Intro to Anesthesia Final Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

AANA Code of Ethics

A

Principles of conduct & professional integrity (decision making and behavior of nurse anesthetists)

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2
Q

Practice standards

A

Authoritative statements describing minimum rules and responsibilities for which anesthetists are held accountable

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3
Q

Practice guidelines

A

Systematically developed statements to assist providers in clinical decision making (commonly accepted in crna community)

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4
Q

Position statements

A

Express AANA’s official positions or beliefs on practice-related topics

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5
Q

Position statements define:

A

Knowledge
Skills
Abilities specific to CRNAs

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6
Q

Use of unnecessary invasive preoperative testing is most likely to put the provider in violation of the principle of:

A

Nonmaleficence (Obligation to do no harm; primum non nocere)

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7
Q

Automy

A

Pt’s ability to choose w/o controlling interference by others, and without limitations that prevent meaningful choices

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8
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Asserts a provider has an obligation not to inflict hurt or harm

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9
Q

No distinction between ___ or ___ harm

A

Unintentional or intentional

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10
Q

Beneficence

A

Principle that providers should act for benefit of others (prevent harm and actively help patients)

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11
Q

Justice

A

Principle that people under similar circumstances and conditions should be treated alike (distributive justice)

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12
Q

Informed consent for anesthesia should include a discussion of which topics

A

Risks & benefits of each type of appropriate anesthetic
Patient preferences, questions, and fears

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13
Q

6 elements of informed consent

A

Competence
Decision making capacity
Disclosure of information
Understanding of disclosed information
Voluntary consent
Documentation

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14
Q

Assent is a term used when….

A

Minor children are included in the informed consent discussion
Agreement should be sought

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15
Q

Implied consent is used in __

A

Emergencies, when immediate treatment is required and the patient is unconscious or unable to consent

Permits healthcare providers to provide lifesaving care

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16
Q

What must an anesthesia provider do to obtain informed consent for epidural placement in a paturient who recently received 50mg of Meperidine

A

Determine that the patient has sufficient capacity

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17
Q

Capacity is one of the elements of ____

A

Consent (should be ascertained as part of the informed consent process)

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18
Q

Pre-anesthetic evaluation also includes:

A

Current H&P, labor progress, and effectiveness of current analgesia

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18
Q

True or false: OB patients need to receive general and regional anesthetic consent

A

True

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18
Q

What should occur if there is a maternal-fetal conflict?

A

Anesthesia providers should communicate with the mother open and non-coercive while procuring ethics consultation, referencing hospital policy, and reviewing state law

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19
Q

Terminal cancer patient with DNR presents for port-a-cath placement. Which standard of nurse anesthesia practice has the most immediate relevance to the anesthetist’s preoperative activities?

A

Standard 4 on informed consent and related anesthesia services

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20
Q

You should do what to a pre-existing advanced directive before a procedure?

A

RECONSIDER– some events that may occur are responses to the anesthetic and not part of the terminal disease process

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21
Q

Who does the AANA recommend be present when discussing changes in advances directives during the informed consesnt process?

A

Patient, family and healthcare team

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22
Q

Are DNR orders automatically suspended during procedures in the OR

A

No, policy language that dictates automatic suspension of advanced directives during anesthesia should be rewritten in favor of patient-centered approach

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23
Withdrawal
Physical and emotional response to very low drug levels
24
Impairment
Inability to engage in activities of daily living
25
Tolerance
Markedly diminished effects of the same drug amount
26
Addiction
Need (physiological or compulsive) for a substance ** often associated with a loss of self control
27
Substance use disorder
Recurrent use of a substance that leads to clinical and functional impairment
28
First nurse to specialize anesthesia, setting foundation in 1877
Sister Mary Bernard
29
Mother of Anesthesia, open drop ether and first to publish her work
Alice Magaw (1893)
30
Private CRNA and pioneered nitrous oxide anesthesia, later establishing Lakeside Hospital in 1915
Agatha Hodgins
31
Who started AANA in 1931
Agatha Hodgins
32
Nurses first provided anesthesia to soldiers wounded during the ___
Civil War
33
Post WW2, discredited ___
Anti-nurse anesthetist sentiments aimed to discredit the profession
34
Nitrous oxide 1772 used for ___ by ___
Dental anesthesia by Sir Humphrey Davy
35
Ether was popularized by ___
William Morton Ether Dome at Mass General Hospital 1844
36
James Simpson developed
Chloroform in 1847
37
AANA established in 1931 by
Agatha Hodgins
38
First annual meeting in 1933
Beginning of organized support for CRNAs
39
Certification Initiatives 1945 instituted mandatory certification for CRNAs to ___
Enhance professional standards (first certification exam administered)
40
Accreditation Recognition (1955)
US Dept of Health recognized AANA as accrediting agency for nurse anesthesia schools
41
State Practice Act 1972-1976
AANA and ASA issued Joint Statement on Anesthesia Practice
42
Direct Reimbursement 1986
Congress passed legislation allowing CRNAs to receive direct reimbursement under Medicare Pt B, a significant recognition of role
43
Professional Recognition 2000
First observation of National Nurse Anesthesia week
44
Standard 14 Culture of Safety
Collaborative and cooperative patient care environment through interdisciplinary engagement, open engagement, a culture of safety and supportive leadership
45
Standard 13 Wellness
Physically and mentally able to perform duties of the role
46
Standard 12 Quality Improvement Process
Constant Assessment of anesthesia care for best patient outcomes
47
Standard 11 Transfer of Care
Evaluation of patient's status and determine when it's appropriate to transfer the responsibility of care to another qualified healthcare provider
48
Standard 10 Infection Control and Prevention
--
49
Standard 9 Monitoring, Alarms
Document BP, HR, resps every 5 min for all anesthetics, continuous monitoring of oxygenation, ventilation, hemodynamics Thermoregulation (MH monitoring), neuromuscular monitoring when NMBs are used
50
Standard 8 Patient Positioning
Proper body alignment to maintain perfusion, protecting pressure points, and nerve plexus
51
Standard 7 Anesthesia Plan Implementation and Management
Continuous assessment of the patient's response to the anesthetic and surgical or procedural intervention
52
Standard 6 Equipment
Prechecks, operating equipment safely
53
Standard 5 Documentation
Communicate anesthesia care data and activities through legible, timely, accurate, and complete documentation in the patient's healthcare record
54
Standard 4 Informed Consent for Anesthesia Care
Obtain and document or verify documentation that the patients or legal representative has given informed consent for planned anesthesia care or related services in accordance with law, accreditation standards, and institutional policy
55
Standard 3 Plan for Anesthesia Care
Patient specific plan of care
56
Standard 2 Pre-anesthesia patient evaluation and assessment
Anesthesia focused physical assessment, general health, home meds, relevant diagnostics, preexisting conditions
57
Standard 1 Patient Rights
Autonomy, dignity, safety
58
Medical direction involves an ____
Anesthesiologist overseeing the delivery of anesthesia care, allowing up to 4 CRNAs to work concurrently
59
Medical supervision occurs when a physician oversees ___
More than 4 CRNAs, without the need for hands-on involvement, ensuring availability for assistance
60
To legally achieve medical direction ___
Anesthesiologists must meet 7 specific billing requirements outlined in TEFRA of 1982
61
How many states do not require physician supervision for CRNAs
43
62
How many states have no supervision or direct requirements?
37
63