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ISA CAP > ISA CBT Modules > Flashcards

ISA CBT Modules Flashcards

1
Q

A worker turning off a valve in response to a flashing light is an example of the concept of control as a function.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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2
Q

The PRIMARY advantage of an artificial neural network lies in its ability to:
a. handle correlated process inputs
b. compile physical property data
c. interpolate nonlinear relationships
d. accurately identify dynamic responses

A

c. interpolate nonlinear relationships

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3
Q

Which of the following is true of fuzzy logic?
a. it relies on an operator’s technical understanding of the system rather than experience
b. it is mathematical in nature and unlike human logic
c. it can be implemented in hardware but not software
d. it uses imprecise data to arrive at a definite conclusion

A

d. it uses imprecise data to arrive at a definite conclusion

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4
Q

In a document development process, of the items listed, which item would be developed first?
a. loop diagrams
b. instrument lists
c. location plans
d. logic diagram

A

b. instrument lists

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5
Q

Which of the following is generally NOT recommended for inclusion in a P&ID?
a. piping
b. vessel data sheets
c. primary flow
d. control system definition

A

b. vessel data sheets

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6
Q

Which of the following documents requires the greatest amount of engineering time?
a. specification forms
b. installation details
c. location plans
d. logic diagram

A

a. specification forms

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7
Q

Which of the following tag numbers applies to a project in which there are no area, unit, and plant numbers?
a. FT-2
b. FT-102
c. 1-FT002
d. 01-FT002

A

a. FT-2

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8
Q

The P&ID is developed by
a. the construction department, with input from engineering
b. members of various design disciplines as the project proceeds
c. independent suppliers who will furnish the specified equipment
d. the engineering department, with input from construction

A

b. members of various design disciplines as the project proceeds

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9
Q

Which of the following is true of programmable logic controllers (PLC’s)?
a. PLCs are usually configured in groups, with one PLC covering multiple functions
b. PLCs did not historically support redundancy
c. PLCs have generally adopted the Ladder Logic standard
d. PLCs did not historically support use in a work cell

A

b. PLCs did not historically support redundancy

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10
Q

Which of the following is true of programmable logic controllers (PLCs)?
a. controller types follow a distinct hierarchy from worst to best
b. older control system types have been made obsolete by newer types
c. engineers are “logical” and select controller types based solely on function
d. application requirements dictate the “best” controller type

A

d. application requirements dictate the “best” controller type

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11
Q

In ISA-88.01, Process Cell, Unit, Equipment Module and Control Module are part of:
a. a site recipe
b. the physical model
c. a general recipe
d. the procedural model

A

b. the physical model

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12
Q

IEC 61511/IEC 61508 is an international standard covering th design, installation, operation and maintenance of computer-based safety-related systems.
a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common alarm type?
a. sequence events
b. double-ended
c. 2-state digital
d. analog rate of change

A

b. double-ended

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14
Q

Alarm suppression is usually based upon:
a. time in alarm
b. state of the process or more-important related alarm conditions present
c. the configured level of alarm
d. ability of the operator to re-enable the alarms if required

A

b. state of the process or more-important related alarm conditions present

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15
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe how an automation project is different from other types of projects?
a. automation projects have a log of intangible deliverables
b. automation projects do not require planning or controlling activities
c. automation projects require integration across department lines
d. automation projects have a large potential for interacting changes

A

b. automation projects do not require planning or controlling activities

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16
Q

The project “stakeholders” can be BEST be described as:
a. all persons with a vested interest in the project
b. a tight-knit group of community leaders
c. disinterested third party suppliers and contractors
d. those who visit the company website

A

a. all persons with a vested interest in the project

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17
Q

The five basic project management activities are:
a. budgeting, forecasting, executing, marketing, closing
b. initiating, planning, executing, controlling, closing
c. forecasting, planning, commissioning, startup, closing
d. initiating, design, construction, startup, turnover

A

b. initiating, planning, executing, controlling, closing

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18
Q

The work breakdown schedule:
a. is not required for large projects
b. is dependent upon an ERP system to manage the schedule
c. builds on schedule started in requirements division
d. typically is not part of the project planning activity

A

c. builds on schedule started in requirements division

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19
Q

The simplest database type is called a flat file, which is an electronic analogue of a file drawer, with one record per folder, and no internal structure beyond the two-dimensional tabular structure of a spreadsheer.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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20
Q

An HMI should provide immediate feedback to the operator that requested actions were seen by the controller within _________ even if the associated control action takes longer to become effective.
a. 5-10 seconds
b. 0.5 seconds
c. 2 seconds
d. 20 seconds

A

b. 0.5 seconds

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21
Q

In a thin client (distributed) HMI architecture, the data is typically presented on the client PC via the use of:
a. client software loaded on the client PC in a special directory
b. SQL query builder
c. Microsoft office applications
d. web browser or automatically loaded applet

A

d. web browser or automatically loaded applet

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22
Q

All of these should be considerations when specifying an HMI system’s physical and software configuration, EXCEPT:
a. monitor size and screen resolution
b. whether or not to use a systems integrator during project execution
c. standard screen viewing distance
d. requirements for double-acknowledgment of critical actions

A

b. whether or not to use a systems integrator during project execution

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23
Q

When collecting historical data, the data is usually defined in the database by the use of:
a. IP address
b. tag names
c. computer names
d. plant names

A

b. tag names

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24
Q

The type of historical data display that customarily is thought of as a replacement for a strip chart recorder is the:
a. historical trend display
b. aggregate trend display
c. real-time trend display
d. archive trend display

A

c. real-time trend display

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25
Q

A high speed, industrial control network designed for deterministic, predictable and repeatable communication between industrial devices and which can have a trunk length of up to 25km using coax and fiber optic cables is:
a. RS-485
b. ControlNet
c. DeviceNet
d. Profibus

A

b. ControlNet

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26
Q

An ASi network can utilize all of these topologies, EXCEPT:
a. star
b. line
c. ring
d. tree

A

c. ring

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27
Q

The foundation Fieldbus communications stacks most important function is to:
a. convert data from the stack into physical signal on the fieldbus
b. provide an interface top standard function blocks
c. provide deterministic control of message transmission
d. scheduling of function blocks

A

c. provide deterministic control of message transmission

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28
Q

A sensor network that is low cost but also provides minimal functionality is:
a. ControlNet
b. Actuator Sensor Interface (ASi)
b. Foundation Fieldbus HSE
d. Profibus-DP

A

b. Actuator Sensor Interface (ASi)

29
Q

Which of the following industrial automation networks is characterized by highspeed signaling to support host system updates at very short distances?
a. Modbus
b. Profibus-DP
c. Profinet
d. Profibus-PA

A

b. Profibus-DP

29
Q

Network security access control:
a. is the process of transferring data from the plant floor to disk storage
b. is the subject of the ISA-97 standard
c. is very complex and requires an outside consultant to produce a viable security documentation
d. uses filter and blocking technologies designed to regulate the flow of information between devices or systems once authorization has been determined

A

d. uses filter and blocking technologies designed to regulate the flow of information between devices or systems once authorization has been determined

30
Q

A formalized loop check should be documented prior to placing any loop in service.
a. true
b. false

A

a. true

30
Q

The two major types of firewalls are:
a. packet inspection and controlled access protection
b. proxy and data encryption
c. dynamic and static
d. packet inspection and proxy

A

d. packet inspection and proxy

31
Q

A common MES level 3 function is:
a. operational management
b. continuous control
c. detailed production scheduling
d. discrete control

A

c. detailed production scheduling

32
Q

Today’s safety instrumented system standards are performance-based, not prescriptive.
a. true
b. false

A

a. true

33
Q

A goal of safety instrumented system is to:
a. reduce risk
b. limit the number of alarms operators must respond to
c. increase process throughput
d. fulfill a requirement of ISA-84

A

a. reduce risk

34
Q

Which statement is NOT true about dangerous failures?
a. dangerous failures are inhibiting
b. dangerous failures are covert
c. dangerous failures are only found through testing
d. dangerous failures are initiating

A

d. dangerous failures are initiating

35
Q

An advantage of an absolute encoder is:
a. there is no position loss of power down of loss of power
b. a device which infers position from a resolver
c. that it is able to be mounted on the same shaft with different types of encoders
d. a device which gives the position directly as an ASCII code

A

a. there is no position loss of power down of loss of power

36
Q

A server controller typically can have which two types of loops?
a. position and acceleration
b. velocity and disturbance feedback
c. inner and outer cascade loops
d. position and velocity

A

d. position and velocity

37
Q

Which of the following is true about servo command signals?
a. command is an analog signal where motor speed and direction are proportional to magnitude and polarity of this command signal
b. purpose of the command is to change motor torque
c. commands cannot be greater than 0.5 V
d. commands can be given only once per second

A

a. command is an analog signal where motor speed and direction are proportional to magnitude and polarity of this command signal

38
Q

In a 24 VDC open collector output sinking configuration, which of the following could occur?
a. configuration increases the risk of electrostatic discharge (ESD) from static electricity
b. short circuit from load device to ground can cause unintended actuation
c. the triac could remain on when the current (but not voltage) is zero unless a snubber network is used
d. inductive devices such as motors can generate back EMF when turned on

A

b. short circuit from load device to ground can cause unintended actuation

39
Q

An “Inclusive OR” function:
a. can never be used with a NOT function
b. is not applicable to discrete control applications
c. produces a 1 output if either, or both inputs are 1.
d. produces a 1 output if neither inputs are 1

A

c. produces a 1 output if either, or both inputs are 1.

40
Q

To which of the following should a user refer if looking for a specification on structured text?
a. IEC 61131-1
b. IEC 61131-2
c. IEC 61131-3
d. IEC 61131-8

A

c. IEC 61131-3

41
Q

Which of the following would allow an individual with a minimal programming background to set a PLC to handle feedforward controls?
a. configurable digital system
b. relay ladder logic
c. function block
d. analog hardware

A

a. configurable digital system

42
Q

HMI requirements in a user’s system description include which of the following?
a. control outputs
b. dynamic graphics
c. interlocks
d. peripherals

A

b. dynamic graphics

43
Q

Which of the following describes a device installed in a water treatment facility that will detect if water is in each water pump and will shut down the pump if it isn’t primed to prevent it from burning out?
a. sequencing
b. alarms
c. interlocks
d. control system parameters

A

c. interlocks

44
Q

Which of the following is true of IEC-61131-1?
a. convers the functional safety of the automated system as whole
b. does not cover PLC system operation error detecting
c. covers electrical interference immunity of the PLC system
d. does not cover peripherals such as programming and debugging tools (PADTs)

A

c. covers electrical interference immunity of the PLC system

45
Q

In a pressurized enclosure, the operation of passing a quantity of PROTECTIVE GAS through the enclosure and ducts, so that the concentration of the explosive gas atmosphere is brought to a safe level is known as pressurization.
a. true
b. false

A

b. false

46
Q

Intrinsic safety grounds should:
a. never be connected to the instrument ground bus
b. always use a ground conductor which is 18AWG or smaller
c. ideally provide a resistance to ground of <0.1 ohm
d. never be used with DCS systems. decouping

A

c. ideally provide a resistance to ground of <0.1 ohm

47
Q

Division 2 hazards indicate the existence of combustible mixtures:
a. under abnormal conditions (pipe rupture, leaks, etc.)
b. under normal operating conditions
c. under periods of high production
d. whenever turbulent flow is present

A

a. under abnormal conditions (pipe rupture, leaks, etc.)

48
Q

The network layer concerns transmission of data outside a local area to a device on another network.
a. true
b. false

A

a. true

49
Q

The type of analytical sensor that measures an electrical potential developed as the result of a transfer of electrons between the anode and the cathode is called:
a. gas chromatograph (GC)
b. oxygen reduction potential (ORP)
c. pH
d. dissolved oxygen (DO)

A

b. oxygen reduction potential (ORP)

50
Q

pH analyzers measure the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
a. true
b. false

A

a. true

51
Q

Which of the following analytical devices is commonly used to determine water quality in wastewater:
a. gas analyzers
b. dew point analyzer
c. specific ion analyzer
d. dissolved oxygen analyzer

A

d. dissolved oxygen analyzer

52
Q

In a gas chromatograph, all are true statements about a capillary type gas analyzer except:
a. the capillary is completely filled with a very fine inert solid material
b. the capillary can be a wall coated open tubular type
c. capillary tubes are very small, with an inner diameter of about 0.01 inch
d. diatomaceous earth is often used a support material for SCOT columns

A

a. the capillary is completely filled with a very fine inert solid material

53
Q

The equation for liquid flow is Cv = Q(SQRT9Gf/deltaP)
What does Cv represent
a. capacity of valve
b. specific gravity
c. cavitation
d. controller variable

A

a. capacity of valve

54
Q

Increasing the torque a motor can achieve is done by:
a. decreasing the current
b. increasing the current
c. operating in the field weakening range
d. holding the speed below the base speed

A

b. increasing the current

55
Q

In a capacitor-start motor, the function of the capacitor is to:
a. give the motor a high starting torque
b. filter out variations in voltage as the motor starts
c. actuate an alarm in case of startup failure
d. keep the motor from overheating

A

b. filter out variations in voltage as the motor starts

56
Q

In a 3-phase motor, the synchronous speed of the motor is inversely proportional to:
a. the full load current of the motor
b. the motor’s horsepower
c. frequency of the supply voltage
d. the number of poles

A

d. the number of poles

57
Q

The function of the rotor in an AC induction motor is to:
a. reduce speed
b. reverse direction of the motor
c. produce torque
d. create a magnetic field

A

c. produce torque

58
Q

In which type of 3-phase motor are all three phases connected internally at a single point?
a. multi-point connected
b. delta-connected
c. wye-connected
d. inter-phase connected

A

c. wye-connected

59
Q

What is the difference between AC and DC motors?
a. an ac drive alternative may require a spare motor; the dc drive may not
b. ac motors require less maintenance
c. ac motors generally require more elaborate cooling arrangements that dc motors
d. ac motors are generally less efficient than dc motors

A

b. ac motors require less maintenance

60
Q

Which of the following provides a torque response that can be significantly faster than an AC or DC drive?
a. variable voltage inverter
b. torque controlled scheme
c. current source inverter
d. flux vector drive

A

b. torque controlled scheme

61
Q

Which of the following is true of motor efficiency of single-phase ac induction squirrel cage motors?
a. motor efficiency declines only slightly when overloaded
b. motor efficiency declines at the high levels of voltage
c. motor efficiency is greatest when the machine is underloaded
d. motor efficiency is greatest near its full load rating

A

d. motor efficiency is greatest near its full load rating

62
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a maintenance execution responsibility?
a. document the status and results of the work performed
b. test each raw material as it is received to ensure purity.
c. ensure that maintenance procedures and regulations are followed during maintenance activities
d. confirm that work was performed according to the accepted quality standards

A

b. test each raw material as it is received to ensure purity.

63
Q

Scheduled maintenance that is planned, with materials on hand, personnel on site, and production planning advised is what type of maintenance?
a. corrective
b. preventative
c. predictive
d. reactive

A

b. preventative

64
Q

Which of the following is true about corrective maintenance?
a. maintenance activities are planned and scheduled at least 1 week in advance
b. occurs at regular intervals
c. usually occurs when environmental conditions, personnel capabilities and necessary equipment are in less than optimal readiness
d. always requires assistance from the lab and quality control groups

A

c. usually occurs when environmental conditions, personnel capabilities and necessary equipment are in less than optimal readiness

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the five-step troubleshooting process?
a. locate or isolate the problem
b. fix/repair the problem
c. analyze why the part or component failed
d. verify the repair and the systems are functional

A

c. analyze why the part or component failed

66
Q

A sensor converts one form of a signal to another form.
a. true
b. false

A

b.false

ISA CAP (16 decks)

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