Intro to joint disease Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Define “pauci”

A

Synonym of oligo (2-3 joints involved); commonly used in pediatrics

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2
Q

What are the general time frames of joint disease?

A
  • acute= days to weeks
  • subacute= weeks to 2 months
  • chronic > 3 months
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3
Q

Contrast the axial and appendicular skeleton

A
  • axial
    • skull
    • mandible
    • spine
    • pelvis
  • appendicular
    • arms/legs
    • coxa
    • clavicle/scapula
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4
Q

What are synovial joints?

A
  • also known as diarthrodial joints
  • allow gliding movement facilitated by lubricated cartilagenous surfaces
    • hyaline cartilage on articular surfaces
    • synovial cavity
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5
Q

Describe hyaline cartilage

A
  • functions
    • elastic shock absorber
    • friction free surface (along with synovial fluid)
  • avascular; composed of…
    • type II collagen (tensile strength)
    • water/proteoglycans (elasticity and decreases friction)
    • chondrocytes (maintain cartilaginous matrix)
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6
Q

Describe the parts of the synovial cavity

A
  • synovial cells line cavity; cuboidal typically 1-4 layers thick
    • produce synovial fluid
    • remove debris (phagocytic function)
    • regulate movement of solutes, electrolytes and proteins from capillaries to synovial fluid
  • synovial fluid= viscous filtrate of plasma containing hyaluronic acid
    • ​lubricant
    • provides nutrients to articular cartilage
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7
Q

What laboratory testing is helpful in assessment of arthritis?

A
  • Markers of inflammation
    • Sed rate (inflammatory cells neutralize negative charge surrounding RBCs, increasing sedimentation)
    • CRP (small molecule synthesized in liver that binds dying cells and/or pathogens) -> bacterial infection
    • Anemia (in chronic disease)
    • Leukocytosis (high WBC count)
  • Serology
    • Rheumatoid factor (autoantibody that binds Fc region of IgG; good specificity for RA but several things that create “false positives”)
    • CCP antibody (>90% specific for RA)
    • Anti-nuclear antigen (ANA); many subtypes identify various diseases (autoimmune, inflammatory, etc)
  • Synovial (joint) fluid analysis; “string sign”
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8
Q

What does a WBC count of the synovial fluid tell you?

A
  • <200= normal
  • 200-2,000= non-inflammatory
  • 2,000-10,000= inflammatory
  • >80,000= septic
  • 200-2,000 + bloody fluid= hemorrhagic
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9
Q

What defines gout? What is its prevalence?

A
  • very inflammatory arthritis linked to metabolic disorders resulting in elevation of blood uric acid (hyperuricemia) and pro inflammatory crystals in the joint
    • HOWEVER, during acute gout flare, serum uric acid levels can be falsely low
  • 4% of US (becoming more prevalent with rise in BMI)
  • Slightly more common in men (prevalence increases in women after menopause)
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10
Q

What are some causes of hyperuricemia?

A
  • Overproduction (10%)
    • inherited enzyme defects
    • myeloproliferative disorders
    • purine rich diet
    • alcohol
  • Underexcretion (90%)
    • renal failure
    • metabolic syndrome/obesity
    • diuretics
    • alcohol
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11
Q

What is the clinical presentation of acute gout?

A
  • abrupt onset of severe pain
  • most commonly monoarticular involving lower extremity **esp big toe
  • synovitis with redness, swelling, and extreme tenderness over the joint
  • self limited and resolves in 8-10 days (although ideally want to treat symptoms)
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12
Q

What triggers an acute attack of gout?

A

**not fully understood:

  • probably release of crystals from pre-formed deposits
  • changes in temp, fluid status, and purine load (i.e. steak and beer)
  • use of thiazide diauretics
  • often occur in setting of acute illness
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13
Q

What is the chronic clinical presentation of gout?

A

**polyarticular and destructive

  • urate encrusts articular surfaces and form deposits that destroy cartilage and bone
  • tophi
    • large aggregates of urate crystals
    • surrounded by lymphocytes, giant cells, and fibroblasts
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14
Q

Describe the appearance of synovial crystals in gout

A

**negatively birefrigent

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15
Q

What are the therapeutic goals in gout treatment?

A
  • increase uric acid excretion
  • inhibit inflammatory cells
  • inhibit uric acid biosynthesis
  • provide symptomatic relief (NSAIDs or steroids)
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16
Q

Describe NSAID use in gout

A
  • need to use within 24 hours (for gout)
  • e.g. indomethacin, naproxen
  • aspirin= NO! (contraindicated in gout)
    • low dose salicylic acid decreases uric acid excretion
  • NSAIDs contraindicated in diseases of GI, platelet, renal, hypersensitivity
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17
Q

Describe corticosteroid use in gout

A
  • symptomatic relief in patients that can’t take NSAIDs
  • short term use (adverse effects with extended use)
  • orally or directly into joint
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18
Q

Describe Colchicine

A
  • MOA= antimitotic (arrests cell division in G1 by interfering with microtubules, esp in inflammatory cells)
    • inhibit neutrophil activation and migration
  • metabolized by CYP3A4
  • substrate for P-glycoprotein (contraindicated in combination with P-gp inhibitors)
  • significant adverse effects (GI) and narrow therapeutic window greatly limits its use
  • contraindicated in hepatic/renal disease and in elderly patients
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19
Q

When is colchicine used?

A
  • acute gout attacks (within hours)
  • prophylactically in patients with chronic gout

**Tends not to be first line drug because of adverse effects

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20
Q

What non-pharmacological measures can be used to treat gout?

A
  • abstain from alcohol
  • weight loss
  • discontinue medicines that impair uric acid excretion
    • aspirin
    • thiazide diuretics
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21
Q

What 4 drug therapies are used to prevent gout flare and destructive effects on joints/kidneys?

A
  1. allopurinol
  2. febuxostat
  3. probenecid
  4. pegloticase
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22
Q

Describe allopurinol

A
  • MOA= inhibits terminal steps in uric acid biosynthesis (blocks xanthine oxidase)
  • metabolized to active compound (oxypurinol) with longer plasma half life (18-30 hrs)
  • Adverse effects;
    • can cause acute gout attack (decreased synthesis mobilizes tissue stores of uric acid; give with colchicine or NSAID)
    • serious hypersensitivity reaction possible
  • USE: prevent primary hyperurecemia of chronic gout
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23
Q

Describe febuxostat

A
  • newer drug
  • non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor (not an analog of allopurinol)
  • more potent than allopurinol (and more effective in patients with impaired renal function)
  • similar adverse effects (dizziness, diarrhea/nausea, headache), but HIGHER CV side effects
24
Q

Describe pegloticase

A
  • recombinant form of urate-oxidase enzyme (uricase; normally absent in humans)
  • adverse effects
    • infusion site reactions (needs to be given IV)
    • gout flare (give with prophylaxis)
    • immune response
25
Describe probenecid
* uricosuric agent; monotherapy * **increases the rate of excretion of uric acid** by competing with the renal tubular acid transporter (OAT/URAT1) so that _less urate is reabsorbed_ * some GI side effects * ineffective in patients with renal insufficiency, contraindicated with uric acid kidney stones
26
Describe the major drug interactions of gout medications
* **allopurinol/febuxostat** _inhibit azathioprine and mercaptopurine metabolism_ -\> increased toxicity * **colchicine** is susceptible to inhibition of _CYP3A4 and P-gp transport_ * **probenecid** interferes with renal excretion of drugs that undergo active tubular secretion (esp _weak acids_; penicillin)
27
What is rheumatoid arthritis? What is its prevalence?
* inflammatory symmetric chronic polyarthritis (unsure of exact mechanism; smoking/stress risk factors?) * immunological disease (both T and B cells) * genetic predisposition (e.g. HLA-DR4, HLA-DR1) * ~1% of the world has RA (women\>men)
28
Describe the cellular pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis
1. DCs/APCs _phagocytose antigens_ and present them to T cells 2. activated T cells simulate B and T cell production 3. B cells produce plasma cells that form _rheumatoid antibodies_ 4. helper T cells activate _macrophages_ and cytotoxic T cells 5. T cells, macrophage, and cytotoxic T cells produce _cytokines_ (TNFalpha, IL1, IL6, others) and _prostaglandins_ that cause joint inflammation, synovial proliferation, and bone/cartilage destruction (by _osteoclasts)_
29
What is the clinical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?
* gradual onset of joint _pain, swelling, and inflammation_ present for \>6 weeks * elevated markers of inflammation and abnormal serology * symmetrical in nature and often involving small joints (MIP/PIP of hand, often spares DIP) * _morning stiffness_ lasting greater than 1 hour * _nodules_ can form at sites of trauma
30
What are some extra-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?
* rheumatoid vasculitis * interstitial lung disease * premature coronary artery disease * secondary sjogren's syndrome (dry eye/mouth) * felty's syndrome (big spleen, low WBC)
31
Describe the gross pathology of rheumatoid arthritis
\*\*chronic papillary synovitis; * chronic _inflammation_ of synovium (CD4+ T cells, plasma cells, macrophages, giant cells) * _synovial hyperplasia_ (results in **papillary** pattern) * extends over the surface forming a **pannus** which fills the joint space; destroying articular cartilage and bone (via osteoclasts) overtime * neutrophils and fibrin on joint surfaces in acute phase
32
Describe how rheumatoid arthritis looks on histology
* _lymphoid cells_ condense into follicles * papillary synovitis (hyperplasia) * _fibrinoid necrosis_ surrounded by inflammatory cells (epithelioid histiocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells) seen in nodules
33
What are rheumatoid nodules?
* develop most commonly on skin in areas exposed to pressure (extensor surfaces of forearm/elbow) * occur in 25% (usually in severe disease) * non-tender, firm, round/oval
34
Describe NSAID use in rheumatoid arthritis
* large doses for long duration * no effect on progression, just relieve symptom of pain * long term GI upset consequences
35
Describe biologic response modifier use in rheumatoid arthritis
* monoclonal antibodies, receptor analogues, chimeric small molecules (bind or mimic molecular targets) * notes: _cytokines_ are involved in all stages of RA * better potency and specificity * helpful that most have _long half lives_ * administered SQ/IM/IV * possible side effects (all RA drugs); * endogenous Ab formation against therapeutic Ab (e.g. _injection site reactions_) * increased risk of serious _infections_
36
Describe the MOA of etanercept
* recombinant fusion protein * inhibits ability of _soluble TNFalpha_ to bind to its receptor (inhibits its potent proinflammatory and immunoregulatory effects) \*\*for rheumatoid arthritis
37
Describe the MOA of adalimumab
* human IgG monoclonal antibody * binds to _soluble and transmembrane forms of TNFalpha_, preventing its binding to receptors \*\*for rheumatoid arthritis
38
Describe the MOA of tocilizumab
* humanized antibody * binds _soluble and membrane-bound IL6 receptors_ (inhibits IL6 mediated signaling that activates T/B cells, macrophages and osteoclasts) \*\*for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate to 1+ TNF antagonists
39
What are some adverse effects of tocilizumab?
* similar to other anti-RA drugs (injection site reaction, increased risk of infection) * _alterations in lipid profile_
40
Describe the MOA of tofacitinib
* inhibits Janus Kinase (JAK) enzymes invovled in stimulating immunce cell function \*\*oral administration \*\*for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate response/intolerance to methotrexate
41
What are some adverse effects of tofacitinib?
* similar to other anti-RA drugs (increased risk of infection) * _alterations in lipid profile_
42
Describe the MOA of rituximab
* B cell depleting monoclonal anti-CD20 antibody * inhibits complement dependent cytotoxicity and Ab-depndent cellular toxicity (CDC and ADCC) \*\*for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate response to 1+ TNF antagonists
43
Describe the MAO of abatacept
* fusion protein * inhibits the binding of CD28 and prevents the activation of T cells \*\*for rheumatoid arthritis IF patient has had inadequate response to 1+ TNF antagonists/Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
44
What are non-biologic DMARDs?
* Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) * **methotrexate** (structural folic acid analog; _inhibits folate pathway_ -\> stops DNA/RNA synthesis) * also, _accumulation of adenosine -\> antiinflammatory_ * leflunomide * hydroxychloroquine
45
What is the goal of rheumatoid arthritis treatment?
\*\*REMISSION; treat with... 1. symptomatic relief (until methotrexate effects begin; NSAIDs and/or glucocorticoids) 2. non-biologic DMARD (methotrexate) 3. DMARD biologics (e.g. TNFalpha inhibitors) 4. if no remission, _combination therapy_ used
46
Describe osetoarthritis
* progressive, degenerative joint disorder caused by gradual loss of _cartilage_ * worse with activity * _minutes_ of morning stiffness/after prolonged immobility ("gelling") * associated with "crunching" * most common cause of arthritis in adults (many risk factors; women, age, genetics, obesity, diabetes, trauma)
47
How do you diagnose osteoarthritis? How does it compare with rheumatoid arthritis on physical exam?
* diagnosis primarily based on * joint distribution * character of pain * exam findings * blood tests/xrays not helpful * synovial fluid aspiration may rule out other types of arthritis (will be non-inflammatory; \<2000 WBC/mm3)
48
What is observed on radiograph in osteoarthritis?
* osteophytes * joint space narrowing
49
What is the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis?
* imbalance of cytokine and growth factor activity results in matrix loss and degradation (unsure of mechanism) * early: superficial layers of cartilage are destroyed, leading to _fibrillation and cracking_ of cartilage matrix * _subchondral cysts_ form as synovial fluid is forced into subchodral space * absence of articular cartilage (eburnation) and _bone underneath becomes more dense/sclerotic_ * remaining cartilage has a rough "sandpaper" look
50
What are osetophytes? What are they called on the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints?
* bony outgrowths that develop at the margins of articular surfaces * DIP= Heberden nodes * PIP= Bouchard nodes
51
What are the common therapies for osteoarthritis?
* weight loss, exercise, physical therapy * intra-articular therapies (corticosteroids, hyaluronans) * topical therapies (capsaicin, salicylates, menthol) * systemic therapies * acetaminophen * duloxetine * NSAIDs
52
Describe capsaicin
* MOA= _TRPV1 receptor agonist_ (a transmembrane receptor ion channel) * induces _release of substance P_ (mediator of pain impulses from periphery to CNS) * initially causes local/transient application site pain * after repeated application, capsaicin depletes the neuron of substance P (and prevents reaccumulation) \*\*topical over the counter use
53
Describe the MOA of duloxetine
* SNRI; analgesic effect sooner than antidepressant effect and at lower dose * centrally acting oral analgesic by stimulating the inhibitory decending pain pathways (mediated by 5HT and NE)
54
What are SYSADOAs?
* symptomatic slow acting drugs for OA \*\*dietary supplements (effectiveness of these agents remains to be established) * **glucosamine sulfate** * principle substrate in the biosynthesis of proteoglycan, which is essential for maintaining _cartilage integrity_ * **chondroitin sulfate** * _maintains viscosity_ in joints, stimulates _cartilage repair_ mechanisms and inhibit enzymes that break down cartilage
55
Describe hyaluronic acid (use as a drug)
* exists in the normal synovial fluid, but given via injection for osteoarthritis of the knee; * inhibits inflammatory mediators * descreases cartilage degradation * promotes cartilage matrix synthesis * not a first line drug; doesn't slow progression, just helps symptoms (esp for patients unable to take NSAIDs)
56
Describe opioid use for osteoarthritis
* NO evidence that opioids improve function more than nonopioid analgesics * may be useful in patients with severe symptoms not treated in other ways (2nd or 3rd line option) * need to consider opioid epidemic