing workload
136
What is the most common use of beta 1 antagonists?
Controlling blood pressure
137
How do beta 1 antagonists work?
They decrease heart rate and contractility and decrease the rate of impulse generation at the SA node while slowing conductivity through AV node
138
What does beta 2 stimulation cause?
Glycogenesis
139
Which drugs are considered catecholamines?
Levophed, Epi, and dopamine
140
What is the function of propranolol?
Blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors
141
What is propranolol used to treat?
Tachycardia, hypertension, and angina
142
What is a nonselective antagonist?
A substance which blocks both beta 1 and 2 receptors
143
What is affected by both Muscarinic receptors or the parasympathetic system and beta 1 receptors of the sympathetic system?
Heart rate
144
What classification of drug decreases contractility and directly decreases cardiac output?
Selective Beta adrenergic antagonists
145
What classification of drug represses renin release from the kidneys inhibiting vasoconstriction activated by the renin angiotenion-aldosterone system?
Selective Beta Adrenergic Antagonsist
146
How do ACE inhibitors work?
By decreasing he amount of circulating angiotension II, peripheral vascular resistance can be decreased, which leads to a decrease in blood pressure
147
How do calcium channel blockers work?
These prevent contraction of arteries and therefore dilates vessels which in turn, decreases peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure decreases as a result of lower afterload
148
Atropine works on what part of the heart?
Atria - blocks vegus nerve
149
Dopamine works on what part of the heart?
Ventricles
150
Medications best suited for treating bronchoconstriction generally stimulate?
Beta 2 receptor sites
151
The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is?
2 ml
152
What solution if appropriate for the patient needing vasular volume replacement in the prehospital setting?
0.9% sodium chloride solution