Investigation Book 2014 Test Flashcards by David Pianfettii

PAGE 32

WHAT IS THE JOB OF THE CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATOR?

TO BRING DIFFERENT ASPECTS OF THE CRIME SCENE TOGETHER AND CREATE A “BIG PICTURE” OF WHAT OCCURED

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page 31

LIST THE DIFFERENT COMPONENTS TO CONSIDER WHEN PREPARING TO PROCESS A CRIME SCENE.

ENTRY AND EXIT LOCATIONS OF THE PERPETRATOR;
POSSIBLE EVIDENCE OF FORCIBLE ENTRY;
THE LOCATION OF THE PRIMARY CRIMINAL ACT (E.G., THE ASSAULT, HOMICIDE, THEFT);
AND THE PRESENCE OF WEAPONS, BLOOD, SHELL CASINGS, ETC.

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PAGE 32
WHAT SHOULD BE PROPERLY DONE BEFORE ANY OBJECTS ARE COLLECTED OR REMOVED, WITH THE EXCEPTION OF UNUSUAL CIRCUMSTANCES?
A) PROPERLY CLEAN THE AREA AROUND THE CRIME SCENE
B) PROPERLY SEARCH AND PINPOINT ALL THE EVIDENCE AT THE SCENE
C) ALL EVIDENCE AT THE SCENE IS PROPERLY RECORDED BEFORE ANY OBJECTS ARE COLLECTED OR REMOVED.
D) PROPERLY REMOVE ALL THE ITEMS THAT ARE NOT CONSIDERED AS EVIDENCE FROM THE CRIME SCENE

C) ALL EVIDENCE AT THE SCENE IS PROPERLY RECORDED BEFORE ANY OBJECTS ARE COLLECTED OR REMOVED.

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PAGE 33

WHAT INITIALLY MAY BE THE MOST IMPORTANT STEP IN DOCUMENTING A CRIME SCENE?

NOTES (OFFICER’S “FIELD NOTES”)

THE ROLE OF FIELD NOTES

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PAGE 33 (WHEN TO TAKE NOTES)
WHEN DOES THE INVESTIGATIVE PROCESS BEGIN?

AS SOON AS AN OFFICER GETS A CALL TO THE SCENE OF A CRIME (ACCORDINGLY, THE NOTE-TAKING PROCESS ALSO BEGINS AT THIS TIME)

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PAGE 33 {WHAT TO WRITE DOWN}

MOST INFORMATION CAN BE LEARNED FROM AN ENCOUNTER WITH A WITNESS OR VICTIM WITH THE ANSWERS TO WHAT QUESTIONS?

WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, WHY, AND HOW

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PAGE 36 {PUTTING FIELD NOTES TO WORK}
NOTES ARE ONLY A MEANS TO AID AN INVESTIGATOR’S RECALL AT THE TIME TO PREPARE THE OFFICIAL DETAILED REPORT, HOWEVER, WHO MUST THE OFFICER BE PREPARED TO TURN HIS NOTES OVER TO IF REQUIRED TO DO SO WHEN TESTIFYING IN COURT?

DEFENSE COUNSEL

{WHICH IS WHY YOU SHOULD NOT WRITE “NIKO LAHOOD SNORTS COKE AND WILL NEVER REPLACE THE ALCOHOLIC DA” ON EVERY OTHER PAGE}

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PAGE 37 {USING FIELD NOTES IN THE COURTROOM}
AS A PROVISION OF THE “BEST EVIDENCE RULE”, WHAT CASE FROM 1933, STATED THE ORIGINAL NOTES MUST BE PROVIDED IN COURT WHENEVER POSSIBLE?

CHEADLE V. BARWELL

as a provision of the “BEST EVIDENCE RULE”

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PAGE 37 {USING FIELD NOTES IN THE COURTROOM}
IN THE EVENT THAT ORIGINAL NOTES CANNOT BE LOCATED, WHAT CASE ALLOWED DUPLICATE OR COPIED NOTES TO BE USED COURT PURSUANT TO A REASONABLE EXPLANATION TO THE COURT?

ARENSON V. JACKSON, 1916

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PAGE 472 (FINANCIAL LOSS)
WHO ARE AMONG THE PRINCIPAL FEDERAL ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES THAT SHARE JURISDICTION FOR THE INVESTIGATION OF CRIMES INVOLVING IDENTITY THEFT?
A) THE U.S. SECRET SERVICE
B) THE U.S. POSTAL INSPECTION SERVICE 
C) THE FBI
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE

D) ALL THE ABOVE
{THE U.S. SECRET SERVICE, THE U.S. POSTAL INSPECTION SERVICE, AND THE FBI ARE AMONG THE PRINCIPAL FEDERAL ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES THAT SHARE JURISDICTION FOR INVESTIGATION OF THESE CRIMES.

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(CHAPTER 9 PAGE 275 & PAGE 281)

TYPICALLY, DEATHS ARE PLACED IN ONE OF FIVE CATEGORIES. LIST THE FIVE CATEGORIES OF DEATH:

The CATEGORIES of death are NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, HOMICIDE, SUICIDE and UNDETERMINED.

NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE are what INVESTIGATORS must IDENTIFY a DEATH as.

MODES of DEATH are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, and MURDER.

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(PAGE 275 CH 9)
WHICH MODE OF DEATH IS ASSOCIATED WITH DROWNING, FALLING, AUTOMOBILE WRECKS, AND ACCIDENTAL DRUG OVERDOSE?

A) MURDER
B) ACCIDENTAL DEATH
C) NATURAL DEATH
D) SUICIDE

B) ACCIDENTAL DEATH

The CATEGORIES of death are NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, HOMICIDE, SUICIDE and UNDETERMINED.

NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE are what INVESTIGATORS must IDENTIFY a DEATH as.

MODES of DEATH are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, and MURDER.

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(PAGE 279 CH#9)
WHICH MODE OF DEATHS ARE ASSOCIATED WITH HEART ATTACK, STROKE, DISEASE, AND OLD AGE?

A) UNDETERMINED
B) SUICIDE
C) NATURAL
D) HOMICIDE

C) NATURAL

The CATEGORIES of death are NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, HOMICIDE, SUICIDE and UNDETERMINED.

NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE are what INVESTIGATORS must IDENTIFY a DEATH as.

MODES of DEATH are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, and MURDER.

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(CHAPT 9 / PAGE 275)
WHAT MODE OF DEATHS INCLUDE SELF-INFLICTED METHODS SUCH AS STABBING, SHOOTING, DRUG OVERDOSE, AND CARBON MONOXIDE POISONING?

A) MURDER
B) HOMICIDE
C) ACCIDENTAL
D) SUICIDE

D) SUICIDE

The CATEGORIES of death are NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, HOMICIDE, SUICIDE and UNDETERMINED.

NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE are what INVESTIGATORS must IDENTIFY a DEATH as.

MODES of DEATH are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, and MURDER.

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(CHAP 9 / PAGE 276)
WHICH MODE OF DEATH IS WHERE ONE PERSON INTENTIONALLY CAUSES ANOTHER PERSON TO DIE?

A) HOMICIDE
B) SUICIDE
C) MURDER
D) MANSLAUGHTER

C) MURDER

The CATEGORIES of death are NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, HOMICIDE, SUICIDE and UNDETERMINED.

NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE are what INVESTIGATORS must IDENTIFY a DEATH as.

MODES of DEATH are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, and MURDER.

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CHAP 9 / PAGE 274
WHAT IS DEFINED IN THE UNIFORM CRIME REPORTING (UCR) PROGRAM AS THE WILLFUL (NON-NEGLIGENT) KILLING OF ONE HUMAN BEING BY ANOTHER?

A) MURDER AND NON-NEGLIGENT MANSLAUGHTER
B) SUICIDE AND JUSTIFIABLE HOMICIDE
C) DEATHS CAUSED BY NEGLIGENCE AND ACCIDENTAL DEATHS
D) HOMICIDE AND INVOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER

A) MURDER AND NON-NEGLIGENT MANSLAUGHTER

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CHAPT 9 PAGE 278
A PERSON COMMITS THIS CRIME IF HE OR SHE KNOWINGLY CAUSES THE DEATH OF ANOTHER AFTER DELIBERATION ON THE MATTER

A) HOMICIDE
B) MANSLAUGHTER
C) FIRST DEGREE MURDER
D) SECOND DEGREE MURDER

C) FIRST DEGREE MURDER

ALSO KNOWN AS PREMEDITATED MURDER

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CHAPT 9 PAGE 278
A PERSON COMMITS THIS CRIME IF HE OR SHE KNOWINGLY CAUSES THE DEATH OF ANOTHER PERSON WHILE COMMITTING A CRIMINAL ACT AND NOT UNDER THE INFLUENCE OF SUDDEN PASSION.

A) INVOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER
B) VOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER
C) FIRST DEGREE MURDER
D) SECOND DEGREE MURDER

D) SECOND DEGREE MURDER

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CHAPT 9 PAGE 278
A PERSON COMMITS THIS CRIME IF HE OR SHE RECKLESSLY CAUSES ANOTHER PERSONS DEATH

A) INVOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER
B) NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE
C) FIRST DEGREE MURDER
D) SECOND DEGREE MANSLAUGHTER

A) INVOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER

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CHAPT 9 PAGE 278
A PERSON COMMITS THIS CRIME IF HE OR SHE CAUSES THE DEATH OF ANOTHER PERSON BY BEING CERTAIN OF TAKING THE VICTIM’S LIFE AND ACTING “IN THE HEAT OF PASSION”.

A) INVOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER
B) NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE
C) VOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER
D) SECOND DEGREE MANSLAUGHTER

C) VOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER

“WITHOUT PREMEDITATION OR “COOL REFLECTION” ABOUT THE INCIDENT

NOT CHOKING THE BITCH DURING SEX BECAUSE SHE LIKES IT AND CAUSING HER DEATH. —-THATS AN ACCIDENTAL DEATH—-UNLESS ITS PREMEDITATED—MEANING YOU PLANNED TO KILL HER DURING SEX. (THIS IS USUALLY DETERMINED BY HOW MUCH MONEY YOU HAVE AND “WHO YOU ARE” {E.G. “MR. KENNEDY”}

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(PAGE 274 / CHPT 9)
WHICH MURDERS INVOLVE KILLINGS AT TWO OR MORE LOCATIONS WITH ALMOST NO TIME BREAK BETWEEN MURDERS?

A) MASS MURDERS
B) KILLING “SPREES”
C) SERIAL MURDERS
D) TERRORISTIC MURDERS

B) KILLING SPREES

SPREES = TWO OR MORE LOCATIONS + NO TIME BREAK

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(PAGE 274 / CHPT 9)
WHICH MURDERS INVOLVE THE KILLING OF FOUR OR MORE VICTIMS AT ONE LOCATION, WITHIN ONE EVENT?

A) MASS MURDERS
B) KILLING “SPREES”
C) SERIAL MURDERS
D) TERRORISTIC MURDERS

A) MASS MURDERS

MASS MURDER = 4 OR MORE + 1 LOCATION

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(PAGE 274 / CHPT 9)
WHICH MURDERS INVOLVE THE KILLING OF SEVERAL VICTIMS IN THREE OR MORE SEPARATE EVENTS AND HAPPENS OVER TIME, DAYS, MONTHS, OR EVEN YEARS MAY LAPSE BETWEEN KILLINGS?

A) MASS MURDERS
B) KILLING “SPREES”
C) SERIAL MURDERS
D) TERRORISTIC MURDERS

C) SERIAL MURDERS

SERIAL = SEVERAL + 3 OR MORE SEPARATE EVENTS + OVER TIME

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(PAGE 45-46 CHAP 2)
HOW SHOULD “CLOSE UP” PHOTOS BE TAKEN?

A) AT A DISTANCE GREATER THAN 5 FEET USING THE ZOOM FEATURE, WITH AND WITHOUT A SMALL RULER OR OTHER ITEM TO PROVIDE PERSPECTIVE
B) AT A DISTANCE OF LESS THAN 5 FEET USING THE ZOOM FEATURE, WITH AND WITHOUT A SMALL RULER OR OTHER ITEM TO PROVIDE PERSPECTIVE
C) AT A DISTANCE OF LESS THAN 5 FEET USING THE ZOOM FEATURE, WITH A SMALL RULER OR OTHER ITEM TO PROVIDE PERSPECTIVE
D) AT A DISTANCE GREATER THAN 5 FEET USING THE ZOOM FEATURE, WITH A SMALL RULER OR OTHER ITEM TO PROVIDE PERSPECTIVE

B) AT A DISTANCE OF LESS THAN 5 FEET USING THE ZOOM FEATURE, WITH AND WITHOUT A SMALL RULER OR OTHER ITEM TO PROVIDE PERSPECTIVE

CLOSE-UP VIEWS

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WHAT PHOTOGRAPH STAGE IS TAKEN AT A DISTANCE NO GREATER THAN 20 FEET AWAY FROM THE SUBJECT OR ITEM BEING PHOTOGRAPHED? A) CLOSE-UP VIEWS B) GENERAL VIEWS C) MEDIUM-RANGE VIEWS D) ANGLE VIEWS

C) MEDIUM-RANGE VIEWS

WHAT PHOTOGRAPH STAGE IS A SWEEPING VIEW OF THE CRIME SCENE AREA TO DEMONSTRATE WHAT THE SCENE LOOKS LIKE IN ITS OWN ENVIRONMENT? A) CLOSE-UP VIEWS B) GENERAL VIEWS C) MEDIUM-RANGE VIEWS D) ANGLE VIEWS

B) GENERAL VIEWS

(PAGE 44 / CHAPTER 2) WHAT THE FUCK IS A "SUPER ORIGINAL"? A) THE SD CARD FROM A DIGITAL CAMERA HOLDS A "SUPER ORIGINAL" B) A NEGATIVE C) THE FIRST COPY MADE FROM THE DIGITAL CAMERA D) THE FIRST COPY MADE FROM THE NEGATIVE OF A 35MM CAMERA

B) A NEGATIVE "AT A MINIMUM, IT INDICATES OFFICIAL RECOGNITION THAT THERE IS (OR WAS) A NEGATIVE - A "SUPER ORIGINAL," WHICH, IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE "LAW OF PHYSICS", MUST BEAR SOME LOGICAL RELATIONSHIP TO ANY DUPLICATES.... (I'LL BET YOU, JACK-ASS SAID THIS IN COURT, AGAINST A DETECTIVE OR CSI, TESTIFYING ABOUT THE LOSS OF A NEGATIVE AND ITS GREAT IMPORTANCE)

(PAGE 43 CHPT 2) WHY ARE PHOTOGRAPHS AND SKETCHES NECESSARY IN CRIMINAL INVESTIGATIONS? A) TO MAKE MORE WORK FOR THE DETECTIVE OR CSI B) SKETCHES MAY DISTORT DISTANCE, COLOR, AND SO ON. C) PHOTOS MAY DISTORT DISTANCE, COLOR, AND SO ON. D) "A PICTURE IS WORTH A THOUSAND WORDS"

C) PHOTOS MAY DISTORT DISTANCE, COLOR, AND SO ON.

(PAGE 40) WHAT IS ALSO CALLED THE FACE SHEET OR INITIAL PAGE AND DEPICTS AN "AT-A-GLANCE" SUMMARY OF THE INVESTIGATION? A) THE INITIAL COMPLAINT B) THE FRONT PAGE C) THE ELEMENTS OF THE REPORT D) THE DOCUMENTED INTERVIEW

A) THE INITIAL COMPLAINT

PAGE 36 THESE ARE USED WHEN PATROL OFFICERS HAPPEN ON PEOPLE OR CIRCUMSTANCES THAT APPEAR SUSPICIOUS BUT THERE IS NOT SUFFICIENT CAUSE FOR ARREST. A) YELLOW SHEET (Y1 SHEET) B) SUSPICIOUS INTERVIEW CARD (SI CARD) C) FIELD INTERVIEW CARD (FI CARDS) D) FIELD NOTES (FN NOTES)

C) FIELD INTERVIEW CARD (FI CARDS)

ch 9 / pg 307 A _________ REFERS TO A CRIME OR AN ACCIDENT THAT HAS NOT YET BEEN SOLVED, AND IS NOT THE SUBJECT OF A RECENT CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION BUT FOR WHICH NEW INFORMATION COULD POSSIBLY MATERIALIZE FROM NEW WITNESS TESTIMONY, REEXAMINED DOCUMENTS, OR NEW ACTIVITIES OF THE SUSPECT. A) RECONSTRUCTION OF AN OLD CASE B) COLD FILE C) COLD CASE D) HOT PURSUIT

C) COLD CASE

CH 9 / PG 306 IT IS ESTIMATED THE ____ TO _____ PERCENT OF SUICIDES ARE ACCOMPANIED BY A NOTE. A) 2 TO 10 % B) 12 TO 20 % C) 42 TO 50 % D) 62 TO 80 %

B) 12 TO 20 %

CHAP 9 PAGE 305 ________ CAN BE DEFINED AS THE DELIBERATE TAKING OF ONE'S OWN LIFE. A) SUICIDE B) HOMICIDE C) SELF-INFLICTED DEATH D) AUTOEROTIC DEATH

A) SUICIDE

PAGE 305/ CHAP 9 ___________ ARE USED IN MORE SUICIDES THAN HOMICIDES. A) CUTTING OR STABBING WEAPONS B) BLUNT-FORCE WEAPONS C) FIREARMS D) DEATH BY ASPHYXIA (STRANGULATION)

C) FIREARMS

CHAPT 9 / PAGE 274 INVESTIGATORS MUST SEARCH FOR CLUES THAT *IDENTIFY* A DEATH AS _________, _________, OR __________. A) NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE B) ACCIDENTAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE C) NATURAL, ACCIDENTAL, OR HOMICIDE D) HOMICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, OR UNDETERMINED

A) NATURAL, SUICIDE, OR HOMICIDE MODES of DEATH are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, and MURDER. The CATEGORIES of death are NATURAL, SUICIDE, ACCIDENTAL, HOMICIDE, AND UNDETERMINED.

PAGE 304 - 305 CHAPT 9 ___________ REPRESENTS ONE OF THE MOST BIZARRE AND COMPLEX CRIME SCENES OF ALL AND IS A ___________. A) AUTOEROTIC DEATH - SUICIDE B) AUTOEROTIC DEATH - ACCIDENTAL DEATH C) SUICIDE - HOMICIDE D) ACCIDENTAL DEATH - MANSLAUGHTER

B) AUTOEROTIC DEATH - ACCIDENTAL DEATH

PAGE 302 / CH 9 __________ IS THE MURDER OF SEPARATE VICTIMS WITH TIME BREAKS AS SHORT AS TWO DAYS TO AS MUCH AS WEEKS OR EVEN MONTHS BETWEEN VICTIMS. A) SERIAL MURDER B) MASS MURDER C) SENSATIONAL MURDER D) SPREE MURDER

A) SERIAL MURDER

PAGE 302 / CH 9 __________ CONSIST OF FOUR OR MORE MURDERS IN A SINGLE INCIDENT WITHIN A SHORT SPAN OF TIME. A) SERIAL MURDER B) MASS MURDER C) SENSATIONAL MURDER D) SPREE MURDER

B) MASS MURDER

PAGE 302 / CH 9 __________ IS MURDER THAT AROUSES PUBLIC INTEREST, OFTEN ASSOCIATED WITH INSTANCES OF TORTURE AND VIOLENCE, AND OFTEN INVOLVE SOME TYPE OF PSYCHOTIC MOTIVATION. A) SERIAL MURDER B) MASS MURDER C) SENSATIONAL MURDER D) SPREE MURDER

C) SENSATIONAL MURDER

PAGE 302 / CH 9 __________ IS KILLING IN A RAMPAGE FASHION. A) SERIAL MURDER B) MASS MURDER C) SENSATIONAL MURDER D) SPREE MURDER

D) SPREE MURDER DEFINED AS THAT WHICH IS COMMITTED WHEN SOMEONE EMBARKS ON A MURDEROUS ASSAULT ON HIS OR HER VICTIMS (TWO OR MORE) IN A SHORT TIME IN MULTIPLE LOCATIONS. "KILLINGS AT TWO OR MORE LOCATIONS WITH ALMOST NO TIME BREAK BETWEEN MURDERS."

``` PAGE 302 CHAP 9 ACCORDING TO THE FBI, THE LACK OF A ________________ MARKS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A SPREE MURDER AND A SERIAL MURDER A) COOLING OFF PERIOD B) ACCOMPLICE C) SECOND VICTIM D) SECOND LOCATION ```

A) COOLING OFF PERIOD SPREE MURDER = 2 OR MORE MURDERS + AN OFFENDER OR OFFENDERS - WITHOUT A COOLING OFF PERIOD *FBI*

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION OCCURS DURING THE FIRST FEW DAYS AFTER DEATH? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

D) THE FRESH STAGE

CH 10 / PG 327 IN GENERAL WHEN DO MOST STREET ROBBERIES OCCUR? A) ON WEEK-DAYS B) ON HOLIDAYS C) ON WEEKENDS D) ON CHANUKAH

C) ON WEEKENDS

PAGE 318 WHAT IS DEFINED AS THE THEFT OR ATTEMPTED THEFT, IN A DIRECT CONFRONTATION WITH THE VICTIM, BY FORCE OR THE THREAT OF FORCE OR VIOLENCE? A) AGGRAVATED THEFT B) THEFT OF AN INDIVIDUAL C) ROBBERY D) BURGLARY

C) ROBBERY

PAGE 318 WHAT CRIME IS REFLECTED IN THE VERNACULAR EXPRESSION FOR THE CRIME, INCLUDING SUCH TERMS AS "HOLDUPS, MUGGINGS, AND *STICKUPS*"? ``` A) PURSE-SNATCHING B) THEFT OF AN INDIVIDUAL C) SHOPLIFTING D) ROBBERY E) BURGLARY ```

D) ROBBERY

PAGE 318 WHAT CRIME IS DEFINED BY THE UCR PROGRAM AS THE TAKING OR ATTEMPTING TO TAKE ANYTHING OF VALUE FROM THE CARE, CUSTODY, OR CONTROL OF A PERSON OR PERSONS BY FORCE OR THREAT OF FORCE OR VIOLENCE OR PUTTING THE VICTIM IN FEAR? A) THEFT OF PROSTITUTION SERVICES B) ROBBERY C) BURGLARY D) THEFT

B) ROBBERY

CHAPT 10 / PAGE 320 When do commercial robberies typically occur A) During a gay pride rally B) At the beginning of football season C) On a Wednesday D) At the end of the workweek during the evening and very early morning hours.

D) At the end of the workweek during the evening and very early morning hours.

PAGE 320 WHAT ARE THE FIVE ROBBERY PATTERNS EXPLAINED BY MCCLINTOCK AND GIBSON IN LONDON? A) ROBBERY OF PERSONS, ROBBERY IN OPEN AREAS, ROBBERY ON PRIVATE PREMISES, ROBBERY AFTER PRELIMINARY OCCURRENCE, ROBBERY AFTER PRELIMINARY MEETING IN THE BAR. B) ROBBERY OF PERSONS, ROBBERY IN OPEN AREAS, ROBBERY ON PRIVATE PREMISES, ROBBERY AFTER PRELIMINARY OCCURRENCE, ROBBERY AFTER PREVIOUS ASSOCIATION OF SOME DURATION BETWEEN VICTIM AND OFFENDER. C) ROBBERY OF PERSONS EMPLOYED IN POSITIONS PLACING THEM IN CHARGE OF MONEY OR GOODS, ROBBERY IN OPEN AREAS, ROBBERY ON PRIVATE PREMISES, ROBBERY AFTER PRELIMINARY ASSOCIATION OF SHORT DURATION, ROBBERY AFTER PREVIOUS ASSOCIATION OF SOME DURATION BETWEEN VICTIM AND OFFENDER. D) ROBBERY OF PERSONS EMPLOYED IN PROSTITUTION OR DRUG SALES, ROBBERY IN OPEN AREAS, ROBBERY ON PRIVATE PREMISES, ROBBERY AFTER PRELIMINARY ASSOCIATION OF SHORT DURATION, ROBBERY AFTER PREVIOUS ASSOCIATION OF SOME DURATION BETWEEN VICTIM AND OFFENDER.

C) ROBBERY OF PERSONS EMPLOYED IN POSITIONS PLACING THEM IN CHARGE OF MONEY OR GOODS, ROBBERY IN OPEN AREAS, ROBBERY ON PRIVATE PREMISES, ROBBERY AFTER PRELIMINARY ASSOCIATION OF SHORT DURATION, ROBBERY AFTER PREVIOUS ASSOCIATION OF SOME DURATION BETWEEN VICTIM AND OFFENDER.

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION CONSISTS OF THE BODY ENTERING "ALGOR MORTIS"? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

D) THE FRESH STAGE

PAGE 282 CH 9 _____________ MEANS THE COOLING OF THE BODY'S TEMPERATURE TO THAT OF ITS SURROUNDINGS. ``` A) NECROPHILIA MORTIS B) PUTREFACTION MORTIS C) COOLING AUTOLYSIS D) ALGOR MORTIS F) BODY CORE TEMPERATURE ENVIRONMENTAL BALANCE ```

D) ALGOR MORTIS

PAGE 282 CH 9 _______ MEANS THE DESTRUCTION OF CELLS AND ORGANS DUE TO AN ASEPTIC CHEMICAL PROCESS. ``` A) ALGOR NECROPHILIA MORTIS B) ALGOR MORTIS C) AUTOLYSIS D) PHOTOSYNTHESIS E) INSECT INFESTATION F) DIPTERA ```

C) AUTOLYSIS

PAGE 282 CH 9 ________ MEANS THE ATTRACTION OF A VARIETY OF INSECTS THAT BEGIN TO LAY THEIR EGGS ON THE BODY. ``` A) CALLIPHORIDAE NECROPHILIA B) INSECT INFESTATION C) BUTYRIC D) DIPTERA E) ALGOR MORTIS F) AUTOLYSIS ```

D) DIPTERA *ESPECIALLY MEMBERS OF THE CALLIPHORIDAE FAMILY OF INSECTS

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION CONTAINS THE START OF DIPTERA, THE PROCESS OF AUTOLYSIS, AND THE BODY ENTERS ALGOR MORTIS? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

D) THE FRESH STAGE | STAGE 1

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION INVOLVES ODOR, COLOR CHANGES, LOWER PART OF THE ABDOMEN TURNS GREEN, AND BLOATING OF THE BODY, THE FORMATION OF GASES ENTER THE ABDOMEN, THE NECK AND FACE - CAUSING SWELLING OF THE MOUTH, LIPS, AND TOUNGUE? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION DOES HEMOLYZE OCCURE, THE FORMATION OF RED STREAKS ALONG THE VEINS BY BACTERIAL ENTERING THE VENOUS SYSTEM? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION DOES MARBELIZATION OCCUR AND WHAT DOES MARBELIZATION MEAN? A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE ; THE FORMATION OF GASES WHICH FORCES LIQUIDS AND FECES OUT OF THE BODY B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE ; THE FORMATION OF RED STREAKS ALONG THE VEINS C) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE ; RED STREAKS ALONG THE VEINS CHANGES COLOR TO GREEN D) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE ; THE HARDENING OF THE VEINS E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE ; BACTERIA CAUSING MUMMIFICATION, THE SKIN TO HARDEN AND BECOME FRAGILE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ; THE MUMMIFICATION ENDS AND SKELETONIZATION BEGINS

C) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE ; RED STREAKS ALONG THE VEINS CHANGES COLOR TO GREEN

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION IS ALSO KNOWN AS THE "BLOATING STAGE"? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE | STAGE 2

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION OCCURS WHEN THE BODY CAVITY RUPTURES, THE ABDOMINAL GASES ESCAPE, AND THE BODY DARKENS FROM ITS GREENISH COLOR. THIS STAGE ENDS ANYWHERE FROM *10 TO *20 DAYS AFTER DEATH DEPENDING ON THE REGION AND TEMPERATURE. ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE | STAGE 3

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION ENDS AS THE BONES BECOME APPARENT? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE

PAGE 283 WHEN HOUSEFLIES DEPOSIT EGGS ON THE REMAINS OF A CORPSE, USUALLY IN THE AREA OF THE EYES, MOUTH, NOSTRILS, AND WOUNDS, WHAT IS THE TYPICAL TIME SPAN FOR THE HATCHING OF THE MAGGOT THAT FEEDS ON THE BODY? ``` A) 6 HOURS B) 12 HOURS C) 24 HOURS D) 48 HOURS E) 72 HOURS ```

C) 24 HOURS

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION IS AFTER HE EARLY PUTREFACTION AND BLACK PUTREFACTION PHASES HAVE TAKEN PLACE, AND THE BODY BEGINS MUMMIFICATION, IN WHICH THE BODY BEGINS TO DRY OUT? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE | STAGE 4

PAGE 283 WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED PROCEDURE FOR ALL INSECTS THAT ARE COLLECTED FOR THE PURPOSE OF EXAMINATION BY A ENTOMOLOGIST? A) PLACED INTO A GLASS JAR B) PHOTOGRAPH THE INSECT C) CAPTURE THE INSECTS ON FLY, STICKY PAPER D) PLACE INTO ALCOHOL FOR PRESERVATION E) PLACE INTO FORMALDEHYDE FOR PRESERVATION

D) PLACE INTO ALCOHOL FOR PRESERVATION

PAGE 284 __________ (GRAVE WAX) FORMATION IS THE LOSS OF BODY ODOR AND THE FORMATION OF A CHEESY APPEARANCE ON THE CADAVER. ``` A) PENICILLIN B) ADIPOCERE C) PEDICURE E) AUTOLYSIS F) ALGOR MORTIS G) DIPTERA H) HEMOLYZE I) MARBELIZATION ```

B) ADIPOCERE

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION OCCURS WHEN THE LAST OF THE SOFT TISSUE HAS BEEN REMOVED FROM THE BODY AND SKELETONIZATION OCCURS? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE | STAGE 5 - THE FINAL STAGE

PAGE 282 CH 9 WHAT STAGE OF DECOMPOSITION IS THE LONGEST OF THE DECOMPOSITION PROCESS? ``` A) THE NECROPHILIA'S STAGE B) THE PUTREFACTION STAGE C) THE BUTYRIC FERMENTATION STAGE D) THE FRESH STAGE E) THE BLACK PUTREFACTION STAGE F) THE DRY DECAY STAGE ```

THE DRY DECAY STAGE THE STAGE ENCOMPASSES THE DETERIORATION OF THE SKELETAL REMAINS

PAGE 284 CHANGES TO SKELETAL REMAINS IS KNOWN AS ________. ``` A) BONE DIAGENESIS B) BONE ADIPOCERE C) BONE PEDICURE D) BONE MORTIS E) SKELETAL AUTOLYSIS F) ALGOR MORTIS G) SKELETAL DIPTERA H) BONE HEMOLYZE ```

A) BONE DIAGENESIS

PAGE 284 _________ STUDIES THE CLUES TO THE CAUSE OF DEATH FOUND IN THE CORPSE AS A MEDICAL PHENOMENON. A) FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY B) FORENSIC PATHOLOGY C) FORENSIC ENTOMOLOGY D) FORENSIC NECROPHOLOGY

B) FORENSIC PATHOLOGY

PAGE 284 _________ is the branch of physical anthropology that studies skeletons and human remains, usually to seek clues as to the identity, race, and sex of their former owner. A) FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY B) FORENSIC PATHOLOGY C) FORENSIC ENTOMOLOGY D) FORENSIC NECROPHOLOGY

A) FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY

PAGE 284 _________ STUDIES THE INSECTS AND OTHER VERMIN FOUND IN CORPSES; THE SEQUENCE IN WHICH THEY APPEAR, THE KINDS OF INSECTS, AND WHERE THEY ARE FOUND IN THEIR LIFE CYCLE ARE CLUES THAT CAN SHED LIGHT ON THE TIME OF DEATH, THE LENGTH OF THE CORPSE'S EXPOSURE, AND WHETHER THE CORPSE WAS MOVED. A) FORENSIC ANTHROPOLOGY B) FORENSIC PATHOLOGY C) FORENSIC ENTOMOLOGY D) FORENSIC NECROPHOLOGY

C) FORENSIC ENTOMOLOGY

PAGE 284 THE UNIVERSITY OF TENNESSEE, IN KNOXVILLE, HAS A NUMBER OF BODIES LAID OUT AT THE ANTHROPOLOGICAL RESEARCH FACILITY, WHICH IS BETTER KNOWN AS WHAT? A) THE "BODY FARM" B) THE "NECROPHILIA'S PARADISE" C) THE "CORPSE FARM" D) THE "DEAD ZONE"

A) THE "BODY FARM"

PAGE 284 THE RATE AND MANNER OF DECOMPOSITION IN AN ANIMAL BODY ARE STRONGLY AFFECTED BY A NUMBER OF FACTORS. PICK THE LIST OF DECOMPOSITION FACTORS IN ROUGHLY DESCENDING DEGREES OF IMPORTANCE. A) FOODS AND OBJECTS INSIDE THE SPECIMEN'S DIGESTIVE TRACT (BACON OPPOSED TO LETTUCE), BODY SIZE AND WEIGHT, CLOTHING, THE AVAILABILITY OF OXYGEN B) ACCESS BY SCAVENGERS, RAINFALL, THE SURFACE ON WHICH THE BODY RESTS, RAINFALL, CAUSE OF DEATH C) TEMPERATURE, THE AVAILABILITY OF OXYGEN, PRIOR EMBALMING, CAUSE OF DEATH D) BURIAL AND DEPTH OF BURIAL, TRAUMA, INCLUDING WOUNDS AND CRUSHING BLOWS, HUMIDITY OR WETNESS, TEMPERATURE

C) TEMPERATURE, THE AVAILABILITY OF OXYGEN, PRIOR EMBALMING, CAUSE OF DEATH Temperature, the availability of oxygen, prior embalming, cause of death, burial and depth of burial, access by scavengers, trauma, including wounds and crushing blows, humidity or wetness, rainfall, body size and weight, clothing, the surface on which the body rest, & Foods and objects inside the specimen's digestive tract (Bacon opposed to lettuce)

page 285 Freshly skeletonized bone is often called ________ and has a characteristic greasy feel. ``` A) "CHEESE" BONE B) "GREASE" BONE C) "FUNNY" BONE D) "GREEN" BONE E) A "BONER" ```

D) "GREEN" BONE

PAGE 285 After the victim dies, circulation of the blood to the arteries and veins ceases. As the body settles, color in the lips and nails disappears as a blood settles into lower capillaries of the body. The blood then changes from red to dark purpleish color as it loses its oxygen. What is this the beginning of? ``` A) LIVIDITY B) DIAGENESIS C) ADIPOCERE D) AUTOLYSIS E) ALGOR MORTIS F) DIPTERA G) HEMOLYZE ```

A) LIVIDITY

PAGE 286 What is the process of stiffening, or contraction of body muscles after vital functions cease, is generally considered a poor indicator of time of death? ``` A) DIAGENESIS B) ADIPOCERE C) POSTMORTEM LIVIDITY D) RIGOR MORTIS E) AUTOLYSIS F) ALGOR MORTIS G) DIPTERA H) HEMOLYZE ```

D) RIGOR MORTIS 2-4 hours after death, starts with entire body, first noticed jaw and neck. Moves downward 8-12 hours complete, upper torso, face, jaw, neck and extremities are as "stiff as a board"

PAGE 286 What is it called when the body's vital functions cease, blood settles to the bottom side of the body because of gravity. The purpleish lividity stain forms on the skin of the body closest to the surface on which it is lying. ``` A) DIAGENESIS B) ADIPOCERE C) POSTMORTEM LIVIDITY D) RIGOR MORTIS E) AUTOLYSIS F) ALGOR MORTIS G) DIPTERA H) HEMOLYZE ```

C) POSTMORTEM LIVIDITY may appear anywhere between one-half hour to four hours after death. (generally speaking, after the lividity has set in for 12 hours, the body will not diminish in color and will remain unchanged)

PAGE 287 BASED ON WHAT EXPERIENCE HAS SHOWN; HOW FAST DO "FLOATERS", DEAD BODIES FOUND IN WATER, DECOMPOSE COMPARED TO BODIES FOUND IN OPEN AIR? A) BODIES FOUND IN AIR WILL DECOMPOSE TWICE AS FAST AS THOSE FOUND SUBMERGED IN WATER. B) BODIES FOUND IN AIR WILL DECOMPOSE THREE TIMES AS FAST AS THOSE FOUND SUBMERGED IN WATER. C) BODIES FOUND SUBMERGED IN WATER WILL DECOMPOSE TWICE AS FAST AS THOSE FOUND IN OPEN AIR. D) BODIES FOUND SUBMERGED IN WATER WILL DECOMPOSE FIVE TIMES AS FAST AS THOSE FOUND IN OPEN AIR.

A) BODIES FOUND IN AIR WILL DECOMPOSE TWICE AS FAST AS THOSE FOUND SUBMERGED IN WATER.

PAGE 287 WHAT CAN CAUSE A FIREARM WOUND'S PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS TO VARY? A) THE LENGTH OF THE BARREL B) THE TYPE OF SHOOTER C) WHETHER THE BULLET IS LETHAL OR NOT D) THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE SHOOTER AND VICTIM

D) THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE SHOOTER AND VICTIM {DEPENDING ON THE TYPE OF CALIBER WEAPON USED, THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE SHOOTER AND VICTIM, & WHETHER THE LETHAL BULLET HAD RICOCHETED OFF ANOTHER OBJECT}

PAGE 287 WHAT IS THE TYPE OF GUNSHOT WOUND HAS A BULLET ENTERING AN OBJECT AND REMAINING INSIDE? A) PERFORATING WOUND B) PENETRATING WOUND C) LETHAL WOUND D) RICOCHETING WOUND

B) PENETRATING WOUND

PAGE 287 WHAT IS THE TYPE OF GUNSHOT WOUND HAS A BULLET PASSES COMPLETELY THROUGH THE OBJECT? A) PERFORATING WOUND B) PENETRATING WOUND C) LETHAL WOUND D) RICOCHETING WOUND

A) PERFORATING WOUND

PAGE 287 WHAT IS THE TYPE OF GUNSHOT WOUND HAS A BULLET ENTERING SOME PART OF THE BODY, SUCH AS THE HEAD, BUT PASSES COMPLETELY THROUGH THE BRAIN, AND REMAINS INSIDE THE HEAD, SKULL? ``` A) PERFORATING WOUND B) PENETRATING WOUND C) LETHAL WOUND D) RICOCHETING WOUND E) PERFORATING AND PENETRATING WOUND ```

E) PERFORATING AND PENETRATING WOUND (BOTH EXIST) WHAT ABOUT A BULLET THAT HITS A INTERIOR BONE, SPLITS INTO SEPARATE PARTS AND PART OF THE BULLET EXITS? {THERE WAS NOTHING MENTIONED TO DESCRIBE THAT WOUND}

PAGE 287 WHAT ARE SOME NOTABLY DIFFERENT CHARACTERISTICS OF AN ENTRANCE WOUND COMPARED TO AN EXIT WOUND A) THE EXIT WOUND IS LARGER AND MORE IRREGULAR B) THE ENTRANCE WOUND HAS A REDDISH-BROWN AREA OF ROUGHENED SKIN, KNOWN AS THE ABRASION RING C) SMALL AMOUNTS OF BLOOD ESCAPE THROUGH THE ENTRANCE WOUND D) AN EXIT WOUND HAS FAR MORE BLOOD THAN THE EXIT WOUND E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

E) ALL OF THE ABOVE

PAGE 287 WHAT MAKES THE ENTRANCE WOUND APPEAR SMALLER THAN THE BULLET THAT PASSED THROUGH THE SKIN? A) THE SKIN RETRACTS DUE TO THE GAS FROM THE MUZZLE OF THE WEAPON B) THE SKIN IS BURNED FROM VELOCITY OF THE BULLET C) THE SKIN RETRACTS DUE TO ITS ELASTICITY D) THE WOUND ALWAYS APPEARS LARGER THAN THE BULLET THAT PASSED THROUGH IT.

C) THE SKIN RETRACTS DUE TO ITS ELASTICITY

PAGE 288 This gunshot wound leaves no marks other than those produced by the bullet perforating the skin ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

G) DISTANT WOUND

PAGE 288 This wound results when the muzzle of a firearm is held against the body at the time of discharge. ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

A) CONTACT WOUND THIS CAN BE FURTHER DIVIDED INTO HARD, LOOSE, ANGLE, AND INCOMPLETE CONTACT WOUNDS

PAGE 288 For this wound the muzzle is held tightly against the skin. ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

B) HARD CONTACT WOUND There is little external evidence that it is a contact wound, although if the entrance is inspected usually searing and powder blackening of the immediate edge of the wound is seen. And autopsy will reveal particles of soot and unburnt powder in the wound track

PAGE 288 In this type of wound, the muzzles held lightly against the skin, and the soot that is carried by the gas is deposited in a zone around the entrance, * which can be wiped away * ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND

PAGE 288 In this wound gas and soot radiate outward from where the gun does not touch the skin. ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

D) ANGLED WOUND The barrel is held at an acute angle to the skin. In an incomplete contact wound, the barrel is held against the skin, but in a place where the skin is not completely flat. In this case hot sooty gases escape from the gap, leaving a long blackened and seared section of the skin, with scattered grains of powder.

PAGE 288 In this wound the muzzle is close to the skin but is not in direct contact, in this case the powder grains do not have a chance to disperse and leave powder tattooing. I wide zone of powder soot and seared blackened skin surround the entrance wound ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND

PAGE 288 To create this wound the muzzle is held away from the skin, but close enough that it still produces powder tattooing. Numerous reddish-brown or possibly orange lesions around the entrance of the wound also characterize this type of wound. ``` A) CONTACT WOUND B) HARD CONTACT WOUND C) LOOSE CONTACT WOUND D) ANGLED WOUND E) NEAR-CONTACT WOUND F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND G) DISTANT WOUND ```

F) INTERMEDIATE WOUND

Page 32 No crime scene investigation should ever be conducted without first considering: A) the legal implications of evidence collection. B) the location of the actor and victim in relation to the scene. C) where the criminal act occurred. D) the time and place of the crime. E) the number of investigators needed to process the scene.

A) the legal implications of evidence collection.

Page 43 Which statement is most likely true? A) Still photos should proceed to taking of the digital video recording process. B) The video recording process should proceed the taking of still photos. C) All evidence should be collected prior to video recording and still photos. D) Digital video recording and digital photographing should not be used at or in any crime scene.

B) The video recording process should proceed the taking of still photos.

Page 279 Evidence is used in court to: A) establish the suspect's guilt. B) show the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence. C) establish the suspect is innocent. D) to convict persons of crimes.

D) to convict persons of crimes.

Page 279 What refers to the sequential documentation of evidence that shows the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence? A) chain of custody B) chain of evidence C) scene-conscious of evidence D) a thoroughly careful manner to avoid possible allegations of tampering, contamination, or misconduct, which can compromise the case.

A) chain of custody

Page 280 | How should fingerprints of the deceased be taken?

By using an ink roller on each finger, next, while strips of finger print paper are placed into a curve holder such as a spoon, each finger is placed against the strip and an impression is taken. Rigid joints can be loosened by working the finger back and forth several times

Page 283 | What is created when the body cells reach the final stage of AUTOLYSIS?

An anaerobic environment is created, that is, environment which oxygen is not present

Page 283 | The products from the breakdown create acids, gases, and other products that cause production of:

Volatile Organic Compounds. (VOCs) and putrefactive effects. (Putrefaction) "ROUSs, rodents of unusual size, I don't think they exist."

PAGE 283 | During stage TWO, the putrefaction stage, what causes the green color change

Bacteria breakdown of hemoglobin into sulfhemoglobin

Page 284 Mummification is also indicated when.....

All of the internal organs are lost due to insect activity. Also indicated by reduced skin, cartilage, and bone.

Page 285 What is a basic guide for the effect of the environment on decomposition is given as:

Casper's law (or ratio) If all other factors are equal, then when there is free access of air, a body decomposes twice as fast than if immersed in water and eight times faster than if buried in earth. (So, you should keep the body out in free air...for birds etc... until it's pretty much skeletal and then throw it in water to get rid of the bones.

532 What areas are typically well known to drug users. Often these areas are nothing more than street corners or public parks where small amounts of drugs are sold?

COPPING AREAS

533 What is the term for a fixed location for drug dealing and are often abandoned buildings or apartments in public housing projects located near copping areas. These locations provide necessary paraphernalia for taking cocaine and the equipment such as needles and syringe is for injecting as well as pipes and heat sources for smoking crack.

Crack houses The Detroit Police Department identify two types of crack houses. 1) the buy and get high party house. drugs are consumed on the premises in conjunction with illicit sex acts 2) "a hole in the wall" House where buyers would literally put cash into the wall at the front of the house and receive crack cocaine from unidentified seller on the other side.

533 What term refers to a criminal who is a member of a criminal organization such as a gang?

Gangster (or mobster) This fucking ass-collar is stuck in the 70s

534 Gangs are becoming more violent while engaging in less typical and lower-Risk crime, such as __________ and ______________.

Prostitution and white-collar crime

535 Local neighborhood, hybrid, and ___________ gang membership is on the rise in many communities.

Female

537 ______________ is important because it plays a part in impelling the terrorist to act and then in defining the targets of their actions.

Symbolism

Gangs often established distinctive, characteristic identifiers, including:

Graffiti tag colors, hand signals, clothing, jewelry, hairstyles, finger nails , slogans, signs, flags, Secret greetings, slurs, codewords, and other group-specific symbols associated with the gang's.....

538 Gangs are forming _______ to avoid police attention and make it more difficult for police to identify and monitor them

Hybrid gangs

540 Gang involvement in __________, _____________, and _____________ is increasing as well as involvement in White Collar Crimes such as __________, _______, and __________. Primarily due to the higher profitability and Lower risk of detection and punishment than that of drugs and weapons trafficking.

alien smuggling, human trafficking, and prostitution counterfeiting, identity theft, and mortgage fraud

544 ___________ is an opium poppy-cultivating/heroin-producing country. 551 ______ has been the legal foundation of the federal government's battle against illicit drug abuse since its implementation in 1970.

Mexico The 1970 Controlled Substance Act. The CSA

546 ____________ is the number one foreign supplier of marijuana abused in the United States. 551 The placement of a drug under any particular category was based on its medical use, potential for abuse, and safety or propensity for _________.

Mexico Dependence. Part of the CSA The 1970 controlled substance act.

546 ______________ the number one foreign supplier of methamphetamine to the United States 559 Since 1985, the DEA has use a tactic that is since been called a drug courier profile. In a precedent-setting decision by the Supreme Court, the technique of drug courier profiling was upheld. The drug decision, ______________________, was written by Judge William H Rehnquist.

Mexico is also United States v. Sokolow (1989) The decision permitted the use of "totality of the circumstances" approach.

546 _______________ has served as a primary transportation Corridor for cocaine destined for the United States

Mexico

550 What is One of the first major drug laws passed in Congress which required federal agents to arrest and interrogate suspects, search and seize contraband, and infiltrate criminal organizations through undercover techniques

The 1914 Harrison narcotic act

550 What requires the subject to have knowledge of the presence of the substance and the power and intent to control use of the drug?

Constructive possession

550 ______________ is most commonly imposed for any exchange of illegal drugs between two or more persons.

Distribution

Page 31 A fundamental premises of __________ is that investigators have the ability to reconstruct the facts and circumstances surrounding each case

criminal investigation

Page 33 It is recommended that Notes be taken in _____________ in the event the defense attorney's later charge the pages are added or notes were deleted by the investigator.

a bound notebook

Page 33 An investigator's _________ are his or her most personal and readily available record of a crime scene search.

field notes

Page 33 officers should remember that _________ is a continual process that occurs throughout the duration of the officer's involvement in an investigation.

note taking

Page 33 When first encountering a witness or victim, it is important for the investigator to allow the person to state in his or her own words what occurred. This is best accomplished by asking a simple question, _________?

"what happened?" Most information can be learned with the answers to who, what, where, when, why, and how.

Page 35 Investigators must note anything _________ at the crime scene.

unusual

Page 33-36 What to write down: List some examples of the essential aspects of information:

``` Dates, times, and locations. Description of victim. Wounds on the victim. Overall description of the crime scene. Notes on photographs taken on the scene. Type and location of each piece of evidence. Absence of items. ```

Page 35 An investigator should be careful to document adequately the location of each piece of _________ found at the scene. Page 306 paper is an excellent preserver of _____________, the note should be handled very carefully and protected as valuable evidence.

evidence Fingerprints After it is been collected it should be delivered to the crime laboratory for handwriting analysis

Page 37 Investigator should remember that the official police report is the ________ of the criminal prosecution process.

backbone

Page 37 An important three-pronged rule of thumb to remember is that official reports should be _______, __________, and __________because they will be under close scrutiny when the case goes to court.

factual, thorough, and to the point

Page 39 In writing the narrative section of the report, the officer should be concerned with two basic items: ________ and _________.

Presentation and Diction (Choice and Use of Words)

Page 40 | Pending on the department, crimes are generally designated as:

crimes against property, crimes against persons, or vice crimes. Crimes are further indexed according to the specific act that is been alleged, such as robbery, burglary, and drug distribution.

Page 45 When photographing a crime scene, how many pictures should you take?

there can never be too many pictures. Depending on the crime scene, 100 to 200 photos maybe typical for proper documentation.

Page 286 The eyes are the most sensitive part of the human body and in death do not react to light, touching, or pressure. In addition eye-lids may remain open; the pupils may become irregular in size and shape and typically become milky and cloudy in color within __________ of death.

within 8 to 10 hours of death.

Page 286 The greater the difference between the body temperature and the environment temperature, the faster the body will cool down. A corpse will feel cool to the touch from 8 to 10 hours after death and remain the same temperature as it's surroundings for about _____________ after death.

About 24 hours after death.

Page 289 Which powder tattooing exists, that indicates an individual was in fact alive when the wound was inflicted? A) Gray or Yellow Marks B) purple-orange to red-black powder tattooing C) Brown to Green Marks D) Reddish-Brown to Orange-Red powder tattooing

D) Reddish-Brown to Orange-Red powder tattooing Gray or yellow marks instead, the individual was deceased before the shooting.

Page 289 Rimfire weapons instead use ball powder, which produces _______________.

extreme fine/faint tattooing. Handguns use flake powder in the ammunition

Page 289 For the most part, _________ produce larger and more obvious tattoo patterns then rimfire weapons because of the use of flake powder. A) rifles B) shotguns C) handguns D) nuclear weapons

C) handguns

Page 289 ____________________ is one of the most common and most deadly weapons.

The shotgun, particularly the 12 gauge, (my favorite weapon) 12 gauge has twelve (12) lead "BALLS" of bore diameter = 1 pound 10, 12, 16, 20, 28 a .410 is different. .410 is the caliber or would be about a "64 gauge"

Page 289 This type of gun has higher velocities and higher Kinetic Energies than the others and therefore possesses the potential to produce extremely severe wounds. Wounds inflicted by this type of gun differ from those of other weapons in that their projectiles can damage organs, bones, and tissue without even coming into contact with them and can result in tissue being ejected not only from the exit wound but also from the entrance wound. A) center fire rifles B) hand guns C) 12 gauge shotguns D) rocket propelled grenades (RPGs)

A) center fire rifles

Page 290 __________ is usually a ring that results from gunpowder been deposited around the wound. It has a dirty appearance and can usually be wiped off. A) tattooing B) smudging C) powder burns D) seared blackened skin

B) smudging

Page 291 __________ is tiny pinpoint hemorrhages may result from the discharge of unburned powder being deposited into the skin. These marks cannot be wiped away. A) tattooing B) smudging C) powder burns D) seared blackened skin

A) tattooing

Page 291 _____________ is another potentially important source of evidence in gunshot cases, it's created in the process of discharging the firearm, the results when the firing pin of a gun hits the back of the cartridge, activating the shock-sensitive primer, which ignites the gunpowder, forcing the bullet down the barrel of the gun and on its path. The heat and pressure within the cartridge vaporize the metals from the primer. Vapors escape from any area of the weapon, like the breach area and muzzle. The heat of explosive reaction in the subsequent cooling result in the condensation and formation of tiny Metal-containing particles. These particles fall on anything in the vicinity of the fired weapon, including the hands of the shooter.

Gun shot residue (GSR)

Page 294 _________ typically have soot on the outside of the skin, and muzzle imprint, or laceration of the skin from the effects of gases.

Contact wounds Intermediate or close range wounds may show a wide zone of powder stippling, but lack a muzzle imprint and laceration. The area of powder stippling will depend upon the distance from the muzzle. (Further away the wider/bigger the spread)

Page 294-295 The most difficult problem is distinguishing a distant from a contact wound. What are factors that can affect the amount and distribution of gunshot residue (GSR) on skin and clothing?

Firing distance, length and diameter of the firearm barrel, characteristics of the gunpowder, angle between the firearm barrel and target, characteristics of the cartridge, the environment-(moisture, wind, heat), type of clothing, intermediate targets, and characteristics of the target (tissue type, putrefaction, blood marks)

Page 295 Exit wounds are generally _______ than entrance wounds because the bullet has expanded or tumbled on its axis.

Larger

Page 295 In bone, typical _______ maybe present that is orientated ______ from the entrance wound. With a Shot-gun the close-range entrance (less than 5 feet) hole is almost __________.

beveling away Square is the common shape for this range, wadding will be in the wound, may notice a "pinkish color" ~lead residue~ to the material around the hole. 5 feet to 10 feet Greater than 5 to 10 feet fliers will start to appear, wadding may or may not enter the victim, shot mass (pellets) start to spread

Page 297 ___________ are characteristic of a struggle between the victim and an assailant.

Defense wounds

Page 298 Drowning occurs when liquid enters the breathing passages, prevented air from getting into the lungs. Drowning can take place in Deepwater, such as a river, swimming pool or ocean. Drowning can also take place in water as shallow as _______. A) 3 inches B) 6 inches C) 12 inches D) 6 feet

B) 6 inches Dry drowning is a hypothesis

Page 298 A person is considered a victim of _________ if, after being rescued from the water, he survives for ________ after being submerged in water, even if he died shortly after or suffered brain damage.

near drowning 24 hours

Page 299 Diagnoses of drowning is based more on ________________ than on tests.

the circumstances of death

Page 303 1) The HITS (Washington State 1981 - 1986 homicides) system stands for: 2) NCAVC (conceived in 1981 by FBI agent Robert K. Ressler) stands for: 3) ViCAP ~ PROFILER (a ROBOT, rule based *expert system*) stands for: 4) CIAP stands for:

1) Homicide investigation tracking system The Dodd case, in particular.... Non-rape and sexual assaults, sex offender registration and changes of address forms, child luring, stalking, child pornography, identity theft, suspicious circumstances. 2) National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime (Pres. Ronald Reagan gave it the primary mission of "identifying and tracking repeat killers") - typical cases requested include Child abduction or mysterious disappearance of children, serial murders, single homicides, serial rapes, extortions, threats, kidnappings, product tampering, ARSONS and bombings, weapons of mass destruction, public corruption, and domestic and international terrorism. 3) Violent Criminal Apprehension Program (specifically works by identifying and linking the signature aspects and violent serial crimes) 4) Criminal Investigative Analysis Program

Page 318 __________ remains one of the most violent crimes known and one which police and prosecutors consider a top priority.

Robbery

Page 320 75% of robberies are estimated to be: A) stranger to stranger B) after previous association C) after a sexual encounter D) after a chance meeting in a night spot or party

A) Stranger to stranger

Page 322 In fact, the clearance rate for bank robberies is among the highest of all crimes _______. A) nearly 40% B) nearly 50% C) nearly 60% D) nearly 80%

C) nearly 60%

Page 323 _______% of bank robbers that go to trial in the U.S. District Courts are convicted and sentenced. A) 93% B) 73% C) 53% D) 33%

A) 93%

326 The most common type of robbery is: A) bank robbery B) home invasion robbery C) the one committed on public streets and alleyways D) commercial robbery

C) the one committed on public streets and alleyways. ATM robberies are likely to coincide with crack cocaine markets, as Street robbery is a quick way for addicts to get cash they need to buy crack, and it does not require a lot of planning or skill

327 Most street robberies, also called muggings, are committed with a weapon, typically a _________ and usually take place at night, and both the robber and victim are usually on foot. A) knife B) handgun C) blunt weapon D) shotgun

B) handgun

327 Street robbery appears to be a _______ person's crime. Offenders tend to be in their ____________. United States almost half of the offenders arrested for robbery were _______, and nearly two-thirds were ________. Second the overwhelming majority of arrested Street robbers are ______. Finally, regarding race more _____________ are arrested for Street robbery in the United States.

``` Young Late teens and early 20s under 21 under 25 male Blacks than whites ``` May I ask, how many of those reported to be whites are Hispanic?

327 Times Overall most street crimes occur at _____.

Night

327 Offenders usually Rob ____________ in the morning and early afternoons. A) older people, 65 and above, B) middle-aged people, 30-40 C) youths, age 17 and below D) Young adults

A) older people, 65 and above, Most elderly people run errands early in the day

327 Offenders are more likely to Rob _______________ between 3 PM and 6 PM. A) older people, 65 and above, B) middle-aged people, 30-40 C) youths, age 17 and below D) Young adults

C) youths, age 17 and below This timeframe aligns with school dismissal, when students routinely go home or elsewhere

327 Offenders usually Rob ________ during the evening. A) older people, 65 and above, B) middle-aged people, 30-40 C) youths, age 17 and below D) Young adults

D) Young adults This group is often in the public late at night in pursuit of entertainment. Drunken bar patrons or migrant workers returning home after work on paydays might also be at a high risk during the late night hours due to the absence of effective guardians and the remote locations of some entertainment venues

Page 328 A new trend in vehicle robberies emerged in Miami, Florida, in 1991. the ______________. The robbers stake out streets and exit ramps from airports, and when automobile drivers come to a stop at a street light, the robbers approach the car, break the window, and hold up the driver at gunpoint.

smash-and-grab robbery

329 One of the more frightening and potentially dangerous crimes that occur to a family is a ________. The ____________ is one of the most terrifying types of robberies because an armed intruder breaks into the home and holds the residents at gunpoint or knife point. One common type of ___________ is when someone who has a right to be in the house, such as an invited guest, commits the crime. 54% of all _____________ are committed by acquaintances according to the National Institute of Justice (NIJ).

home invasion home invasion residential robbery residential robberies

329 _____of all residential robberies are committed by acquaintances according to the National Institute of Justice (NIJ). A) 54% B) 60% C) 100% D) 10%

A) 54%

329 A ___________ fails to meet the stereotypic type of robbery in that it is not stick-ups or muggings, but for the most part, is an instance of petty extortion or "shakedown" of students or teachers.

school robbery The (NIJ) National Institute of Justice, estimates 3.2% of noncommercial robberies occur in schools every year. Accordingly, victimization rate for youths ages 12 to 19 is about 1% per year. This averages out to an estimated 1 million school-related robberies annually.

330 The _____________ is characterized to have a long-term commitment to crime as a source of livelihood, planning and organizing crimes before committing them, and pursuing money to support a particular lifestyle. This robber recognizes robbery as a type of crime that is quick, direct, and profitable. They might typically effect three or four "big scores" a year to support him or herself, all well planned, and sometimes while working in groups with specifically assigned tasks for all group members. A) professional robber B) opportunistic robber C) drug addict robber D) intoxicated robber

A) professional robber

330 The ___________ will steal to obtain small amounts of money when he or she identifies what seems to be a vulnerable target. Targets are usually cabdrivers, drunks, and elderly people. They typically are a younger perpetrator who does not plan the crime well, such as the use of weapons or a getaway car. Typically he or she operates in the environment of a juvenile gang. A) professional robber B) opportunistic robber C) drug addict robber D) intoxicated robber

B) opportunistic robber

330 This type of Robber, commits the crime to support his or her drug habit. Unlike the professional, he or she has a low commitment to robbery because of its danger but a high commitment to theft because it supplies much-needed funds. Although this robber is less likely to use a weapon, he or she is more cautious than the opportunist. When desperate for funds, however, he or she will be less careful in selecting victims and caring out the crime. A) professional robber B) opportunistic robber C) drug addict robber D) intoxicated robber

C) drug addict robber

330 Excessive consumption of alcohol may cause some persons to enter into robbery as a criminal alternative. The _____________ plan their crimes randomly and give little consideration to victim selection, escape, or circumstances under which the crime will be committed. A) professional robber B) opportunistic robber C) drug addict robber D) intoxicated robber

D) intoxicated robber

331 Amateur armed robbers who do continue committing robbery offenses will become more ___________ as their careers in robbery continue. A) greedy B) carefree C) professional D) dangerous

C) professional For a small group of entrenched armed robbery offenders, the motivation to commit armed robbery appears to be more about earning a regular (illicit) income, a means to pay bills and support a family (ie. more like a regular job.)

332 When responding to calls in which robbers have already left the scene, officers must prioritize the care of the injured parties. In addition, they must keep in mind that the robbery scene is a crime scene, where valuable evidence may be present. Therefore, possible locations of fingerprints and other evidence should be protected. Next, witnesses should be located and statements taken regarding descriptions of the suspects and their vehicles so that a ____________ can be broadcast.

flash description

341 The crime of _______ is one of the most common crimes of violence encountered. The pattern of this crime is similar to that of homicide, one might say the difference between the two is that the victim survived.

Assault

342 ____________ are threats by one person to cause bodily harm or death to another. Investigators must identify evidence to show specific intent to commit bodily injury; an injury received as a result of an accident is not an assault. This type of crime also includes a push or a slap to causing injury slightly less than that required for great bodily harm.

Simple assault

343 Bodily harm or injury and simple assault need not cause severe pain or disability. The degree of force necessary in simple assault may range from a push or a slap to slightly less than that required for great bodily harm that is characteristic of ____________.

aggravated assault

343 ___________ is usually committed with a weapon or by some means likely to produce great bodily harm or death. Causes injuries with a high probability of death, serious permanent disfigurement, or loss or impairment of body members or organs (maiming).

Aggravated assault

344 It is not necessary for the victim to wait until he or she has been physically assaulted before acting in __________.

self-defense

344 What case stated derogatory gestures or name-calling between two persons does not give one the right to use violence or force against the other.

Nader v. State, 1933

344 Experience has shown that most victims of assault _____ their attackers. A) provoke B) don't know C) fight D) know

D) know

345 Stating the obvious, the simple task of inquiring about ___________ is one of the criminal investigator's most important duties.

"what happened"

345 Officers should also establish the severity of the assault by taking _________ and describing all injuries in their notes. The size, location, number, color, depth, and amount of bleeding of any injuries must also be carefully described. Some bruises do not become visible for several hours or even days, so assault victims should also be advised that additional ___________ will need to be taken later.

photographs | photographs

346-347 Police typically view these calls as dangerous, partly because old research exaggerated the risks to police. However, ___________ calls are often dangerous for police.

domestic assault

347 After officers have entered the location of the domestic violence call and have secured the area, the investigation begins. The first rule is to interview the suspect and victim ___________. A) together B) in front of the children C) separately D) back to back and facing away from each other

C) separately

347 For domestic violence calls, upon first contact with the suspect, the Miranda warning _________ be read to the suspect.

should not At this point, until a determination has been made as to the nature of the dispute and the relationship between the suspect and the victim, the suspect is not under arrest for domestic violence. The parties are simply under detention for investigation because police officers have reasonable suspicion to detain them.

348 Twenty states now mandate police to make an arrest in domestic violence incidents if there is a _____________ against attacker.

protective a restraining order

348 In a domestic violence case the victim need not sign a complaint. If the assault was a mutual assault, that is, both people involved committed assault, officers must try to determine the __________ and arrest that person.

primary physical aggressor

348 Some factors to consider in making the determination of who the primary physical aggressor was in a domestic assault case include:

1) prior domestic violence involving either person 2) The relative seriousness of the injuries inflicted on each person involved 3) The potential for future injury 4) whether one of the alleged assaults was committed and self-defense 5) any other factor that helps the officer decide which person was the primary physical aggressor (other factors do not include if the bitch looks pretty or if she's fucking hot or if you think, "man I want to fuck her")

348 Restraining orders are also known as __________ or protective orders

"Stay away" Because a jackass who wrote this book doesn't know the difference between restraining order and a protective order

348 A temporary protection order can be issued the same day __________ request it and can be put in effect for a year or longer. In comparison, ________ can wait for months for a criminal prosecution to come to trial or years for a property settlement from the divorce decree.

A woman (Because society still thinks a man can never be victims of any assault or crime of violence by a woman - and a man should never "hit" a woman --- that's not self-defense, for him to push or hit her is punishment or family violence----Best thing to do is keep the bitches -everyone- away from me)

349 ___________ creates uncertainty, instills fear, and can completely disrupt lives. It can involve severe even lethal violence. This crime also involves a pattern of overtly criminal and/or apparently innocent behavior that makes victims fear for themselves or others. it entails repeat victimization of a person the offender targets. It is a series of acts, rather than a single incident. It is a course of conduct directed at a specific person that would cause a reasonable person fear. A) Stalking B) Harassment C) Sexual harassment in the workplace D) Violation of the Terms and Conditions of an Order of Protection

A) Stalking

350 Although stalking is a gender-neutral crime, _______ are the primary victims of stalking and men are the primary perpetrators.

Women In over 75% of completed and attempted female homicides by intimates, the offenders stalked the victims in the year before the offense. Gay men are the most likely victims of male on male stalking. Researchers say that men stalk other men for primarily the same reasons they stalk women; a complex mix of mental and personal disorders.

351 Three broad categories of stalking have been identified, based on the relationship between the stalker and the victim:

1) intimate or former intimate stalking 2) acquaintance stalking 3) stranger stalking

351 _________ is the crime of the 21st-century. Using the Internet to harass, intimidate, and terrorize takes an old problem and adds a diabolically futuristic twist. The growth in popularity of email, along with the use of the Internet has spawned this crime.

Cyberstalking

page 355 | RAPE IS FREQUENTLY COMMITTED BY A MAN KNOWN TO THE VICTIM, AS IN THE CASE OF _________________.

DATE RAPE CONSENT MAY INVOLVE SUBMISSION, BUT SUBMISSION DOES NOT NECESSARILY IMPLY CONSENT.

356 | _________ SEEK THE A SENSE OF PERSONAL FULFILLMENT AND DOMINANCE.

RAPIST

356 ___________ OF RAPE OFTEN EXPERIENCE A DIMINISHED SENSE OF PERSONAL WORTH; INCREASED FEELINGS OF DESPAIR, HELPLESSNESS, AND VULNERABILITY; A MISPLACED SENSE OF GUILT; AND A LACK OF CONTROL OVER THEIR PERSONAL LIVES.

VICTIMS

356 ACCORDING TO COMMON LAW, THERE ARE THREE ELEMENTS TO THE CRIME OF RAPE WHEN THE FEMALE IS OVER THE AGE OF CONSENT:

1) CARNAL KNOWLEDGE (PENETRATION) 2) FORCIBLE SUBMISSION 3) LACK OF CONSENT "PENETRATION OF A FINGER IS NOT RAPE, ALTHOUGH IT IS, OF COURSE, ANOTHER FORM OF ASSAULT." IN MANY STATES, THE VICTIM MUST HAVE RESISTED AND HER RESISTANCE MUST HAVE BEEN OVERCOME BY FORCE.

358 | ______ RAPE IS BECOMING MORE FREQUENT ON COLLEGE CAMPUSES.

DATE

358 __________ RAPE, IN WHICH A GROUP OF MEN ATTACKS A DEFENSELESS OR INTOXICATED WOMAN.

GANG

353 Most assaults occur on ___________. A) The football field B) schoolyard C) weekdays D) weekend nights

D) weekend nights

353 Assaults in taverns and bars: Although some assault victims do something to precipitate the assault, many do not. Most are smaller than their attackers, are either alone or in a small group, or are often ________ than their attackers.

more drunk Consumption of alcohol is the most obvious factor contributing to aggression and violence in bars.

354 Generally speaking, most sex crimes, rape in particular, are thought to be ______________ by victims. A) grossly under-reported B) brought on C) encouraged D) always reporting

A) grossly under-reported

354 Many officers, including others in his or her own department may view the job as a police investigator of sexual crimes as a sort of __________ of the street.

garbage collector In fact, those who commit such crimes are also viewed by many as garbage that must be removed immediately!

355 The Uniform Crime Reports (UCR) defines a ___________ as "the carnal knowledge of the female forcibly and against her will."

Forcible rape By definition, rapes reported under the UCR program are always of females. Sex attacks on males are excluded

355 Some jurisdictions refer to same-sex rape as _________, which is not included in the UCR tally of reported rapes, is intentional and wrongful physical contact with the person without his or her consent that entails a sexual component or purpose.

Sexual battery

355 ___________, in which no forces involved with a girl below the age of consent, is not included in rape statistics, but attempts to commit rape by force or the threat of force are included.

Statutory rape

355 _______________, serves as a statistical reporting Guide for law-enforcement agencies.

The Uniform Crime Reporting handbook | UCR

355 _____________ is the least reported of all violent offenses. ``` A) murder B) assault C) robbery D) forcible rape E) aggravated assault F) manslaughter ```

D) forcible rape The FBI estimates that only one of every four forcible rapes are reported to the police. The 1992 government-sponsored study found that only 16% of rapes were reported.

358 AS WITH ALL INVESTIGATIONS, COLLECTION, AND PRESERVATION OF EVIDENCE ARE THE PRIMARY RESPONSIBILITY OF THE _______________.

INVESTIGATOR

358 | RAPE CASES ARE SOMEWHAT UNIQUE IN THAT EVIDENCE MAY PRESENT ITSELF IN THREE GENERAL AREAS:

1. ON THE CRIME SCENE 2. ON THE VICTIM (IN THE VICTIM) 3. ON THE SUSPECT (OR AT LOCATIONS OCCUPIED BY THE SUSPECT)

359 THE RAPE VICTIM SHOULD BE ASKED TO DESCRIBE WHAT HAPPENED, THE ASSAILANT, THE ATTACKER'S VEHICLE, AND THE LOCATION WHERE THE CRIME OCCURRED. IF THE INCIDENT WAS FAIRLY RECENT, ______________ OF THE SUSPECT AND/OR HIS VEHICLE SHOULD BE GIVEN TO THE DISPATCHER FOR POSSIBLE BROADCAST.

A FLASH DESCRIPTION

359 TYPICALLY, THE RAPE THE VICTIM WILL SCRATCH THE SKINOR TEAR THE HAIR OF HER ATTACKER, AND ___________ MAY BE PRESENT UNDER HER FINGERNAILS.

EVIDENCE QUITE OFTEN, THE VICTIM WILL PULL HAIR OR TEAR THE ASSAILANTS CLOTHES OR SCRATCH HIS FACE AND ACCUMULATE SKIN TISSUE OR BLOODSTAINS UNDER HER FINGERNAILS

359 & 361 | A SINGLE STRAND OF HAIR MAY REVEAL THE _________, ________, AND _____ OF THE ATTACKER.

GENDER, RACE, AND AGE A SINGLE STRAND OF HAIR MAY IDENTIFY THE *RACE, *SEX, *APPROXIMATE AGE, AND *THE TRUE COLOR OF THE HAIR OF ITS HOST. AN ANALYSIS CAN ALSO DETERMINE THE PORTION OF THE BODY THE HAIR IS FROM........SCALP,CHEST,ARM,LEG,OR PUBIC REGION.

``` 360 THE FOLLOWING IS A GENERAL LIST OF SOME ESSENTIAL ELEMENTS OF THE _________: 1: HEAD HAIR BRUSHING COMB 2: PUBIC HAIR BRUSHING COMB 3: PACKAGES FOR HEAD AND PUBIC HAIRS COLLECTED (BOTH KNOWN AND SUSPECTED SAMPLES) 4: VAGINAL SWABBINGS 5: ANAL SWABBINGS 6: FINGERNAIL SCRAPINGS 7: MISCELLANEOUS DEBRIS COLLECTION ```

RAPE EVIDENCE KIT

361 SEMINAL TRACES MAY BE LOCATED BY _______________ BECAUSE OF THEIR FLUORESCENT QUALITIES. SEMEN IS HIGHLY PROTEINACEOUS SERUM NORMALLY CONTAINING A GREAT NUMBER OF SPERMATOZOA.

ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION

362 SAFE ARE A: SANEs ARE A: SART ARE A:

SEXUAL ASSAULT FORENSIC EXAMINER SEXUAL ASSAULT NURSE EXAMINERS SEXUAL ASSAULT RESPONSE TEAM

362 ALL SEXUAL ASSAULT SURVIVORS HAVE THE RIGHT TO A PROPERLY CONDUCTED EXAM IN WHICH THEY ARE TREATED WITH _________, ____________, AND _________.

DIGNITY, COMPASSION, AND RESPECT

362 _________________ IS ARGUABLY THE MOST CRITICAL COMPONENT IN THRE AFTERMATH OF A SEXUAL ASSAULT.

THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION

PAGE 365 APPROXIMATELY 1 TO 6 PERCENT OF RAPE REPORTS ARE FICTITIOUS, _________ THAN THE INCIDENCE OF FALSE REPORTS FOR OTHER CRIMES. A) MUCH GREATER B) NO GREATER C) A LITTLE MORE D) GREATER

B) NO GREATER

365 | ____________ ARE SUBJECTED TO SEXUAL ASSAULT, WHICH INCLUDES THE HUMILIATION AND TRAUMA OF THE CRIME.

PROSTITUTES

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST OF ALL THE RAPIST PROFILES DISCUSSED, __________ RAPIST IS THE MOST DANGEROUS. A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST THE OFFENDER IS LIKELY TO APOLOGIZE TO THE VICTIM --HENCE THE NICKNAME "GENTLEMAN RAPIST." A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST (81% OF RAPES) (DRIVES A PICKUP WITH OVERSIZED TIRES TO COMPENSATE)

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST _____________ VENTS HIS ANGER AND FRUSTRATION TOWARD THE OPPOSITE SEX BY PUNISHING THEM. SEXUAL ASSAULT IS THE MEANS BY WHICH HE CHOOSES TO HUMILIATE THEM. A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST MANY OF THESE OFFENDERS HAVE CHOSEN THE BAR SCENE AS THEIR HUNTING GROUND. HIS VICTIMS ARE TYPICALLY OF HIS SAME RACE AND AGE GROUP. THIS RAPIST SELDOM PLANS HIS ATTACKS AND IS AN OPPORTUNIST BY NATURE. ALSO DEMONSTRATES HIS MANHOOD TO HIS VICTIMS. A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

B) POWER -ASSERTIVE RAPIST (12% OF RAPES) (ALSO DRIVES A "JACKED-UP" PICKUP WITH OVERSIZED TIRES)

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST HIS PUNISHMENT TO HIS VICTIMS IS BASED ON EITHER REAL OR IMAGINED WRONGS THAT HAVE BEEN PERPETRATED AGAINST HIM (OR THE MALE POPULATION IN GENERAL) USES A BLITZ-TYPE ATTACK, WITH FORCE BEFORE, DURING, AND AFTER THE ATTACK. THE ASSAULT IS FAIRLY BRIEF, TYPICALLY VIOLENT, AND HE USES RESISTANCE TO FUEL HIS ANGER. A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST ____________ HAS A STRONG PROPENSITY TOWARD SADISM AND IS PRONE TO SEVERELY INJURE OR EVEN MURDER HIS VICTIM. HE ENJOYS THE VICTIM'S RESPONSE TO THE INFLICTION OF PAIN, USUALLY RESULTING FROM TORTURE. A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST THE PLANNING STAGE OF THIS RAPISTS ATTACK IS DONE METICULOUSLY BY THIS TYPE OF RAPIST, WHO HARBORS IMAGES AND FANTASIES ABOUT SADISTIC SEXUAL ACTS WITH HIS VICTIMS. A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST TYPICALLY, EVERY STAGE OF THE ATTACK IS CAREFULLY THOUGHT THROUGH.

366 - 369 PROFILING THE RAPIST HIS CHARACTERIZATION OF THE ATTACK ON THE VICTIM MAY SOUND SOMETHING LIKE: " SHE WAS JUST IN THE WRONG PLACE AT THE WRONG TIME." A) THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST B) THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST D) THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST

C) THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST | 5% OF ALL RAPES

369 THE RAPIST APPROACH THE VICTIM IS APPROACHED OPENLY WITH SUBTERFUGE OR COVER. TYPICALLY, THE ATTACKER IS FRIENDLY AND OFFERS SOME TYPE OF ASSISTANCE OR REQUESTS DIRECTIONS. A) CON APPROACH B) BLITZ APPROACH C) SURPRISE APPROACH D) SHOCK AND AWE APPROACH

A) CON APPROACH THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST - PRIOR OBSERVATION OR STALKING THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST - WILL USE A MODERATE DEGREE OF FORCE

369 THE RAPIST APPROACH IMMEDIATE PHYSICAL ASSAULT IS USED TO SUBDUE THE VICTIM. THIS APPROACH LEAVES NO OPPORTUNITY TO COPE VERBALLY OR PHYSICALLY AND FREQUENTLY INVOLVES THE USE OF A GAG OR BLINDFOLD A) CON APPROACH B) BLITZ APPROACH C) SURPRISE APPROACH D) SHOCK AND AWE APPROACH

B) BLITZ APPROACH THE ANGER-RETALIATORY RAPIST AN ASSAULT IS USUALLY SPONTANEOUS

369 THE RAPIST APPROACH THE ATTACKER WAITS FOR THE VICTIM IN A SECLUDED AREA WHERE HE WON'T BE DISCOVERED AND THEN APPROACHES ON HIS OWN VOLITION (E.G. HIDING IN THE BACKSEAT OF AN AUTO-MOBILE OR STEPPING OUT FROM BEHIND A WALL) A) CON APPROACH B) BLITZ APPROACH C) SURPRISE APPROACH D) SHOCK AND AWE APPROACH

C) SURPRISE APPROACH THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST WILL ALSO USE A WEAPON TO GAIN CONTROL OF THE VICTIM WHILE EXPOSING HIMSELF TO A MINIMUM RISK OF HARM OR DETECTION.

PAGE 369 METHODS OF CONTROL LITTLE OR NO FORCE IS USED, BUT MINIMAL SLAPPING MAY BE USED TO INTIMIDATE A) MINIMAL FORCE B) MODERATE FORCE C) EXCESSIVE FORCE D) BRUTAL FORCE

A) MINIMAL FORCE

PAGE 369 METHODS OF CONTROL THE REPEATED HITTING OR SLAPPING OF THE VICTIM IN A PAINFUL MANNER IS ACCOMPANIED BY THE USE OF PROFANITY. A) MINIMAL FORCE B) MODERATE FORCE C) EXCESSIVE FORCE D) BRUTAL FORCE

B) MODERATE FORCE

PAGE 369 METHODS OF CONTROL THE VICTIM IS BEATEN ON ALL OR MOST PARTS OF HER BODY A) MINIMAL FORCE B) MODERATE FORCE C) EXCESSIVE FORCE D) BRUTAL FORCE

C) EXCESSIVE FORCE

PAGE 369 METHODS OF CONTROL SADISTIC TORTURE AND INTENTIONAL INFLICTION OF PHYSICAL AND EMOTIONAL PAIN ARE USED. A) MINIMAL FORCE B) MODERATE FORCE C) EXCESSIVE FORCE D) BRUTAL FORCE

D) BRUTAL FORCE THE ANGER-EXCITATION RAPIST WILL USE EXCESSIVE AND BRUTAL FORCE TO MAINTAIN PSYCHOLOGICAL AND PHYSIOLOGICAL CONTROL OF HER.

PAGE 369 ANOTHER IMPORTANT STEP IN THE INVESTIGATION IS TO DETERMINE WHETHER OR NOT THE ATTACKER STOLE ANY ITEMS FROM THE VICTIM THAT MIGHT SERVE AS A _________ OR ________ BY WHICH TO REMEMBER THE VICTIM.

TOKEN OR PRIZE EVEN THE "GENTLEMAN RAPIST" - THE POWER-REASSURANCE (MANHOOD) RAPIST WILL SOMETIMES TAKE A PERSONAL ARTICLE FROM THE VICTIM AS A SOUVENIR. AS WELL AS THE POWER-ASSERTIVE RAPIST WHO WILL "DESIRE AN OBJECT FROM THE VICTIM AS A SOUVENIR"

531 ____________ USE PARCEL SERVICES, TUNNELS, AIRCRAFT, TRAINS, BOATS, VEHICLES WITH HIDDEN COMPARTMENTS, AND OTHER CONVEYANCES TO TRAFFIC DRUGS INTO AND THROUGHOUT THE NATION, PARTICULARLY ALONG THE SOUTHWEST AND NORTHERN BORDERS.

DRUG-TRAFFICKING ORGANIZATIONS

page 536 SURENO GANGS, INCLUDING ______________ (ALSO KNOWN AS THE MS-13), 18TH STREE, AND FLORENCIA 13 ARE EXPANDING FASTER THAN OTHER NATIONAL-LEVEL GANGS A) MARA SALVATRUCHA B) THE TRINITARIOS C) THE ZOE POUND D) DOMINICAN'S DON'T PLAY (DDP)

A) MARA SALVATRUCHA ``` ASIAN GANGS CARIBBEAN GANGS SOMALI GANGS DOMINICAN GANGS HAITIAN GANGS JAMAICAN GANGS PRISON GANGS ```

PAGE 540 THE U.S. DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE REPORTED IN 2011 THAT THE _________, A LOOSELY ORGANIZED HYBRID GANG, IS RAPIDLY EXPANDING INTO MANY U.S. COMMUNITIES.

JUGGALOS

582 Modern-Day computer crime is not limited to criminals with a _______ motive.

profit

582 ____________ is the destruction, or unauthorized use, modification, or copying of information, programs, services, equipment for communication networks.

Cybercrime

582 Pretended to be teenagers, __________ talk kids and teens into meeting with them, Where they have been known to rape, molest, and sometimes murder them.

predators

583 Although the first generation of hackers during the 1980s seemed more mischievous than criminal, their emergence was a predecessor for a far more serious type of computer crimes. Many large corporate computers are now hacked not as a prank but as a target of____________.

large-scale theft. Cyber-extortion

583 According to the National Institute of Justice (NIJ), State and federal criminal codes contain more than 50 different definitions of _____________.

computer crime.

584 ______________ is generally considered the physical computer itself and any peripherals associated with it, such as printers, telephone modems, and external disk drives.

Hardware

584 _____________ conversely, refers to the media on which information is stored, computer tapes and floppy disks.

Software

583 For the sake of simplicity, let's define ________________ as violations of criminal law that require a knowledge of computers for their perpetration.

Computer crimes

585 According to a report issued by the NIJ, National Institute of Justice, the typical computer hacker is a _________ possessing a home computer with the telephone modem who uses electronic bulletin boards for a variety of the illegal purposes. Such criminals may be involved in crime such as credit card fraud and using unauthorized numbers to arrange mail-order purchases to a vacant home where the delivery can be intercepted and kept.

juvenile

585 Typical forms of computer crimes _______________ in its most favorite use, it signifies a compulsive computer programmer who explorers, tests, and pushes the computer to it's limits, regardless of its consequences. This may involve the destruction of valuable data, resulting in massive costs.

Computer hacking

585 Typical forms of computer crimes ________________ is the process of presenting sequential changing information to an automated system to identify those items receiving a positive response. The method is typically used to identify telephone numbers that access computers, user identifications, passwords that facilitate access to computers, and credit card numbers that are used illegally for purchasing merchandise or services through telemarketing.

scanning

585 Typical forms of computer crimes ___________ is the most common activity of computer system intruders. It is also one of the most difficult to prove after the case goes to trial. It is the process of one person assuming the identity of an authorized computer user by acquiring items, knowledge, or characteristics. For one to have physical access to a computer terminal or system,many such systems require that the user enter a specific identifier such as a security code or password.

Masquerading Anyone possessing the correct security code or password can masquerade as another person.

585 _____________ is usually the simplest, safest, and most commonly used method. It involves changing data before or during their input to computers. Generally, anybody associated with or having access to the process of recording, encoding, examining, checking, converting, updating, or transforming data that ultimately are entered in a computer can change these data.

False data entry (data diddling)

586 ________ is the secret placement or alteration of computer instructions so that the computer will tell a second computer how to perform illegal functions. It is unique in that it usually allows the victim computer to perform most or all the functions for its originally intended purposes.

Trojan horses The Trojan horse program is also the primary method used for inserting instructions for other abusive acts, such as logic bombs, salami attacks, and viruses.

586 ______________ is a set of computer instructions that reproduces itself in computer programs when they are executed within unauthorized programs. The program may be inserted through a special program designed for that purpose or through the use of a Trojan horse-hidden instructions inserted into a computer program that the victim uses. This is multiplied by itself and enters new programs when opened or executed, creating new versions of itself. Such programs may lay dormant in the computer systems for weeks or even months and may infect entire computer networks, rendering them useless.

A computer virus

586 _____________ technique stems from a macro or utility program used in most IBM mainframe computer centers as a systems tool. Most computer centers have a secure operating mode that requires a "break-glass-in-case-of-emergency" program that will bypass all controls to disclose any of the contents of the computer.

Superzapping Illegal use of the superzapper program enables thieves, for example, to tinker with the program so that checks can be issued to their private accounts.

586 _____________ is an automated form of the Trojan horse method where small amounts of assets (money) are taken from specified accounts or sources and where the whole appears to be unaffected. in this way, over time, a substantial amount of money can be diverted to the thief's personal account while going undetected.

Salami techniques

587 _________ are a technique in which programmers insert debugging aids that Break security codes in the computer and then insert an additional code of their own. This enables entry into the program for such purposes as false data entry.

Trap doors

587 _________ are a set of instructions inserted on the computer program that looks for specific errors in the computer's normal functioning. After the error has been identified, it kicks into action and exploits the error identified. The end result is the victim computer reacting in certain ways that might result in the crashing of the program.

Logic Bombs

587 Many computer functions rely on asynchronous functioning of a computer to complete certain functions, such as calling for the output of certain reports in a pre-designated order. Frequently many such functions are programmed into the computer at once. The ____________ confuses the computer system, making it unable to differentiate one job from another.

Asynchronous attacks

587 ______________ is the unauthorized copying and use of computer programs in violation of copyright and trade secret laws.

Piracy Computer program piracy

588 As with any preliminary investigation, each department's Standard operating procedure should be followed regarding dealing with victims, evidence, and suspects. __________ should remember that computer crimes involve a person who communicates in a language that may be difficult to understand.

Investigators A computer expert should be identified to assist the investigator in the course of the investigation. preparing a search warrant requires expert advice from the following sources: Systems analyst, programmers who wrote programs, staff who prepared the data in computer-readable form, tape librarians, and electronic maintenance engineers who maintain the hardware.

589 Seizing materials not included in a ________________ could cost an investigator the success of an entire investigation.

search warrant

589 Certain care measures are required for the most common types of computer evidence:

Magnetic tape and Disks: these must be handled with care. This is also easily destroyed by exposure to a magnetic field such a stereo speakers and printers. Printed computer listings: no restrictions on storage are required for paper printouts of computerized Data except that they should not be stored in direct sunlight. This practice will reduce the chance of fading. Computer: all types of computers are sensitive--be careful. Even when the computer is turned off, disruption by moving it may occur. If there is a hard drive, it should be "Parked" before being moved to avoid destroying information contained on the disk. Additional computer hardware: investigators should document the configuration of a computer, what add-on equipment is involved, and how it should be disconnected. This equipment may include telephone modems, autodialers, and printers.

590 Profile of the computer criminal: Age: Most perpetrators are young and were educated in colleges and universities where Computer Attacks are common and sometimes condoned as _____________.

Educational activity

590 Profile of the computer criminal: Skills and knowledge: Most suspects are among the most skilled and higher-performing technologist. This is seen, in particular, in organizations in which a worker is ___________ for the work he or she is doing.

Overqualified

590 Profile of the computer criminal: Positions of trust: in most cases, ____________ perform their acts while working at their jobs. The investigator should anticipate that vulnerabilities identified will usually result in the most qualified person taking advantage of them.

Perpetrators

590 Profile of the computer criminal: Perpetrators: in many types of computer crime have been known to need assistance. This is because computer crimes require more knowledge and access than _____ person usually possesses.

One

590 Profile of the computer criminal: Differential association: Frequently, people working together may encourage each other to engage in _______________ that escalate into serious crimes.

Unauthorized acts

590 Profile of the computer criminal: Robin Hood syndrome: Most computer crime perpetrators interviewed in the study differentiated between harming people and organizations. The latter of which was easily condoned. In addition, they rationalized that they were only harming a computer and not causing any loss to ___________ or _____________.

people or organizations.

568 According to the Bureau of Journal Statistics (BJS), ____________ is not an official crime category, but it represents a unique area of criminality that differs from the other categories of criminal activity, such as violence and property crime.

White-collar crime

568 Some of the most notable white-collar crimes are:

Insider trading, money-laundering, confidence games, and computer crime.

568 The Dictionary of Criminal Justice Data Terminology offers the following definition of ______________ a "non-violent crime for financial gain committed by means of deception by persons whose occupational status is entrepreneurial, professional or semi professional, and utilizing their special occupational skills and opportunities."

white-collar crime

568 Simply put, _______________ could be explained as "nonviolent crime committed for financial gain an accomplished by means of deception."

white-collar crime

569 The __________ scandal was also considered a landmark case in the field of BUSINESS FRAUD and brought into question the accounting practices of many corporations throughout the United States.

Enron One of the best known corporate scandals is the Enron scandal of 2001. Which George W. Bush was also involved in. Dec 10, 2001 - "There was no company in America closer to George W. Bush than Enron." May 25, 2006 - The man who paid many of the biggest bills for George Bush's political ascent, Enron founder Kenneth Lay, has been found guilty of conspiracy ... those motherfuckers

570 As with corporate crime, ________________ are crimes that betray the trust of the victim. For decades, criminals have practice the art of getting something for nothing by stealing from a trusting person.

Confidence games

670 Probably the most practiced confidence game of all time, the ___________ comes in many varieties. In the scam, A lot of losers pay a few winners. Most seem to follow the basic pattern: ConMan 1 finds a wallet, purse, Attache case, or even a paper bag apparently filled with money. An unsuspecting victim standing nearby witnesses the discovery. At that time ConMan 2 appears and says "hey bitch I'm entitled to a share of that loot just as much as you are!" Essentially, the dumb fucking bitch, or victim, ends up giving money to the CONS as a "Show of good faith", then never gets any money back or even sees the money that was found. Why does this happen, FUCKING GREED!

The pigeon drop Now, it's done by email and postal mail. Letters of a lot of money in an account from a settlement or from a beneficiary overseas, found somehow and it could be yours. (YOUR ancestor left it unclaimed in a bank) I'm sending you this letter because if you send me your checking account information, $5 million can be freed up and I'll be able to give you a lot more in return...Blah blah blah.... Come on dumbass you can trust me!!!!

571 In this scam, the scammers act like police officers, detectives, FBI agents, and bank officials to tell you somebody has been scamming money out of your account, they will want you to remove your money out of your account and then tell you THEY will put it back into your account for you. They take off with your fucking money and you never see them or your money ever again. Why? Because you're dumb-ass!

The bank examiner scheme

571 Earn thousands the easy way. A small investment could earn you $100,000 in less than a year! I did it, you can too. AND YOU CAN WORK FROM THE COMFORT OF YOUR OWN HOME! Be your OWN boss!!! Among the oldest con games, _____________ have been used to swindle millions of dollars annually, using everything from dollar bills to chain letters to more sophisticated schemes that sell franchises to unsuspecting persons who then must sell more franchises to more victims, and so on. this scheme eventually collapse is due to the sheer numbers of victims involved.

Pyramid scheme AkA "get rich quick" scheme Person on the top rung will get more money, but when you're on the bottom rung you'll stay there for awhile until enough people are below you. The multipliers make it impossible to continue on and it collapses.

571 In this scheme you get a letter or phone call saying "dear consumer: you just won a free vacation for five days and four nights in the Bahamas. No you dumb motherfucker, just give us your credit card information so we can charge you a shit load of money, oh yeah by the way you won't get your trip." This is another one that a dumbass falls for. You end up charged hundreds of dollars for a service fee and you can not return the package because it's already expired or has gone past the date where you could return it. So, you end up with some useless papers.

Travel scams

572 This is where some fucker actually comes your house and either damages your property, to say "you need to get this fixed" or says hey your asphalt needs fixing or I have some remaining asphalt from one job to use on your driveway. A lot of times, The con will start the job and won't complete it. Or, will just spray black paint instead of asphalt

Home repair scams Or act like some kind of inspector that demands something failed inspection and fuck your shit up so, you need to get it fixed, then overcharge you. (they usually prey on the old)

572 These cons usually begin by sending a computerized personal letter to the victim stating that he or she has just won a new car, a diamond necklace, a food processor, and so on. All you need, dumb fucker, to collect the prize, is come and visit a wonderful time-share resort. Upon doing so you'll be subjected to high pressure sales tactics to buy one of the units. And your prize is actually just a knock-off piece of shit. Letters of this sort appear to be urgent and may represent companies names that resemble official organizations.

Contest cons

This begins with a phone call asking the victim if he or she would like to receive five magazines for two years at no cost. You just need to pay a nominal fee of let's say $1.75 per week, as a service charge. So, dumb motherfucker, why don't you give me your credit card information or debit card information. Then, I can charge hundreds of dollars on it and swindle all your money away because you're dumbass. I hope you fucking enjoy these hundreds of bullshit magazines that you were dumb enough to pay for.

The magazine subscription scam

573 This crime is usually accompanied by stolen checks, credit cards, or debit cards. Or the numbers associated with them. This is an ideal entry-level crime from which people may graduate to more serious offenses. It is a serious crime that affects multiple victims and significantly contributes to other types of crimes. At the most basic level, fraud is easy to commit, and the chances of apprehension and punishment are minimal.

Check and credit card fraud

575 The practice of money laundering began in __________ during the 1930s as concerned Europeans began funneling their capital beyond the clutches of Hitler's Third Reich.

Switzerland In time Switzerland's infamous numbered accounts became an enormously profitable business. Today, Swiss Bank secrecy laws have been relaxed because of numerous criminal cases involving money laundering.

575 The ___________ of entire regions with drug money is one of the most sinister and surreptitious types of drug-related crimes. The term ___________, which is tracked by the regional Federal Reserve Banks, seems to describe this phenomenon with great precision.

flooding; | flooding

575 Federal reporting requirements are violations under the ______________.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

575 When no other crimes could be pinned on Al Capone, a conviction was obtained for ___________.

tax evasion Had the money laundering statutes been on the books in the 1930s, Capone would've been charged with money laundering.

575 The Money Laundering Control Act was passed in ______________.

October 1986

574 Money that has been derived through activities such as drug trafficking or corporate crime. Where the mere existence of large amounts of cash possesses problems for those who possess it. This causes criminals to constantly search for methods of hiding their financial rewards and make the illegally acquired money appear to be legitimate. This process is known as __________________.

Money Laundering

577 It is estimated that the four major drugs; _____________, ____________, ____________, and ______________, are smuggled into United States from Mexico and generate as much as $22 billion per year for the sources of supply.

Methamphetamine, heroin, cocaine, and marijuana

577 The terms: bank methods, surfing, currency exchanges, double invoicing, and acquisition of financial institutions are techniques of ______________.

Money laundering

447 Burglary is considered a ________ crime.

Property The crime of burglary is one of the most pervasive. Burglary is generally considered a *covert crime* in which a criminal works during the nighttime, outside the presence of witnesses.

447 The uniform crime reports (UCR) program uses three classifications of burglary: ____________, ____________________, and ________________. A) residential, commercial, and vehicle B) forcible entry, unlawful entry or no force used, and attempted forcible entry C) forced entry, open door/window entry, and remained hidden until after closing D) none of the above

B) forcible entry, unlawful entry or no force used, and attempted forcible entry

447 Many people fear nighttime burglary of the residence. They imagine themselves asleep in bed when a stranger breaks into the house, resulting in a violent confrontation. Although such scenarios do occur, ___________ burglaries are more common.

daytime

448 Robbery is a _______________, whereas burglary is considered a ______________.

Crime against persons | Property crime

449 A more _________________ may pose as a sales person, insurance agent, public utility worker, Jehovah witness, or other legitimate person. This permits him or her to verify that no one is home. Knocking on the door or ringing the door bell to see if anyone answers.

innovative burglar

449 Nighttime burglaries typically occur between _________and _________.

7 PM and 12 PM

449 In selecting a target, the burglar will look for certain things to indicate that a structure is vacant. These include:

Newspapers collecting in front of the residence, indicating that no one has been home for a while Empty garage left open House with too many lights on or just one light left on

449 Burglaries can be divided into two general categories:

Residential burglary and commercial burglary. Residential burglars may focus on apartments or houses and usually work the higher-income areas of town.

451 In the United States, burglary rates are the highest in the month of __________, and the lowest in __________.

August | February

Some research suggests that burglaries most often occur on _________, from 10 AM to 11 AM and from 1 PM to 3 PM --Times when even routinely occupied houses may be empty.

Weekdays (This is stupid but was in the book) Some researchers have divided burglary times into four distinct categories: morning 7 AM to 11 AM, afternoon 12 PM to 5 PM, evening 5 PM to 10 PM, and night 10 PM to 7 AM.

451 Homes which have been previously burglarize have a much _________ risk of being burglarized than those never burglarized. Homes around a house that was recently burglarized are at a _______ risk to be burglarized as well.

higher higher

453 Few burglars keep the goods they steal. According to research, they typically dispose of stolen property within ______________, usually after stashing it in a semi public location.

within 24 hours Burgers are most likely to steal cash and goods they can easily carry and sell including: jewelry, weapons, televisions, stereo equipment, and computers. They need transportation to move larger items, such as electronic equipment, while they often make off with cash and jewelry on foot.

455 Criminals who commit property crimes can be categorized into two groups: ____________ or _______________.

amateurs or professionals (Pros)

455 The _____________ searches for the best opportunities for stealing. Most juveniles are opportunists who search for homes and businesses with unlocked doors and open windows. It is also characteristic of the juveniles to resort to needless destruction of property during the commission of the crimes.

amateur burglar

455-456 The _______________ represents a unique criminal type. Such a person takes a great deal of time in planning a crime to avoid detection and net the greatest cache of property possible. This type of burglar commonly relies on the expert use of tools for entry into otherwise secure structures. He or she might also consider making a bogus burglary call to another part of town to occupy the local police, thus giving him or her more freedom in his work. This type of burglar typically drive trucks or vans, which conceal and transport their tools and may use fake company names painted on the sides of the vehicle.

professional thief "pros" professional burglar

457 Experience has shown that most burglars are convicted on ________________. Therefore, any physical evidence located at the burglary crime scene is critical to the case.

circumstantial evidence

457 Broken glass, tool marks, and fingerprints at the burglary crime scene is considered __________.

forensic evidence In the case of safe burglaries, safe insulation can be use the link the suspect to the crime.

458 Possession of burglary ______ is considered a separate felony offense by most jurisdictions.

tools

458 _____________ is a person who buys and sells stolen property with criminal intent.

The fence

459 Items such as tools, liquor, and clothing that are indistinguishable from others like them are in the category of non-traceable goods called _____________.

Fungible goods

459 Investigators might need to rely on _____________ evidence to prove the receipt of stolen property. Laws addressing stolen property also include possession, concealment, and sale of the property. Because evidence in this category is sometimes difficult to obtain, investigators might have to rely on ____________ evidence for prosecution.

circumstantial circumstantial

459 Probably the most commonly committed crime of personal gain is ___________. It is defined as the unlawful taking, caring, leading, or riding way of property from the possession of another.

larceny-theft

460 The UCR defines ____________ as the unlawful taking, carrying, leading, or riding away, of property from the possession or constructive possession of another. The taking must be deliberate and with the intent to steal.

larceny-theft The ass fucker who wrote this book is a fucking ass-napkin, fucking repeated himself in almost every fucking chapter because he's a douche canoe that likes to suck a dick because he is a cock sucker. He is a fucking ass fuck. Hey bro don't be such a fucking hating bitch! Siri always understands my, fucking fuck, when I be saying, Siri is a motherfucking bitch, Siri is a motherfucking bitch. If you talk like it came from the Motherfucking hood, Siri will understand what motherfucking shit you say and fucking correct it for you. Hmmm makes me wonder!

461 The crimes in the form of Forgery or Fraud are considered ____________. Very fucking good Siri.

White-collar felonies

460 - 461 ______________ includes crimes such as shoplifting, pocket picking, purse snatching, thefts from motor vehicles, theft of motor vehicle parts and accessories, Bicycle thefts - stealing bicycles, Breaking into coin machines, stealing motor vehicles, and stealing valuables left in unattended buildings.

Larceny-theft The UCR program does not include embezzlement, confidence games, forgery, or worthless checks, as well as motor vehicle theft in this category as they are a separate Crime Index offense.

463 | ____________ includes the use of fictitious checks drawn on a nonexistent firm or person.

Check kiting

464 ______________ is a low-profile crime that typically consists of employees of organizations stealing large amounts of money over a long period of time. It is also extremely difficult to detect. Those who are successful in this crime can cause extensive fiscal damage to victim organizations, frequently resulting in their financial ruin.

Embezzlement

465 Retail theft; As indicated, one of the hallmarks of embezzlement is the stealing of merchandise by companies employees, or _______.

pilferage.

467 Credit cards and debit cards are sometimes sold to professional _____________ who have experience in dealing with stolen credit cards.

plastic workers

467 _____________ is a widespread property crime. Shops contain new goods, temptingly displayed. Self-service sales methods, all so common, provide ample opportunity for shoppers to handle goods many of which are prepackaged. The thief conceals them in their clothing or bags.

Shoplifting

469 Professional shoplifters that re-sell stolen merchandise to pawnshops for fences at usually one-half to one-fourth the retail price are called ______________.

boosters or heels

469 According to Cameron's study, most shoplifters are amateur pilferers called _________. Who are usually a respectable person who do not perceive themselves as thieves, but they are systematic shoplifters who steal merchandise for their own use rather than for resale

snitches

471 _____________ is a special kind of larceny which involves obtaining credit, merchandise, or services by fraudulent personal representation.

Identity theft Eldrick T Woods, Tiger....

471 __________________________ mandate is to prohibit unfair or deceptive acts or practices and to promote vigorous competition in the marketplace.

FTC Federal Trade Commission's

472 The US Secret Service, the US postal inspection service, and the FBI are among the principal federal enforcement agencies that share jurisdiction for investigation of what type of crime?

Identity theft

473 ____________________ is the federal government's principal consumer protection agency.

The federal trade commission FTC

479 The UCR defines a __________ as a self-propelled vehicle that runs on the ground and not on rails

motor vehicle This definition includes automobiles, motorcycles, bicycles, trucks, motorscooters, buses, and snowmobiles. Therefore, as mentioned earlier, a bicycle theft should NOT be included as larceny-theft. The Author is such a contradictory ass fucking clown!

480 Motor vehicles that are taking temporarily by persons having legal access to them _______ considered as motor vehicle theft.

are not

481 ___________ has ranked as the premier criminal motivation for motor vehicle theft, committed primarily by juvenile offenders. Since the 1970s, however, the average age of the auto theft criminal has risen steadily.

Joyriding

482 The terms ___________ and ___________ refer to locations were stolen vehicles are disposed of. A stolen vehicle is taken to a location typically a private garage in an unpopulated residential area of town. The garages are usually rented by people using fictitious names to avoid detection by authorities. In this location vehicles are dismantled, disassembled, and the parts are sold.

chop shop and stripping operations

482 Although similar to strip locations, chop shops usually involve larger garages and deal in larger quantities of goods. They are sometimes large enough to house both the stolen vehicle and the _________, the auto-parts transport vehicle, inside the building, where detection from law-enforcement officials is more difficult.

Tin Truck

483 _____________ are another way motor vehicle theft investigations are commonly initiated. This is done when an officer sees a violation, officers usually only pay attention to the registration of the vehicle when the Vin number may not match the registration.

Traffic stops Ofc. should take the time to look at the VIN # to ensure that the vehicle is not stolen

485 What is the first letter or number in a VIN for?

Nation of origin

485 What is the Second letter or number in a VIN for?

Name of the manufacture (General Motors, Honda, Buick, Chrysler, Ford, Porsche, Oldsmobile, Ferrari) The book listed Buick as a make and Not a manufacture. General Motors has Buick, Chevrolet, Oldsmobile, and I believe Chrysler as manufacturers for many makes and models

485 What is the third letter or number in a VIN for?

Specific make of the vehicle (Crown Victoria, Regal, Civic, 911, cutlass supreme classic) The book listed Buick as a make. It's wrong, Buick makes The Regal, the LeSabre, Enclave, and other makes and models. http://www.buickdealer.com/SanAntonio

485 What is the fourth letter or number in a VIN for?

Type of restraint system

485 What are the fifth sixth and seventh letters or numbers in a VIN for?

Car line series and body type (Four-door or two door; coupe, hatchback - M-series / SS / RT

485 What is the eighth letter or number in a VIN for?

Engine description V6 / V8 / inline 6 / 3 or 4 cylinder or electric - "Tesla"

485 What is the ninth letter or number in a VIN for?

Check digit With the exception of the check digit, one can easily see the function of each of these characters. The ninth character is called the check digit. It may be a number or letter; however it is derived mathematically from the other characters in the VIN to reveal coding and recording errors.

485 What is the tenth letter or number in a VIN for?

Model year

485 What is the 11th letter or number in a VIN for?

Assembly plant location

485 What are the remaining letters or numbers, 12 through 17, in a VIN for?

Sequential production numbers 000001 could be the first vehicle of that production year made. So only 999999 vehicles of a specific make and model can be made in a year at a specific assembly plant.

485 The ___________ involves the thief purchasing a wreck vehicle that is unrepairable strictly for a certificate of title and for the VIN PLATE. The purchasers then takes the wrecked vehicle's Vin plate and puts it on the vehicle that he is currently driving which is probably stolen or puts it on a stolen vehicle, then sells it.

Salvage switch

486 __________ are often used to transport a vehicle desired by a vehicle thief

tow trucks

488 _______________ is defined by the US Department of Justice as "completed or attempted robbery of a motor vehicle by a stranger to the victim". They occur most frequently in urban areas.The US Bureau of Justice statistics estimates that in about half of all these attempts, the attacker succeeds in stealing the victims car. This type of crime typically consists of a single gun man placing a pistol to the head of an unsuspected driver at location such as stoplights, garages, fast food restaurants, gas stations, and parking lots.

Carjacking. Another common technique is a so called bump and run, in which the thief stages a minor rear end collision. When the driver exits his or her vehicle to inspect the damage, one aggravated robber holds the occupants at gunpoint while often the other aggravated robbers drive away in his or her vehicle.

489 The "Owner give up" this term applies when the owner conspiring with a third-party, typically for a fee, to have the vehicle disposed of, so the owner can collect insurance money. Some reasons for this fraud include:

Desire for immediate cash End of costly repair bills Avoidance of hassle of selling Breaking of the lease What The stupid motherfucking author left out. The obvious, loss of a job or other reasons where The person cannot make the loan payments for the car or because the loan payments were set too high. Too many missed payments and going to lose the car anyway.

490 is a nonprofit private crime prevention agency underwritten by more than 600 property-casualty insurance companies. The Chicago-based organization was established to aid law-enforcement and insurance investigators in investigating and prosecutions of vehicle crimes such as vehicle theft, vehicle arson, and vehicle fraud. This Bureau maintains district offices throughout the United States, Mexico, and Canada and publishes an annual manual for the identification of stolen automobiles.

National Insurance Crime Bureau In addition, the NICB's role is to implement policies for the prevention of vehicle theft. To aid the investigator, it publishes passenger Identification manuals that interpret characters of the vehicles VIN.

Page 489 The ____________ made armed auto theft (carjacking) a federal offense.

The Anti-Car Theft Act, enacted in 1992

489 The passage of the _____________ and _____________ made carjacking resulting in death a federal crime punishable by death.

Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act

292 GSR Bag the dead victims hands in ______ not ________.

Paper not plastic bags To preserve GSR particles.

290 Imperfections of bullets can also be unique to only one weapon, identifying that weapon as distinctly as __________. For example, if there are no grooves on the bullet, it was likely fired from a large weapon, such as a rifle. If there are in elongated grooves with deep incisions, it was likely fired from a weapon smaller in size.

fingerprints Bullets are also potentially important evidence in shooting cases. They can be analyzed in an attempt to determine the weapon that was used in the shooting. Ballistic experts examine the appearance of Grooves, the number of Grooves, the diameter of the lands and grooves, and the width of the lands and grooves, the depth of the grooves, the direction of the rifling twist, and the degree of the twist.

293 Why analyze for GSR? The reason for analyzing for GSR lies in the fact that most ___________ is not conclusive but supportive and circumstantial. Glass, hair, fiber, paint, soil, and sometimes, shoeprint analysis cannot conclusively identify a common source between a known and an unknown sample. The fact, however, that authorities locate evidence with a possible common source is worth noting for the court.

Trace evidence Accordingly GSR found on hands of a suspect shooter is significant and worthy of consideration by the jury Trace evidence = supportive / circumstantial evidence

293 Most labs will not test GSR samples collected from living persons more than ________ after the shooting.

Six hours

290 For example, if there are no grooves on the bullet, it was likely fired from a ________________.

large weapon, such as a rifle

290 Tracing firearms is often part of the investigation process associated with a ___________.

shooting.

290 After the firearm is recovered and the identifiers are forwarded to the ATF's ______________, ATF contacts the manufacture or importer to ascertain the sale transfer of a firearm.

National Tracing Center (NTC)

290 Skidmarks are another characteristic that one might notice when examining a bullet. If skidmarks exist, the bullet was likely fired from a _________. Skidmarks occur when grooves are wider at the nose of the bullet then at the base

revolver

288 Gunshot wounds can be classified based on range of from the muzzle of a gun to the target. These classifications include:

contact, near-contact, intermediate, and distant wounds.

291 One issue of critical Importance in investigating gunshot wounds is the determination of whether or not the victim was murdered or died from suicide. The presence or absence of powder burns not only helps in making this determination, but also helps investigator decide the _________ between the victim and the firearm.

distance

294 __________ typically have soot on the outside of the skin and muzzle imprint or laceration of the skin from effects of gases.

CONTACT WOUNDS

294 ________________ may show a wide zone of powder stippling, but lack a muzzle imprint and laceration. The area of powder stippling will depend upon the distance from the muzzle to the skin.

Intermediate, or Close range, wounds

294 _______________ are lacking powder Stippling and usually exhibit a hole roughly the caliber of the projectile fired.

Distant range wounds

290 If the bullet or projectile has elongated grooves with deep incisions, it was likely fired from a weapon ________ in size.

Smaller

Page 276 Geographically most of the nations murders were reported in the: A) SOUTHERN STATES B) MIDWEST STATES C) WESTERN STATES D) NORTHEAST STATES

A) SOUTHERN STATES 43.8% WESTERN STATES 20.6% MIDWEST STATES 19.9% NORTHEAST STATES 15.6%

276 Most victim's of murder are committed by __________ A) husband B) wife C) acquaintance D) boyfriend

B) Acquaintance. 2,723 Followed by Husband killing wife 603 Boyfriend killing girlfriend 492 "Friend killing friend" 396 ``` Just to note: More fathers (135) were killed than husbands (110) More sons (256) than killed than daughters (197) ```

277 ____________ is considered the most serious of all statutory crimes and is defined as the purposeful, premeditated, unlawful taking of the life of a human being by another person.

Murder

276 __________ is One person intentionally causing another person to die. Many different situations can result in a person's death. These include:

Murder * wounds from handguns and shotguns * cutting or stabbing wounds * blunt-force injuries * extra ordinary modes of death such as poisoning and death by ASPHYXIA (strangulation)

277 _______________ is considered the most serious and includes, as one of the elements, premeditation and preplanning. _________________ is a lesser offense but requires that the person "attempted" to kill his or her intended victim (e.g., A domestic argument that erupts into a physical altercation resulting in the death of one of the parties.)

First-degree murder Second-degree murder

40 ____________this is extremely important category because in many cases, the *METHOD OF OPERATION* is a clue in determining the suspect.

Modus operandi

39 ________________ this category of DATA includes the time and manner in which the complaint was received; identification of the location, time, and nature of the crime, and full identification of the victim.

Preliminary information

39 The following items are considered as essential information: ____________ This grouping refers to information provided by victims, witnesses, 0r other persons at the crime scene.

Witnesses

40 In forming questions for taking reports, the criminal investigator is much like a newspaper reporter. The investigator needs to know the answers to the questions: who, what, when, where, and how. More specifically, The following items are considered as essential information:

* Preliminary information * Witnesses * Physical evidence: The search for a discovery of evidentiary items must be included in the officer's records * Modus operandi ~~~~*note NO Why---?*~~~~

Investigation Book 2014 Test Flashcards

(369 cards)