IS Flashcards by Armani Yulong

lk,.lkjhnm,.lkiujhgbnm,Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?
1.) B cells 3.) Dendritic cells
2.) Monocytes 4.) Macrophages

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Stages of Phagocytosis:
1.) Chemotaxis 4.) Adherence
2.) Engulfment 5.) Digestion
3.) Formation of phagosome

A. 1,2,4,3,5
B. 1,4,2,3,5
C. 1,2,3,4,5
D. 4,1,2,3,5

B. 1,4,2,3,5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from

A. Hematopoietic stem cells
B. Macrophages
C. Lymphoid tissue
D. The fetal liver

C. Lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following would not be considered
an anatomic barrier of the innate immune system?

A. Tears and saliva
B. Low pH
C. Mucous membranes
D. Neutrophils

D. Neutrophils

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Antigenic determinant

A. Immunogen
B. Epitope
C. Binding site
D. Paratope

B. Epitope

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is the most significant agent formed in the
phagolysosome for the killing of microorganisms?

A. Proteolytic enzymes
B. Hydroxyl radicals
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Superoxide

C. Hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

It releases histamine and is induced by allergenic
causes that trigger inflammatory processes.
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Lymphocytes
D. Mast cell

D. Mast cell

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which immunoglobulin class/es has/have a J
chain?
1.) IgA 3.) IgM
2.) IgE 4.) lgD

A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 2. 3 4

A. 1 and 3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which refers to the effect of an excess antigen in a
test system?

A. Postzone C. Zone of equivalence
B. Prozone D. Endzone

B. Prozone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The prozone effect can be described by all of the
following except:

A. Results in a false negative reaction
B. The result of antibody excess
C. Dilution of antibody can help prevent its
occurrence
D. Results in a false positive reaction

A. Results in a false negative reaction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The type of immunity that follows after COVID
vaccine?

A. Artificial active C. Artificial passive
B. Natural active D. Natural passive

C. Artificial passive

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Most immunogenic:

A. Proteins C. DNA
B. Glycolipids D. Polysaccharides

A. Proteins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most common complement deficiency?
A. C1 B. C2
C. C3 D. C5

B. C2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A deficiency in C1INH may result in which
condition?

A. AtherosclerosIs
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C. Hereditary angioedema
D. Recurrent pyogenic infection

C. Hereditary angioedema

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The HLA complex is located primarily on

A. Chromosomes C. Chromosome 9
B. Chromosome 6 D. Chromosome 17

B. Chromosome 6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Surface marker on NK cells:

A. CD16
B. CD56
C. CD94
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which complement protein Is present in the
greatest concentration in human serum?

A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C5

C. C3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is known as the “recognition
unit’ in the classical complement pathway?

A. C1q C. C4
B. C3a D. C5

A. C1q

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is false regarding C-reactive
protein?

A. Increases rapidly within 4-6 hours reaching peak
value at 48 hours
B. Acts like an antibody
C. Calcium-dependent end specific
D. Level of 2 mg/L is a risk for cardiovascular
problems

C. Calcium-dependent end specific

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell?

A. u chains in the cytoplasm
B. Complete IgM on the surface
C. Presence of CD21 antigen
D. Presence of CD25 antigen

A. u chains in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which immunoglobulin plays a role in
hypersensitivity?

A. laA C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgM

C. IgG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Normal pH of the skin

A. 5.6 C. 7.0
B. 6.0 D. 7.5

A. 5.6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

IgG subclass most effective in fixing complement:

A. IgG1 C. IgG3
B. IgG2 D. 19G4

A. IgG1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Immunoglobulin classes most commonly found on
the surface of circulating B cells in the peripheral of
a health person:

A. IgM, IgA C. IgM, IgD
B. IgM, igG D. IgM, IgE

C. IgM, IgD

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Interferons can be produced by which of the following? A. macrophages C. virus-infected cells B. T cells D. AOTA

C. virus-infected cells

In anamnestic response, all the following characteristics are correct except: A. IgG is the predominant antibody type B. It has a shorter lag phase C. The antibody titer is lower D. It has a more gradual decline in antibody response

C. The antibody titer is lower

Which of the following complement proteins is part of the membrane attack complex? A. C1 C. C4 B. C3 D. C5

D. C5

A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial Infection exhibits the following symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure, and DIC. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms? A. IL-2 C. IL-12 B. TNF D. IL-7

B. TNF

For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits Into a receptor on the phagocytic cell? A. Fc region C. Hinge region B. Fab region D. Variable region

A. Fc region

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin mole can fix a complement? A VH C. VL B. CH D. CL

B. CH

Which CD marker appears during the first stage of T-cell development and remains present as a marker for T cells? A. CD1 C. CD3 B. CD2 D. CD4 or CD8

B. CD2

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV? A. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests B. Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmuno-precipitation assay C. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification D. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

A. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation: A. Lysozyme B. Complement C. Commensal organisms D. Immunoglobulin

D. Immunoglobulin

Which two organs are considered the primary lymphoid organs in which immunocompetent cells originate and mature? A. Thyroid and Peyer’s patches B. Thymus and bone marrow C. Spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) D. Lymph nodes and thoracic duct

B. Thymus and bone marrow

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? A. Fab B. Fc C. CL D. CH

A. Fab

Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen? A. Fab B. Fc C. CL D. CH

A. Fab

Which complement component is found in both the classic and alternative pathways? A. C1 B. C4 C. Factor D D. C3

D. C3

Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

B. IgM

Which immunoglobulin appears in the highest titer in the secondary response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

A. IgG

Which immunoglobulin(s) help(s) initiate the classic complement pathway? A. IgA and IgD B. IgM only C. IgG and IgM D. IgG only

C. IgG and IgM

Which markers are found on mature, peripheral helper T cells? A. CD1, CD2, CD4 B. CD2, CD3, CD8 C. CD1, CD3, CD4 D. CD2, CD3, CD4

D. CD2, CD3, CD4

How are cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) and natural killer (NK) cells similar? A. Require antibody to be present B. Effective against virally infected cells C. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers D. Do not bind to infected cells

B. Effective against virally infected cells

Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

A. IgG

Which immunoglobulin cross links mast cells to release histamine? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

D. IgE

All of the following are functions of immunoglobulins except: A. Neutralizing toxic substances B. Facilitating phagocytosis through opsonization C. Interacting with TC cells to lyse viruses D. Combining with complement to destroy cellular antigens

C. Interacting with TC cells to lyse viruses

Which MHC class of molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4-positive T cells? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition

B. Class II

Toll-like receptors are found on which cells? A. T cells B. Dendritic cells C. B cells D. Large granular lymphocytes

B. Dendritic cells

The interaction between an individual antigen and antibody molecule depends upon several types of bonds such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals forces. How is the strength of this attraction characterized? A. Avidity B. Affinity C. Reactivity D. Valency

B. Affinity

What would happen if the colour reaction phase is prolonged in one tube or well of an ELISA test? A. Result will be falsely decreased B. Result will be falsely increased C. Result will be unaffected D. Impossible to determine

B. Result will be falsely increased

Which serum antibody response usually characterizes the primary (early) stage of syphilis? A. Antibodies against syphilis are undetectable B. Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre C. Detected in 50% of cases before the primary chancre disappears D. Detected within 2 weeks after infection

B. Detected 1–3 weeks after appearance of the primary chancre

The detection of precipitation reactions depends on the presence of optimal proportions of antigen and antibody. A patient’s sample contains a large amount of antibody, but the reaction in a test system containing antigen is negative. What has happened? A. Performance error B. Low specificity C. A shift in the zone of equivalence D. Prozone phenomenon

D. Prozone phenomenon

What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? A. Cardiolipin B. Anticardiolipin antibody C. Anti-T. pallidum antibody D. Treponema pallidum

B. Anticardiolipin antibody

What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? A. Live treponemal organisms B. Killed suspension of treponemal organisms C. Cardiolipin D. Tanned sheep cells

C. Cardiolipin

A 12-year old girl has symptoms of fatigue and a localized lymphadenopathy. Laboratory tests reveal a peripheral blood lymphocytosis, a positive RPR, and a positive spot test for IM. What test should be performed next? A. HIV test by ELISA B. VDRL C. Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) specific antigen test D. Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test

D. Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV? A. ELISA and rapid antibody tests B. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction C. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction D. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

B. Western blot test, HIC-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction

Which type of nephelometry is used to measure immune complex formation almost immediately after reagent has been added? A. Rate B. Endpoint C. Continuous D. One dimensional

A. Rate

Which outcome indicates a negative result in a complement fixation test? A. Hemagglutination B. Absence of hemagglutination C. Hemolysis D. Absence of hemolysis

C. Hemolysis

What effect does selecting the wrong gate have on the results when cells are counted by flow cytometry? A. No effect B. Failure to count the desired cell population C. Falsely elevated results D. Impossible to determine

B. Failure to count the desired cell population

Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis? A. VDRL B. RPR C. Microhemagglutinin test for T. pallidum (MHA-TP) D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. 2:1 B. 3:1 C. 2:3 D. 1:2

D. 1:2

Which hepatitis B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBc D. Anti-HBs

A. HBsAg

Which is the first antibody detected in serum after infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Anti-HBs B. Anti-HBc IgM C. Anti-HBe D. All are detectable at the same time

B. Anti-HBc IgM

IS Flashcards

(62 cards)