IS Flashcards by MS ICA

Killer immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR) system. KIRs are one of several types of cell surface molecules that regulate the activity of NK lymphocytes. Alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.

Noted, these alloreactive NK cells have been shown to mediate a graft-versus-leukemia (GVL) reaction and prevent relapse after transplantation for certain types of hematologic malignancies.

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Serologic HLA testing uses a form of complement- dependent microlymphocytotoxicity (CDC) performed in 60-well or 72-well microtiter trays. Trays are usually read on:

Brightfield microscopes
Darkfield microscopes
Polarizing microscopes
Inverted phase contrast microscopes

Inverted phase contrast microscopes

Trays are usually read on inverted phase contrast microscopes. In the properly adjusted phase, cells that have not been injured appear small, bright, and refractile. Injured cells that have taken up eosin-Y or trypan blue owing to antibody and complement-mediated damage will flatten and appear large, dark, and nonrefractile.

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In the production of hybridoma, plasma cells are harvested from:

Rabbit kidney
Rabbit spleen
Mouse liver
Mouse spleen

Mouse spleen

The production of hybridomas begins by immunizing a mouse with a certain antigen. After a time, the mouse’s spleen cells are harvested. Spleen cells are combined with myeloma cells in the presence of polyethylene glycol (PEG), a surfactant. The PEG brings about fusion of plasma cells with myeloma cells, producing a hybridoma.

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In fluorescent antinuclear antibody testing, _______ or human epithelial HEp-2 cells are fixed to a slide and allowed to react with patient serum.

Rabbit kidney
Rabbit spleen
Mouse kidney
Mouse spleen

Mouse kidney

In fluorescent antinuclear antibody (FANA) testing, mouse kidney or human epithelial HEp-2 cells are fixed to a slide and allowed to react with patient serum.

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Which receptor on T cells is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells?

CD2
CD3
CD4
CD8

CD2

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Carrier particles to which antigens are attached in Streptozyme testing:

Bentonite
Charcoal
Horse RBCs
Sheep RBCs

Bentonite

The Streptozyme test is a slide agglutination screening test for the detection of antibodies to several streptococcal antigens. Sheep red blood cells are coated with streptolysin, streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and NADase so that antibodies to any of the streptococcal antigens can be detected.

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Marginal B cells remain in the:

Bone marrow
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Peyer’s patches

Spleen

In the spleen, immature B cells develop into mature cells known as marginal zone B cells. These B cells remain in the spleen in order to respond quickly to any blood-borne pathogens they may come into contact with.

Other immature B cells become follicular B cells, which are found in lymph nodes and other secondary organs.

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Primary antibody found in Helicobacter pylori infection:

IgA
IgD
IgG
IgM

IgG

Most serological tests in clinical use detect H. pylori–specific antibodies of the IgG class. Although IgM antibody is produced in H. pylori infections, testing for its presence lacks clinical value, since most infections have become chronic before diagnosis. Thus, IgG is the primary antibody found.

IgA testing has a lower sensitivity and specificity than IgG testing, but it may increase sensitivity of detection when used in conjunction with IgG testing.

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Mantoux tuberculin test:

Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Type II hypersensitivity reaction
Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

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The process by which cells are capable of moving from the circulating blood to the tissues by squeezing through the wall of a blood vessel:

Chemotaxis
Diapedesis
Endosmosis
Phagocytosis

Diapedesis

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The migration of cells in the direction of a chemical messenger:

Chemotaxis
Diapedesis
Endosmosis
Phagocytosis

Chemotaxis

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In plasma, it is associated with HDL cholesterol, and it is thought to play a role in metabolism of cholesterol:

Alpha1-antitrypsin
Fibrinogen
Mannose-binding lectin
Serum amyloid A

Serum amyloid A

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Serum amyloid A has been found to increase significantly more in

Bacterial infections
Fungal infections
Parasitic infections
Viral infections

Bacterial infections

SERUM AMYLOID A
It has been found to increase significantly more in bacterial infections than in viral infections.

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Cells that express CD56 and/or CD16:

B cells
T cells
NK cells
All of the above

NK cells

Two subsets of NK cells exist—those that have a high level of CD56 and low or no CD16, and those with some CD56 and high levels of CD16.

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For serum VDRL, the slide is rotated at:

100 rpm for 4 minutes
100 rpm for 8 minutes
180 rpm for 4 minutes
180 rpm for 6 minutes

180 rpm for 4 minutes

SERUM VDRL
The slide is rotated for 4 minutes on a rotator at 180 rpm. It is read microscopically to determine the presence of flocculation, or small clumps. The results are recorded as reactive (medium to large clumps), weakly reactive (small clumps), or nonreactive (no clumps or slight roughness).

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For RPR, the card is rotated at:

100 rpm for 4 minutes
100 rpm for 8 minutes
180 rpm for 4 minutes
180 rpm for 8 minutes

100 rpm for 8 minutes

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Most heat-labile of all immunoglobulins:

IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM

IgE

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IgE has the ability to activate:

B cells
B cells and T cells
Basophils and mast cells
Eosinophils and neutrophils

Basophils and mast cells

IgE is best known for its very low concentration in serum and the fact that it has the ability to activate mast cells and basophils.

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IgE recruits _____________ to the area to help destroy invading antigens that have penetrated IgA defenses:

B cells
B cells and T cells
Basophils and mast cells
Eosinophils and neutrophils

Eosinophils and neutrophils

IgE appears to be a nuisance antibody; however, it may serve a protective role by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that recruits neutrophils and eosinophils to the area to help destroy invading antigens that have penetrated IgA defenses.

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The classical complement pathway is activated by:

Most viruses
Antigen–antibody complexes
Fungal cell walls
All of the above

Antigen–antibody complexes

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Triggering substances for the alternative pathway:

Antigen-antibody complex
Bacterial cell walls, especially those containing lipopolysaccharide; fungal cell walls; yeast; viruses; virally infected cells; tumor cell lines; and some parasites, especially trypanosomes
Microorganisms with mannose or similar sugars in their cell wall
All of the above

Bacterial cell walls, especially those containing lipopolysaccharide; fungal cell walls; yeast; viruses; virally infected cells; tumor cell lines; and some parasites, especially trypanosomes

Triggering substances for the alternative pathway include bacterial cell walls, especially those containing lipopolysaccharide; fungal cell walls; yeast; viruses; virally infected cells; tumor cell lines; and some parasites, especially trypanosomes. All of these can serve as sites for binding the complex C3bBb, one of the end products of this pathway.

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Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?

C3b
C1rs
C1q
C4

C1q

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An antigen that triggers a type I hypersensitivity response:

Hapten
Histamine
Allergen
Oncogene

Allergen

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Cytokines produced by T cells and other cell lines that inhibit viral synthesis or act as immune regulators:

Integrins
Interferons
Complement
Antibodies

Interferons

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Decreased maternal alpha fetoprotein levels are associated with: Anencephaly Down syndrome Twins or multiple pregnancies Spina bifida

Down syndrome Causes of increased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels? 1. Open neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly can typically increase MSAFP by double or more. 2. Twins or multiple pregnancies can also increase the result. Cause of decreased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels: Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18) can cause as much as a 25% decrease in MSAFP.

Positive rheumatoid factor is generally associated with: Anemia Azotemia Decreased ESR Hyperglobulinemia

Hyperglobulinemia Hypergammaglobulinemia such as polyclonal increase is associated with autoimmune disorders. Hypergammaglobulinemia such as monoclonal increase is associated with such disease states as multiple myeloma, lymphomas, etc.

Skin pH keeps most microorganisms from growing: 5.6 6.5 7.2 8.0

5.6 Skin at a pH of approximately 5.6 This acidic pH keeps most microorganisms from growing.

Antigen in the RPR test: Anti-cardiolipin Cardiolipin Charcoal Reagin

Cardiolipin

Microscope used for the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for diagnosis of malaria: Darkfield microscope Fluorescent microscope Phase contrast microscope Polarizing microscope

Fluorescent microscope

Color of the AHG reagent: Red Yellow Blue Green

Green

Anticoagulant for the direct AHG test (DAT): ACD EDTA Heparin Oxalate

EDTA

Present in 70% of patients with lupus and are highly specific for the disease: Anti-DNP Anti-RNP Anti-dsDNA Anti-CCP

Anti-dsDNA Antibodies to dsDNA are present in 70% of patients with lupus and are highly specific for the disease.

T in TORCH or STORCH stands for: Trichinellosis Trichuriasis Toxoplasmosis None of the above

Toxoplasmosis

In the chain of infection, a contaminated work area would serve as which of the following: Source Method of transmission Host All of the above

Source

In the process of phagocytosis, formation of hypochlorite and hydroxyl ions damage _______ irreversibly. DNA RNA Carbohydrates Proteins

Proteins Formation of hypochlorite and hydroxyl ions damage PROTEINS irreversibly.

Which tumor marker is used to monitor patients with breast cancer for recurrence of disease? CA 15-3 Estrogen receptor (ER) Cathepsin-D CA 50

CA 15-3

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) include: Abs to DNA Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens and abs to histone Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens, abs to histone and abs to nonhistone proteins

Abs to DNA, abs to nucleolar antigens, abs to histone and abs to nonhistone proteins ANAs can be divided into four groups to provide a systematic classification: antibodies to DNA, antibodies to histone, antibodies to nonhistone proteins, and antibodies to nucleolar antigens.

All are components of the second line of defense, except: Macrophages Mast cells Neutrophils B cells

B cells SECOND LINE OF DEFENSE: Cellular 1. Mast cells 2. Neutrophils 3. Macrophages Humoral 1. Complement 2. Lysozyme 3. Interferon

A vacuole formed within a phagocytic cell as pseudopodia surround a particle during the process of phagocytosis: Neutrophil Monocyte Phagosome Phagolysosome

Phagosome

The structure formed by the fusion of cytoplasmic granules and the phagocytic vacuole during the process of phagocytosis: Neutrophil Monocyte Phagosome Phagolysosome

Phagolysosome

It has been used to treat hepatitis C and Kaposi’s sarcoma, as well as certain leukemias and lymphomas: TGF-alpha TGF-beta IFN-alpha IFN-beta

IFN-alpha IFN-α has been used to treat hepatitis C and Kaposi’s sarcoma, as well as certain leukemias and lymphomas.

Efficacious in treating multiple sclerosis, although the exact mechanism of action remains unclear: TGF-alpha TGF-beta IFN-alpha IFN-beta

IFN-beta IFN-β is efficacious in treating multiple sclerosis, although the exact mechanism of action remains unclear.

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ______ Todd units in an adult: 160 200 240 320

240 A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least 240 Todd units in an adult and 320 Todd units in a child.

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ______ Todd units in a child. 160 200 240 320

320 A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least 240 Todd units in an adult and 320 Todd units in a child.

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of ______ species in serum samples. Bordetella Mycobacterium Candida Cryptococcus

Candida Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of Candida species in serum samples.

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection? gp120 gp160 gp41 p24

p24

Most sensitive and reliable; reference method for VZV antibody: Latex agglutination ELISA FAMA PCR

FAMA The most sensitive and reliable method of detecting VZV antibody is a fluorescent test called FAMA (fluorescent antibody to membrane antigen) that detects antibody to the envelope glycoproteins of the virus. While FAMA is considered to be the reference method for VZV antibody, it requires live, virus-infected cells and is not suitable for large-scale routine testing.

The most commonly used method to detect VZV antibodies in the clinical laboratory: Latex agglutination ELISA FAMA PCR

ELISA The most commonly used method to detect VZV antibodies in the clinical laboratory is the ELISA because it is automated, provides objective results, and does not require viral culture.

Most common cause of congenital infections: Cytomegalovirus Rubella Syphilis Toxoplasmosis

Cytomegalovirus CMV is also the most common cause of congenital infections, occurring in approximately 1 percent of all neonates.

Method of choice for diagnosis of congenital toxoplasmosis: EIA IFA FAMA PCR

EIA Enzyme immunoassays (EIA) for IgM, IgG, or IgA and indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) assays for IgG are available and should be performed when congenital toxoplasmosis is suspected. IFA testing has been widely used, but EIA is the method of choice, as it is more sensitive, less difficult to perform, and easier to interpret.

Prenatal congenital toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by performing ______ on amniotic fluid to detect T. gondii DNA. EIA IFA FAMA PCR

PCR Prenatal congenital toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by performing polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology on amniotic fluid to detect T. gondii DNA.

Method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in CSF: EIA IFA FAMA PCR

PCR Currently, there are no useful serological procedures for diagnosing CNS infection in immunocompromised patients. These individuals often do not produce detectable levels of specific antibody against the parasite, and procedures to detect circulating antigen appear to lack sensitivity. PCR is, therefore, the method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in CSF.

The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon? Innate immunity Adaptive immunity Humoral immunity Specific immunity

Innate immunity

Which of the following statements is true of NK cells? They rely upon memory for antigen recognition. They have the same CD groups as B cells. They are found mainly in lymph nodes. They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.

They kill target cells without prior exposure to them.

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue? Neutrophil Dendritic cell Eosinophil Basophil

Dendritic cell

A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 μm, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n): Eosinophil Monocyte Basophil Neutrophil

Neutrophil

Where do lymphocytes mainly come in contact with antigens? Secondary lymphoid organs Bloodstream Bone marrow Thymus

Secondary lymphoid organs

Which of the following statements best characterizes adaptive immunity? Relies on normally present body functions Response is similar for each exposure Specificity for each individual pathogen Involves only cellular immunity

Specificity for each individual pathogen

The main function of T cells in the immune response is to: Produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity Produce antibodies Participate actively in phagocytosis Respond to target cells without prior exposure

Produce cytokines that regulate both innate and adaptive immunity

Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to certain standard cell lines best describes: Cytokines Clusters of differentiation (CD) Neutrophilic granules Opsonins

Clusters of differentiation (CD)

All of the following are characteristics of an effective immunogen except: Internal complexity Large molecular weight Presence of numerous epitopes Found on host cells

Found on host cells

HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class? Class I Class II Class III Class IV

Class I

Which best explains the difference between immunogens and antigens? Only antigens are large enough to be recognized by T cells Only immunogens can react with antibody Only immunogens can trigger an immune response Only antigens are recognized as foreign.

Only immunogens can trigger an immune response

The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is Opsonization Agglutination Solubilization Chemotaxis

Opsonization

How do cytotoxic T cells kill target cells? They produce antibodies that bind to the cell. They engulf the cell by phagocytosis. They stop protein synthesis in the target cell. They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.

They produce granzymes that stimulate apoptosis.

Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell? μ chains in the cytoplasm Complete IgM on the surface Presence of CD21 antigen Presence of CD25 antigen

μ chains in the cytoplasm

Where does the major portion of antibody production occur? Peripheral blood Bone marrow Thymus Lymph node

Lymph node

A cell flow cytometry pattern belonging to a 3-year old patient showed the following: normal CD4+ T-cell count, normal CD19+ B-cell count, low CD8+ T-cell count. Which type of immunity would be affected? Production of antibody Formation of plasma cells Elimination of virally infected cells Downregulation of the immune response

Elimination of virally infected cells

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity? Ability to fight infection Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen A similar response to all pathogens encountered Process of phagocytosis to destroy a pathogen

Ability to remember a prior exposure to a pathogen

Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities: Edward Jenner Ellie Metchnikoff Emil von Behring Susumu Tonegawa

Susumu Tonegawa

Which of the following is characteristic of variable domains of immunoglobulins? They occur on both the H and L chains They represent the complement-binding site They are at the carboxy-terminal ends of the molecules They are found only on H chains

They occur on both the H and L chains

Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces? IgA IgD IgG IgM

IgA

The subclasses of IgG differ mainly in: Type of light chain Arrangement of disulfide bonds Ability to act as opsonin Molecular weight

Arrangement of disulfide bonds

Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation? IgA IgG IgD IgM

IgM

All of the following are true of IgE EXCEPT that it: Fail to fix complement Heat stable Attaches to tissue mast cells Found in the serum of allergic persons

Heat stable IgE is the most heat-labile of all immunoglobulins; heating to 56°C for between 30 minutes and 3 hours results in conformational changes and loss of ability to bind to target cells.

Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following? 2 Fab' and 1 Fc' fragment F(ab')2 and 1 Fc' fragment 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment Papain digestion yields two Fab fragments and an Fc portion. Pepsin digestion yields an F(ab’)2 fragment with all the antibody activity, as well as an Fc′ portion.

Which best characterizes the secondary response? Equal amounts of IgM and IgG are produced There is an increase in IgM only There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM The lag phase is the same as in the primary response

There is a large increase in IgG but not IgM

A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms? IL-2 TNF IL-12 IL-7

TNF Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) secreted in response to gram-negative bacterial infections, causing a decrease in blood pressure, reduced tissue perfusion, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. The latter may lead to uncontrolled bleeding.

Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient? Stimulate activity of NK cells Increase production of certain types of leukocytes Decrease the production of TNF Increase production of mast cells

Increase production of certain types of leukocytes

A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the following conditions? Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Hemolytic uremic syndrome Hereditary angioedema Increased bacterial infections

Hereditary angioedema

Which would be most effective in measuring an individual complement component? CH50 assay Radial immunodiffusion AH50 assay Lytic assay with liposome

Radial immunodiffusion The methods most frequently used to measure individual components include radial immunodiffusion (RID) and nephelometry.

Which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction? Radial immunodiffusion Ouchterlony diffusion Immunoelectrophoresis Immunofixation electrophoresis

Radial immunodiffusion

Tiny agglutinates turbid background: 0 W+ 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+

W+ 0 No agglutination or hemolysis W+ Tiny agglutinates, turbid background 1+ Small agglutinates, turbid background 2+ Medium-sized agglutinates, clear background 3+ Several large agglutinates, clear background 4+ One solid agglutinate

A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red: Negative Mixed-field Weak 1+

Mixed-field Grading Agglutination Reactions Negative No aggregates Mixed-field A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red Weak (±) Tiny aggregates barely visible macroscopically; many free erythrocytes; turbid and reddish supernatant 1+ A few small aggregates just visible macroscopically; many free erythrocytes; turbid and reddish supernatant 2+ Medium-sized aggregates; some free erythrocytes; clear supernatant 3+ Several large aggregates; some free erythrocytes; clear supernatant 4+ All erythrocytes are combined into one solid aggregate; clear supernatant

Several large aggregates; some free erythrocytes; clear supernatant: 1/1 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+

An HLA specimen is collected in a tube containing: ACD EDTA Silica Thrombin

ACD

Which technique involves probe amplification rather than target amplification? Southern blot PCR Transcription-mediated amplification Ligase chain reaction

Ligase chain reaction

Forward-angle light scatter is an indicator of cell: Granularity Density Size Number

Size Scattered light in a forward direction is a measure of cell size, whereas the side scatter determines a cell’s internal complexity, or granularity.

If an analyzer gets different results each time the same sample is tested, what type of problem does this represent? Sensitivity Specificity Accuracy Precision

Precision

It is considered the gold standard in testing for contact dermatitis: RIST RAST Tuberculin test Patch test

Patch test The patch test is considered the gold standard in testing for contact dermatitis.

Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in Graves disease? Increased TSH levels Antibody to TSH receptors Decreased T3 and T4 Antithyroglobulin antibody

Antibody to TSH receptors

A 20-year-old woman made an appointment to see her physician because she was experiencing intermittent diarrhea. Laboratory testing revealed that she also had an iron deficiency anemia. To determine if the patient has CELIAC DISEASE, her doctor should order which of the following laboratory tests? Anti-tTG Antigliadin Antigluten All of the above

Anti-tTG CELIAC DISEAS: ANTIBODIES TO TISSUE TRANSGLUTAMINASE (tTG) Currently, detection of IgA antibodies to tTG is the serological method of choice for initial testing.

Antimitochondrial antibodies are strongly associated with which disease? Autoimmune hepatitis Celiac disease Primary biliary cirrhosis Goodpasture’s syndrome

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II+ peptide complexes with the help of which accessory molecule? CD2 CD3 CD4 CD8

CD4

The only blood group system that affects clinical transplantation: ABO Rh Kell Duffy

ABO The ABO system is the only blood group system that affects clinical transplantation.

The best use of serum tumor markers is considered to be in: Screening for cancer Initial diagnosis of cancer Monitoring patients undergoing cancer treatment Determining patient prognosis

Monitoring patients undergoing cancer treatment] Tumor markers are best used to monitor patient response to therapy by performing serial measurements over time. If therapy is effective, the amount of tumor marker will decrease. Ineffective therapy and recurrence of cancer is indicated by an increase in the tumor marker level. Ideally, these increases would precede other signs of disease recurrence by several months.

A woman with breast cancer is treated with a monoclonal antibody to HER2. This is an example of: A cancer vaccine An immunotoxin Passive immunotherapy Active immunotherapy

Passive immunotherapy

What clinical manifestation would be seen in a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency? Defective T-cell function Inability to produce IgG Defective NK cell function Defective neutrophil function

Defective neutrophil function

A patient with a deficiency in complement component C7 would likely present with: Recurrent Staphylococcal infections Recurrent Neisserial infections Recurrent Escherichia coli infections Recurrent Nocardia infections

Recurrent Neisserial infections

ecurrent, periodic fevers may be associated with increased production of which immunoglobulin? IgG IgM IgD IgE

IgD Hyper IgD syndrome, also referred to as periodic fever syndrome, and Muckle-Wells syndrome. Hyper IgD is caused by a deficiency of mevalonate kinase, an enzyme involved in a sterol synthesis pathway. The syndrome has been seen primarily in northern European populations.

Characteristics of a bacterial capsule include which of the following? It cannot be used for vaccine development It is composed of peptidoglycan It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacterium against ingestion by PMNs It is what causes bacteria to stain as gram-negative

It is an important mechanism for protecting a bacterium against ingestion by PMNs One of the most important features of a capsule is its role in blocking phagocytosis by WBCs.

False-positive nontreponemal tests for syphilis may occur because of which of the following? Infectious mononucleosis Systemic lupus erythematosus Pregnancy All of these

All of these

Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection of neurosyphilis? RPR VDRL FTA-ABS Enzyme immunoassay

VDRL A positive VDRL test on spinal fluid is diagnostic of neurosyphilis because false positives are extremely rare.

An RPR test done on a 19-year-old woman as part of a prenatal workup was negative but exhibited a rough appearance. What should the technologist do next? Report the result out as negative. Do a VDRL test Send the sample for confirmatory testing. Make serial dilutions and do a titer.

Make serial dilutions and do a titer. Testing of sera from patients in the secondary stage is subject to false negatives because of the prozone phenomenon (antibody excess). In this case, a nonreactive pattern that is typically granular or rough in appearance is seen. If a prozone is suspected, serial twofold dilutions of the patient’s sera should be made to obtain a titer.

Suppose an individual develops antibodies in response to a streptococcal pharyngitis infection. This is an example of: Active immunity Passive immunity Adoptive immunity Immunoprophylaxis

Active immunity

Protection from smallpox could be generated by the transfer of pustular material from cowpox lesion instead of the more hazardous smallpox lesion: Edward Jenner Louis Pasteur Jules Bordet Robert Kaus

Edward Jenner

What was one of the major contributions of Louis Pasteur to vaccine development? Development of the smallpox vaccine Use of attenuated microorganisms in vaccines Inactivation of bacterial toxins for vaccines Discovery of recombinant vaccine antigens

Use of attenuated microorganisms in vaccines Louis Pasteur used the principle of attenuation, or weakened microorganisms, to produce vaccines against chicken cholera, anthrax, and rabies.

The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine differs from those of many of the conventional vaccines in that it consists of a: Live, attenuated virus Inactivated virus Cryptic antigen Recombinant antigen

Recombinant antigen Hepatitis A vaccine - inactivated vaccine Hepatitis B vaccine - recombinant antigen

Plays an important role in protecting the kidney from damage and in preventing the loss of iron by urinary excretion: Alpha1-antitrypsin Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobin Fibrinogen

Haptoglobin

Serves to promote aggregation of red blood cells, and increased levels contribute to an increased risk for developing coronary artery disease, especially in women: Alpha1-antitrypsin Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobin Fibrinogen

Fibrinogen

A deficiency can result in premature emphysema, especially in individuals who smoke or who are exposed to a noxious occupational environment: Alpha1-antitrypsin Ceruloplasmin Haptoglobin Fibrinogen

Alpha1-antitrypsin

Acute phase reactants elevated up to 1000x in inflammation: CRP and ceruloplasmin CRP and serum amyloid Ceruloplasmin and fibrinogen Ceruloplasmin and haptoglobin

CRP and serum amyloid

CRP is produced by the: Kidney Liver Bone marrow Thymus

Liver Produced by the liver under the control of IL-6, CRP is a parameter of inflammatory activity.

All tissue macrophages arise from: B lymphocytes Basophils Neutrophils Monocytes

Monocytes

Considered the most effective antigen-presenting cells (APCs): T cells Macrophages Neutrophils Dendritic cells

Dendritic cells Dendritic cells, however, are considered the most effective APC in the body, as well as the most potent phagocytic cell.