IPC oral review questions

Question 1

What is the maximum holding speed below FL140?

Answer 1

230 KIAS

Question 2

What is the maximum holding speed between FL140 and FL200?

Answer 2

240 KIAS

Question 3

What is the maximum holding speed above FL200?

Answer 3

265 KIAS

Question 4

What is the circling area (PANS-OPS) for Cat C aircraft?

Answer 4

4.2 NM

Question 5

What is the circling area (TERPS) for Cat C aircraft?

Answer 5

1.7 NM

Question 6

What is the approach speed (Vat) for a Cat C aircraft?

Answer 6

121 - 140 KIAS

Question 7

What are the requirements for a visual approach by day?

Answer 7

1. Within 30 NM of dest,
2. Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water,
3. Min vis 5000m,
4. Able to maintain visual flight within the circliing area

Question 8

What are the requirements for a visual approach by night?

Answer 8

1. Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water,
2. > 5000m viz, within the circling area or within 5 NM (7 NM for ILS) when aligned with the runway centreline and established on PAPI or T-VASI, or within 10 NM of the aerodrome but not below the ILS glidepath

Question 9

When can a pilot descend below MDA on a circling approach?

Answer 9

1. When maintaining the aircraft within the circling area,
2. Maintains viz not less than min specified on the chart for the procedure,
3. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment, 4. Can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using normal flight manoeuvres and rates of descent

Question 10

When can an aircraft descent below the LSALT or MSA for a route segment?

Answer 10

When over the IAF or facility except when complying with the requirements for a visual approach, when conforming to a published DME or GPS arrival proc, or when assigned to an altitude by ATC

Question 11

What is the max speed for visual circling for a Cat C aircraft?

Answer 11

180 KIAS

Question 12

What is the sector 1 holding entry procedure?

Answer 12

Parallel

Question 13

What is the sector 2 holding entry procedure?

Answer 13

Offset

Question 14

What is the sector 3 holding entry procedure?

Answer 14

Direct

Question 15

When is a takeoff alternate required?

Answer 15

When conditions preclude return to the departure aerodrome

Question 16

What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate (distance)?

Answer 16

One hour still air flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM

Question 17

When is a destination alternate not required?

Answer 17

1. Flight duration

Question 18

What weather conditions are required for nomination of an airport as a takeoff alternate?

Answer 18

Met reports/forecasts indicate from 1hr prior to 1hr after ETA weather will be at or above the applicable landing minima for the approach most likely to be flown, if only NPA or circling the ceiling shall be taken into account

Question 19

What is the planning minima for a takeoff alternate?

Answer 19

ILS Cat I - Planning Cat 1 with RVR/Vis, NPA - NPA viz and ceiling, Circling - circling viz and ceiling

Question 20

What conditions shall not be present to not require an alternate?

Answer 20

PROB of TS or associated conditions (hail, lightning) for 1hr before or after ETA

Question 21

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate?

Answer 21

ILS Cat I - NPA viz and ceiling, NPA - NPA plus 200’ and 1000m viz and ceiling, Circling - Circling minima viz and ceiling

Question 22

What must be identifiable to the pilot to descent below DA(H) or MDA(H)?

Answer 22

1. Elements of the approach lighting system,
2. The threshold or its markings, lights or identifiacation lights,
3. The visual glideslope indicator, 4. The touchdown zone, zone markings or lights,
4. The runway edge lights or
5. Other visual references accepted by the authority

Question 23

What are the IFR recency requirements?

Answer 23

3 instrument approaches within the preceding 90 days in the aircraft or an approved flight training device. 1 approach each of 2D, 3D, azimuth and CDI

Question 24

What probability is required to remain RNP compliant with an RNAV route segment?

Answer 24

95%

Question 25

What navigation equipment is required to enter RNP 4 and RNP 10 airspace?

Answer 25

Two independent long range navigation systems, for RNP 4 one GPS, RNP 4 in oceanic airspace CPDLC and ADS-C

Question 26

Required fuel includes?

Answer 26

Taxi fuel, trip fuel, alternate fuel, fixed reserve fuel, contingency fuel (10%), holding fuel, additional fuel (if required)

Question 27

Fixed reserve fuel includes?

Answer 27

Fuel required to hold for 30 mins at 1500' above aerodrome elevation in ISA at the estimated landing weight on arrival at the destination or alternate

Question 28

Alternate fuel includes?

Answer 28

A go-around from MDA/DH at destination, climb from the missed approach procedure, cruise, descent, approach and landing at alternate

Question 29

Contingency fuel includes?

Answer 29

10% of trip fuel plus 10% of alternate fuel

Question 30

When is holding fuel required?

Answer 30

If forecast weather at the destination or ATC traffic requirements dictate.

Question 31

What fuel consumption rate is required for calculating holding fuel?

Answer 31

That applicable to holding at FL200 at the appropriate weight

Question 32

When is additional fuel required?

Answer 32

Where trip fuel does not provide sufficient fuel in the event of depressurisation or engine failure at the most critical point

Question 33

When may extra fuel be carried?

Answer 33

At the discretion of the PIC

Question 34

When planning to an isolated aerodrome, what additional fuel is required?

Answer 34

Fuel to fly for a minimum of two hours after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome including final reserve

Question 35

When passenger weight is given verbally, what is the minimum specific constant to be added?

Answer 35

4 kgs for clothing and 6 kgs for hand baggage

Question 36

What is the maximum allowed change in the number of passengers or baggage for a Last Minute Change?

Answer 36

2 passengers and 100 kgs of baggage/cargo

Question 37

What information is to be retained on the ground during flight?

Answer 37

1. Copy of the OFP, 2. Passenger manifest, 3. Load sheet, 4. Special load notification if applicable, 5. PRA

Question 38

What actions should be taken if communications are lost while VMC?

Answer 38

Squawk 7600, remain VMC, land at nearest suitable aerodrome

Question 39

What actions should be taken if communications are lost in IMC with no clearance limit?

Answer 39

Squawk 7600, proceed in accordance with last clearance and climb to planned level, transmit blind

Question 40

What action should be taken if communications are lost in IMC with a clearance limit involving an altitude or route restriction?

Answer 40

1. Squawk 7600, 2. Maintain last assigned altitude or MSA if higher for 3 mins, 3. Hold at the nominated location for 3 mins, 4. Proceed in accordance with the ATC route clearance and climb to planned level

Question 41

What action should be taken if communications are lost while under ATS surveillance (including vectoring)?

Answer 41

Squawk 7600, climb to MSA/LSALT, maintain last assigned vector for 2 mins or one more holding pattern, proceed in accordance with the ATC route clearance and climb to planned level

Question 42

What action should be taken when arriving at the destination following communication failure?

Answer 42

Commence descent in accordance with ATS flight plan, descent to the initial approach altitude for the most suitable approach aid, carry out the approach to the circling minima, if visual circle to land

Question 43

What action should be taken if not visual during approach to land with communication failure?

Answer 43

Depart for a suitable alternate unless in receipt of aerodrome information indicating a runway and approach are available, descend to approach minima, land if visual or depart for a suitable alternate