IRF Knowledge Test Flashcards
1
Q
What is a way point when used for IFR flight?
A
A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
2
Q
What is TAS?
A
True airspeed is Calibrated Airspeed corrected for altitude and non-standard temperature. Because air density decreases with an increase in altitude, an aircraft has to be flown faster at higher altitudes to cause the same pressure difference between pitot impact pressure and static pressure. Therefore, for a given CAS, TAS increases as altitude increases; or for a given TAS, CAS decreases as altitude increases.
3
Q
Why is it important to have the correct altimeter setting?
A
It allows the altimeter to read true altitude at field elevation
4
Q
The miniature airplane on the turn coordinator will indicate
A
Rate of roll and rate of turn
5
Q
During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180 degree steep turn to the right?
A
The mini aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
6
Q
A jet stream is defined as a wind of
A
50 knots or greater
7
Q
Under which condition does advection fog usually form?
A
Moist air moving over colder ground or water
8
Q
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
A
With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport
9
Q
Under what meteorological condition does the pilot have to assume the existence of wind shear?
A
Either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere
10
Q
Frontal waves normally form on
A
slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
11
Q
What are the four families of clouds?
A
High, middle, low and those with extensive vertical development
12
Q
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
A
Ice pellets
13
Q
The presence of wet snow at your flight altitude indicates the freezing level is
A
above you
14
Q
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
A
ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light
15
Q
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
A
Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
16
Q
A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?
A
PIREP’s, AIRMET’s and SIGMET’s
17
Q
What was the location of the aircraft at the time of this PIREP?
UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA -04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.
A
64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR
18
Q
What is the meaning of a bracket(]) plotted to the right of the station circle on a weather depiction chart?
A
The station is an automated observation location
19
Q
What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
A
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms
20
Q
What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 mili-bar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?
A
Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dew point spread along the proposed route can be approximated.
21
Q
What weather conditions are predicted within an area whose coverage is identified as ISOL?
A
less than 4/8th coverage of cumulonimbus clouds
-Isolated CBs can only be depicted when they are embedded (EMBD) in clouds or concealed by haze.
22
Q
What weather conditions are predicted within an area whose coverage is identified as OCNL?
A
4/8 to 6/8 coverage of cumulonimbus clouds
-can be depicted with or without embedded EMBD
23
Q
What weather conditions are predicted within an area whose coverage is identified as FRQ?
A
more than 6/8 coverage of cumulonimbus clouds
24
Q
What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
A
It defines areas of slight, moderate, and high risk of severe and general thunderstorm activity
25
While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?
4 degrees between the two indicated bearings to a VOR
26
What distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM
27
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
High altitudes close to the VORTAC
28
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
29
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
1
30
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
in lieu of the OM
31
How should a pilot determine when the DME at an airport is inoperative?
The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
32
What is the difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?
The SDF course width is either 6 or 12 degrees while the LDA course width is approximately 5 degrees.
33
What is the difference between a Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?
The LDA is not aligned with the runway.
34
How wide is an SDF course?
Either 6 or 12 degrees
35
Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?
Middle compass locator
36
Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal?
Compass locator
37
What substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.
38
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
200 feet
39
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage
40
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace. What response is required?
No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
41
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."?
Climbs may be made to, or descents from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion
42
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.
43
When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on
a) magnetic course
b) magnetic heading
c) true course
Magnetic course
44
A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC
45
What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.
46
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Fixes selected to define the route.
47
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
When advised by the tower
48
When not in radar contact, you should always report
departing the FAF inbound
49
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC
50
Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is
18,000 feet MSL
51
ATC instructs you to hold at 6,000 feet. What is the maximum indicated airspeed you may use?
200 knots
52
(Refer to figure 78) When flying from Billings (BIL) on V611, what does the '*6000' indicate?
Minimum altitude which provides reception within 25 SM of the BIL VORTAC and obstacle clearance along the entire route segment.
53
What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance?
Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
54
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
55
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
56
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
50 feet
57
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check
58
In the event of a two-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue
the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical
59
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb
60
The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon
the horizontal lift component
61
While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of
climbing or descending
62
How can you obtain pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.
63
If the OAT increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
increase and true altitude will increase.
64
Why is it important to have the correct altimeter setting? it allows the altimeter to read
true altitude at field elevation.
65
What information does a Mach meter present?
The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.
66
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
67
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
68
In straight and level instrument flight using primary-secondary instrument scanning technique, which instrument is primary for pitch?
Altimeter
69
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Attitude indicator
70
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
Airspeed indicator
71
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
72
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
altimeter and airspeed stabilize
73
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?
Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the pitch attitude
74
As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one-half mile deviation from the desired arc?
10 to 20 degrees
75
What is the max holding airspeed at MSL altitudes of 6001 - 14,000?
230
76
What is the max holding airspeed at MSL altitudes of 14001 and above?
265
77
If only one missed approach procedure is available, which condition is required when conducting 'timed approaches from a holding fix"?
The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP
78
Which of the following conditions is required before 'timed approaches from a holding fix' may be conducted?
If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal.
79
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
80
Prior to conducting 'timed approaches from a holding fix,' what condition is reqired?
The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.
81
When making a 'timed approach' from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the
holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time.
82
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
83
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
on tower frequency
84
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
85
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
at airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published
86
During a 'no-gyro' approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns
standard rate unless otherwise advised
87
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a 'no-gyro' surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns
one half standard rate
88
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
When the pilot requests it.
89
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
90
While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92' Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
25,000 feet
91
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?
ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting
92
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
93
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
May cause hard to recognize symptoms
94
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal
95
Departure control has instructed you to "resume own navigation" after being vectored to a victor airway. You should
maintain the victor airway by use of your own navigation equipment
96
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of
SIGMETS, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETS, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW) and Center Weather Advisories (CWA)
97
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath
98
To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
entering controlled airspace that includes Class A airspace
99
The PIC should ensure that the pressure altitude reporting system has been inspected to comply with 14 CFR Part 43 within the last
24 calendar months before operating on an IFR flight in controlled airspace
100
What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5 degrees C OAT?
Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots
101
During IFR en route operations, using an approved TSO-CI29 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation,
the aircraft must have an approved alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
102
What are the oxygen requirements for crew and passengers
>12,500 - 14,000 - crew over 30 mins;
>14,000 - 15,000 - crew entire flight; and
>15,000 - each occupant provided
No person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry
(1) at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
(2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
(3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen
103
While on an IFR clearance, ATC tells you, "radar contact". This means
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
104
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you to, "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." This phrase means that
Resume operations as filed and cleared.
105
You need to know the runway closures, runway lighting and snow conditions. What sources do you use?
Distant (D) NOTAMS
106
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box.
107
What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight in minimums?
Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change.
108
When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?
Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.
109
While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?
Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
110
Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?
PITCH ATTITUDE decreases;
REQUIRED THRUST Increased, then reduced;
VERTICAL SPEED Increases;
IAS decreases, then increases to approach speed.
111
While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?
Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
112
How can a pilot determine if a GPS installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?
Flight manual supplement
113
What practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
114
What indications should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
115
What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower-than-actual altitude?
Air temperature warmer than standard
116
Cloud, fog, or dew will always form when
water vapor condenses
117
A hazardous situation can occur when true altitude is lower than indicated altitude. This can occur when your altimeter is set to 29.92"
in colder than standard temperature
118
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as
Coriolis illusion
119
Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by
reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and, if in a turn, rolling wings level.
120
On initial climbout after takeoff, with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation it is recommended that
the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged
121
During a WAAS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. You should
descend to LNAV approach minimums using the barometric altimeter to comply with altitude restrictions, referencing advisory vertical guidance as an aid.
122
Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?
Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector than the wings.
123
What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope (dry adiabatic lapse rate)?
3 degrees C
124
Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?
a) leading edge of the wing
b) windshield
c) pitot tube
Pitot tube
125
Prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot must verify the validity of the database. One method of doing this is to
determine that the waypoints are generally logical and in the correct order as per the procedure chart.
126
The Glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between
Decision Altitude and the Runway Threshhold
127
While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?
The approach mode annunciation will disengage.
128
Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will (increase/decrease) as the airspeed or temperature (increases/decreases).
increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases
129
Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?
Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing.
130
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display?
The indicator first shows the rate of banking and once stabilized, the turn rate.
131
Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?
On the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy.
132
What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly without using supplemental oxygen over 30 minutes?
a) 15,000 feet
b) 14,000 feet
c) 12,500 feet
12,500 feet
133
Winds at 2,000 feet compared to winds at the surface are
higher and go at right angles to the isobars as compared to the winds at the surface due to friction
134
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to low level temperature inversions?
Allow airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed.
135
Frost adhering to the wing will
decrease the margin of airspeed above stall.
136
When the marker beacon shows a blue light with tones of all dashes on ILS approach, this indicates you are
near glide slope intercept.
137
In an aircraft equipped with electronic instrumentation and displays, you have three important learning challenges;
how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft.
138
You are at a towered airport. You should state your position on the airport when
departing (taking off) from a runway intersection
139
What is the purpose of an off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) along a designated route?
For emergencies and situational awareness
140
If while on an instrument approach, approach control advises you of inoperative equipment, you must
increase minimums to that of the inoperative equipment.
141
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause the illusion of
turning or accelerating on a different axis
142
In the event of an Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) failure, what becomes your primary pitch instrument?
PFD altimeter
143
The general characteristic of the troposphere is
an overall decrease in temperature with an increase in altitude
144
What weather would you expect when moist, cool air blows over a warm land mass?
Thunderstorms
145
Flight at MOCA gives
acceptable navigational signal coverage within 25SM on off-airway routes.
MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE - The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.
146
You have 3 instrument approaches (including holding, intercepting and tracking courses) and 2 hours in a simulator in the last 2 months. What additional experience do you need to be current?
3 approaches in actual or simulated IFR in an airplane of the same category and class
147
When are Convective SIGMENTS issued and how long are they valid for?
Convective SIGMETS are issued on a scheduled basis, hourly at 55 minutes past the hour and are valid for two (2) hours or until superseded by the next hourly issuance.
148
What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)?
GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight.
149
Even a small amount of accumulated ice is hazardous because it
increases weight and adversely impacts lift.
150
One visual indication of conditions favorable to supercooled large droplet icing is
droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5 degrees C.
151
What action should be taken if you encounter an in-flight anomaly with an installed GPS during enroute navigation?
Inform ATC immediately
152
ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are at 21,000 feet MSL. How should you report it?
level at two one zero
153
Immediate changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications are disseminated by
FDC NOTAMS
154
ATC has cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which roll correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn?
Increase angle of bank
155
The altitude restriction in your IFR clearance is to "CRUISE 7,000 FEET." There is a 5,000 foot MEA on your filed airway. What altitude may you use?
Any intermediate altitude within this block of airspace.
156
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane wing?
Decreased angle of attack for stalls
157
"Cessna 733WS, cleared for takeoff Rwy 04 (magnetic heading 044 degrees), fly runway heading, winds 090 at 15 gust 25." You should
fly magnetic heading 044 degrees with no wind correction.
158
ATC clears you to descend, but does not include "at pilot's discretion." You should descend at what speed?
at an optimum rate for the aircraft
159
At a constant indicated altitude and constant power, the outside air temperature becomes warmer than standard. The true airspeed will
increase
160
If you are being radar vectored and cleared to fly an instrument approach, you should be aware that terrain and obstacle clearance depends upon
maintaining the last altitude assigned by ATC until the aircraft is established on a published segment.
161
Structural icing will most likely form on the
tail
162
What would the temperature be a t 8,000 feet MSL under standard conditions?
-1 degrees C
163
While flying an RNAV GPS approach, the published vertical descent angle can be used to
establish a stabilized descent from the FAF or stepdown fix to the MDA
164
You encounter freezing drizzle at your flight altitude. This is an indication that
warmer air is above you
165
Low altitude charts depict
the limits of controlled airspace
166
In order to guarantee navigational signal reception, what is the maximum distance between two VOR facilities when your enroute altitude is 7,000 feet?
80 NM
167
ATC directs you to resume own navigation after completing a no-gyro surveillance or precision based approach. All turns should be
standard rate
168
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
Place, amount of bearing error, date and signature.
169
What conditions allow a pilot exercising the privileges of BasicMed to act as PIC under instrument flight rules (IFR)?
When the PIC is instrument rated and current
170
Once established in a turn, the miniature airplane on the turn coordinator indicates
rate of turn
171
You cross a VOR, and 7 minutes later you notice that you still have a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. You should
turn right to reintercept the course
172
Which instrument serves as a primary backup in case your airspeed indicator fails?
Tachometer
173
A pilot intends to act as PIC on an instrument flight on July 10th of this year. That pilot must have performed and logged
a) the required instrument currency tasks between December 10th of last year and the date of the flight
b) the required instrument currency tasks between January 01 this year and the date of the flight
c) an instrument proficiency check and flight review within the previous 24 calendar months
b) the required instrument currency tasks between January 01 this year and the date of the flight
