Intro to Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of MIC?

A
  • Minimum Inhibitory Concentration: lowest concentration of an antibiotic that inhibits visible bacterial growth
  • THINK: “the first clear tube” in series of dilutions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Hospital Antibiogram, and what is its purpose?

A
  • The susceptibility data for the most common bacteria isolated in a hospital annually
  • Helps guide the choice for empiric antibiotic therapy before bacteria has been identified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the Micro Broth Dilution method of MIC determination.

A

-Quantitative test: Micro-titer plates or cassettes with serial dilutions of several antibiotics tested at same time

**Most common method: automated, convenient pre-loaded plates

-Results reported as a MIC range (i.e. less than or equal to 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the most common pathogens of the following sites: 1. Lung 2. Abdomen 3. Meninges

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae (general) and MRSA (hospital acquired)
  2. E. coli
  3. Strep. pneumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the sterile body sites and their sterile specimens?

A
  • Bloodstream: Blood
  • Subarachnoid space: CSF
  • Pleural space: Pleural fluid
  • Peritoneum: Peritoneal fluid
  • Pericardium: Pericardial fluid
  • Synovium: synovial fluid
  • Urinary Tract: Urine (*debatable: directly from bladder)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the Disk Diffusion-Kirby Bauer method of MIC determination

A
  • Qualitative test: MIC is not determined, but susceptibility characteristics can be attained from results
  • Filter paper disks with fixed concentration of antibiotic are placed onto agar plates inoculated with infecting bacteria
  • Clear zone of inhibition is observed around the disks where concentrations of antibiotic were greater than/equal to those required to inhibit the bacterial growth
  • Zone diameters (in mm) correlate with S, I, R
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

As a rule, when do you obtain cultures from suspected sites of infection?

A

BEFORE antibiotics are initiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of infection?

A

-Pathogenic organism is damaging host tissue and eliciting signs and symptoms of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of susceptibility breakpoints?

A

To categorize specific antibiotic MIC values for a given bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of contamination?

A
  • THINK: “from the lab”
  • The organism is inadvertently introduced during specimen collection or processing (i.e. coagulase negative Staph from the skin ends up in the blood sample of a patient)
  • This does not serve as an indication of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens in antagonistic combination therapy?

A

Activity of combination is less than expected from the additive activity of individual agents: (A+B) is less than A+B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens in synergistic combination therapy?

A

Activity of combination is greater than expected from additive activity of individual antibiotics: (A+B) > A +B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the Empiric therapy form of antibiotic use?

A
  • Antibiotics given with activity against MOST LIKELY infecting bacteria
  • Chosen based on drug of choice for most likely organism and regional susceptibility patterns
  • Given until culture and susceptibility results for infecting bacteria are available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of colonization?

A
  • THINK: “there, but no infection”
  • The organism is present at the body site, but is not invading host tissue or inducing signs/symptoms of infection (i.e. P. aeruginosa present in sputum of patient in hospital who is not displaying signs of pneumonia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of bacteria do hospitalized patients become colonized with within 48 hours of admission?

A

Gram negative aerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where are the likely sites of infection for the following pathogens: 1. E. coli 2. S. aureus 3. Group A strep

A
  1. Urine (causes UTIs)
  2. Skin (skin abscess)
  3. Throat (“strep throat”)
17
Q

Why are the interpretive guidelines for S, I and R different for each antibiotic and each bacteria?

A

Because they are based on:

  • Pharmacokinetics of the drug
  • General activity of the drug
  • Site of infection
  • Data from clinical efficacy trials
18
Q

What is the definition of MBC?

A
  • Minimum Bactericidal Concentration: lowest concentration of an antibiotic that kills bacteria (decreases inoculum by 99.9%)
  • Typically MIC less than MBC
19
Q

What does narrow spectrum of antimicrobial activity signify ?

A

Antibiotic has activity against a limited group of bacteria (i.e. NAF penicillinase-resistant penicillins)

20
Q

Describe two examples of prophylactic antibiotic therapy.

A
  1. Peri-operative surgical prophylaxis
    - Decreases chances of wound infection from normal skin flora
  2. Endocarditis prophylaxis:
    - Given before dental procedure
    - Directed against oral flora
    - Decreases heart valve infection
21
Q

What does broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity mean?

A

Antibiotic has activity against a wide variety of bacteria (i.e. Carbapenem beta-lactam antibiotics)

22
Q

What are the three categories for susceptibility breakpoints?

A
  1. Susceptible: organism will most likely be eradicated with normal doses of antibiotic
  2. Intermediate: treatment may be successful using maximal doses of antibiotic
  3. Resistant: MIC exceeds usual serum concentrations of antibiotic, so less than optimal results are expected
23
Q

Describe the Macro Broth Dilution method of MIC determination.

A
  • Quantitative test: Two-fold serial dilutions of an antibiotic, incubated with a standard inoculum of the infecting bacteria in test tubes
  • THINK: Make varying dilutions of an antibiotic in test tubes, add the bacteria, and see at which concentration the bacterial growth isn’t visible = exact MIC
  • Not routinely used: labor and resource intensive
24
Q

Describe the E-Test method of MIC determination.

A
  • Combines quantitative benefits of broth dilution with ease of disk diffusion: yields a MIC
  • Plastic strip with known concentration gradient of antibiotic is placed onto agar plates inoculated with infecting bacteria
  • Clear elliptical zone of inhibition is observed around the strip
  • Bacteria only grow where concentrations are below those required to inhibit bacterial growth -MIC = where ellipse crosses the strip
25
Q

What is the purpose of combination antibiotic therapy?

A
  1. Broaden bacterial coverage (make sure you get all the organisms causing infection)
  2. Decrease emergence of resistance
  3. Synergistic possibilities
26
Q

Describe the Directed or Targeted therapy form of antibiotic use?

A
  • Antibiotics selected to treat DOCUMENTED/KNOWN infections
  • Based on results of susceptibility studies (more narrow spectrum agent)
  • Predefined duration of therapy
27
Q

What are some characteristics of normal flora?

A
  • Usually harmless bacteria
  • Occur on skin, respiratory, genitourinary, and gastrointestinal tracts
  • Suppress growth of pathogens
  • Antibiotic use can alter normal flora
  • May become pathogenic if present outside of normal site in the body