ISCE High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient in the ISCE presents with delirium, what must you consider?

A

it is temporary so rule out:
infection
nutrition
constipation
change of scenery

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2
Q

What would a whirlpool sign indicate on an ultrasound and explain it?

A

ovarian torsion (adnexal torsion)

-fallopian tubes twist on the tissues that support them
-usually one sided
-sudden, intense pain and vomiting
-can cause an infection (peritonitis) in the abdominal cavity

Remember to perform PREG TEST

-emergency surgery is needed
-prophylaxtic abx

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3
Q

When is routine anti-D given and why? When is it also given?

A

28 and 34 weeks

To prevent haemolytic disease of the newborn:
Anaemia
Oedema and heart failure
Jaundice
Hepatosplenomegaly

Given when:
-termination
-miscarriage >12 weeks
-surgical management of ectopic
-trauma
-CVS/amniocentesis

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4
Q

When are UK abortions legal and how does it happen and what are the risks?

A

Up to 24 weeks

Less than 9 = mifepristone FOLLOWED 48hrs later by prostaglandins (misoprostol)

less than 13 = surgical dilation and suction

more than 15 = surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents

Heavy bleeding, sepsis, PID

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5
Q

What is a molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole)?

A

A molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole) is a tumor that develops in the uterus. The placenta doesn’t form correctly. Instead it develops into a mass of cysts and can’t supply the baby with food and oxygen like it does in a healthy

pregnancy
Bleeding in first or early second trimester
hyperemesis
big uterus size
‘snow storm’ on ultrasound
high hCG

Almost always ends in pregnancy loss

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6
Q

What can be an unusual sign that presents with an ectopic pregnancy and how do you treat it?

A

abdo pain that radiated to the left shoulder

expectant: <35mm and no pain: monitor B-hCG over 48hrs
medical: <35mm and minimal pain: methotrexate
surgical: >35mm and pain: salpingectomy

Consider a major haemorrhage protocol
Give VTE prophylaxis
Blood transfusion potentially?

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7
Q

How do you investigate and treat pre-eclampsia?

A

Abdo exam
Fundoscopy
Obs
Urinalysis
FBC, U&Es, LFTs, coag, glucose, electrolytes, clotting
PLGF (placental growth factor- will be low)
ECG
CTG/ultrasound

-Labetalol unless they have asthma then give nifedipine
-aspirin from 12 weeks until birth
-deliver baby if severe

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8
Q

How do you treat eclampsia in pregnancy?

A

Magnesium sulphate

(Can cause resp depression)

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9
Q

What is preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM)?

A

amniotic sac ruptures early <37 weeks- can be like normal gush of water or just gradual damp pads/underwear

Speculum exam!!
High vaginal swab!!!- group B strep

-admit + observe
-oral erythromycin for 10 days (broad spectrum abx like tazocin if emergency)
-antenatal steroids
-IOL and delivery if at term
-If not at term CTG monitoring twice a week

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10
Q

How do you treat umbilical cord prolapse?

A

FETUS pushed back in if out
kept warm and moist if left out
get patient on all 4
stocolytics- slow pregnancy using drugs
retrofilling the bladder

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11
Q

What features would suggest an amniotic fluid embolism in pregnancy?

A

usually during or within 30mins of labour

cyanosis

respiratory distress

hypoxia

hypotension

–> oxygen, supportive care, ITU, intubation

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12
Q

If a pregnant woman IN LABOUR presents with pyrexia (>38 degrees), what should be given?

A

most likely GBS (group B strep) –> benzylpenicillin

and if goes on to have another baby prophylaxis IV abx should be given during labour

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13
Q

What is post-partum haemorrhage (PPH)?

A

blood loss of more than 500ml

primary = within 24hrs of birth
secondary = 24hrs-6weeks

causes: 4T’s
Tone-uterine atony
Trauma- perineal tear
Tissue- retained placenta
Thrombin

lie flat, palpate fundus and catheterise
give fluids
IV oxytocin
IM carboprost (unless asthmatic)
IV/IM ergometrine (unless hypertension)
intrauterine balloon tamponade
hysterectomy

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14
Q

What is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (obstetric cholestasis)?

Give differentials.

A

build up of bile acids during pregnancy

itchy palms, soles and abdomen
jaundice
raised bilirubin (ALT is raised in acute fatty liver of pregnancy)
raised bile salts

-histamine to stop itch if not contraindicated in pregnancy
-increased risk of stillbirth so have an induction of labour
-give Ursodeoxycholic acid
-give vit k

Differentials:
Fatty liver disease of pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia

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15
Q

How do you manage a miscarriage?

A

Expectant = wait 7-14 days for it to complete

if this ^ doesn’t work or there is increased risk of haemorrhage or infection:
Medical = vaginal misoprotol
Surgical = vacuum aspiration

Preg test 3 weeks after MEDICAL management

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16
Q

How do you investigate and treat placental abruption?

A

Abdominal exam
AVOID Speculum until ruled out
Obs
Urine dip
Glucose
ECG
Transvaginal ultrasound
High vaginal swab

FBC, U+Es, LFTs, CRP, bHCG
Clotting screen
Rhesus status
Group and save

ACTIVATE MAJOR HAEMORRHAGE PROTOCOL
SENIOR HELP
A-E

Alive and <36 weeks:
-foetal distress = C section
-no distress = observe and steroids

Alive and >36 weeks:
-distress = C section
-no distress = vaginal delivery

Dead:
-induce vaginal delivery

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17
Q

How do you investigate and treat placental praevia?

A

Abdominal exam
AVOID SPECULUM until ruled out
Obs
Urine dip
Glucose
ECG
Transvaginal ultrasound
High vaginal swab

FBC, U+Es, LFTs, CRP, bHCG
Clotting screen
Rhesus status
Group and save

ACTIVATE MAJOR HAEMORRHAGE PROTOCOL
SENIOR HELP
A-E

If low lying at 16-20 week scan:
-rescan at 34 weeks
-no need to limit sex/exercise

At 34 weeks if low lying/reaches internal OS:
-rescan every 2 weeks
-C section at 37 weeks

Presenting with bleeding:
-admit
-Vaginal delivery if grade 1
-C section at 37 weeks if grade 3/4 (placenta covers OS)

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18
Q

How do you treat and manage vasa praevia?

A

Same investigations as placental abruption

URGENT C-SECTION

if going to deliver then give 2 doses of dexamethasone

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19
Q

What is the treatment for acute asthma?

A
  1. inhalers- nebulized salbutamol (SABA) USE A SPACER IN CHILDREN
  2. nebulized ipratropium bromide (M3 antagonist- SAMA)
  3. predisolone - steroids
  4. if these don’t work then IV magnesium sulphate
  5. IV aminophylline
  6. intubation and ventilation
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20
Q

What is the treatment for a pneumothorax?

A

If asymptomatic:
Conservative care regardless of size and reviewed every 2-4 days

If symptomatic:
-High risk = chest drain
-low risk = conservative (reviewed every 2-4 days. If secondary pneumothorax then admit or if stable review in 2-4 weeks), needle aspiration or ambulatory care = patient choice

High risk = tension, hypoxia, bilateral, underlying lung disease, >50 and smokes, haemopneumothorax

If it’s a TENSION pneumothorax (deviated trachea) –> urgent needle aspiration —> DO NOT wait for an x-ray

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21
Q

How would you treat an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

-increase the frequency of bronchodilator use and consider giving via a nebuliser
-give prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 days
-amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline ONLY if sputum of pneumonia signs
-NIV or BIPAP

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22
Q

How do you investigate and treat interstitial lung disease?

A

most common type is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
other causes: sarcoidosis, SLE, asbetosis, drug induced (methotrexate), rheumatoid arthritis

-Bilateral fine end-inspiratory creps
-pleural effusion
-Finger clubbing
-Raynaud’s phenomenon
-Arthritis

obs
urine dipstick
lung function: restrictive pattern
FBC, U+Es, CRP
Autoimmune antibodies: anti-CCP suggests rheumatoid arthritis, ANA suggests SLE

chest x-ray
High resolution CT

conservative: smoking cessation, vaccines, pulmonary rehab
medical: depends on the cause
long term oxygen
lung transplant (very severe)

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23
Q

How do you treat acute atrial fibrillation?

A

A
IN THIS ORDER:

rhythm control = DC cardioversion (first line only if symptoms less than 48 hrs or on anticoags)

Stroke control = DOAC’s !!! e.g. apixaban if CHADVASC score 2 for 4 weeks or for a minimum of 3 weeks before the cardioversion or transoesophageal echo instead of the 3 weeks anti-coag

rate control = beta blocker OR calcium channel blocker e.g. diltiazem, digoxin

if already on a beta blocker and need another rate control:
-Amiodarone (especially if they have heart disease)
-Flecainide

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24
Q

What is endocarditis/criteria to diagnose?

A

DUKE’s CRITERIA

infection of the inner lining of the heart (the endocardium)–> flu/infection like symptoms, chest pain when breathing

fever and a new murmur
janeway lesions

THREE sets of blood cultures

treatment:
normal valve—> amox +/- gent
prosthetic —> vanc + rifampicin + gent

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25
Q

How do you treat acute and chronic heart failure?

A

ACUTE:
1) IV furosemide
2) oxygen
3) nitrates (with caution)
4) CPAP for patients with respiratory failure
5) inotropes if have hypotension e.g. dobutamine

CHRONIC:
1) ACE-inhib
2) beta blocker
3) spironolactone
4) SGLT-2 inhibs e.g. dapagliflozin
5) ivabradine if sinus rhythm
6) valsartan
7) digoxin if in AF
8) annual influenza and one off pneumococcal

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26
Q

What is an aortic dissection?

A

aortic aneurysm (abdominal or mediastinal) is painless until it dissects

-weak carotid, brachial and femoral pulses
-variation in arm BP
-pulsating feeling in your stomach
-persistent back pain
-persistent abdominal pain
-clammy, tachy, SOB, dizzy, TLOC
-In men, the pain can also radiate down into the scrotum

diagnose with ultrasound or if a dissection use a CT angiography
May see mediastinal widening on chest x-ray

-if tear is bigger than or 5.5cm then surgery and see specialist in 2 weeks if clinically well otherwise
-if not then regular scans to keep an eye on it-surgery if it is rapidly enlarging
-rescan in 3months if enlarging slowly
-rescan once a year if 3-4.4cm
-medications to reduce BP and cholesterol level

Acute management:
-ABCDE assessment
-Call senior
-2222- call
-2 large bore cannulas- Fluid/blood resus
-high flow oxygen
-labetalol
-analgesia
-anti-emetic
-take bloods: FBC, CRP, CK, troponin, U+Es (renal failure), glucose, Lactate- end organ damage, blood gas, group and save

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27
Q

How do you treat a STEMI? acute and long term?

A

MONA
-oxygen if less than 94%
-don’t give GTA if hypotensive

1) always give 300mg aspirin
2) PCI (or fibrinolysis if PCI not possible in 2hrs)
3) give prasugrel with aspirin if not already taking oral anticoagulants or clopidogrel with aspirin if taking an oral anticoag
4) Give unfractionated heparin with bailout GPI for radial access

5) if did fibrinolytic give anti-thrombin at same time and then give ticagrelor and repeat ECG 60-90mins later

6) if no PCI then give ticagrelor

Long term:
Aspirin
ACE-inhibitor
Beta-blocker
Statin

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28
Q

How do you treat stable angina?

A

episodes of angina attacks = GTN spray or isosorbide mononitrate (IM)
- use asymmetric dosing interval for IM

treating stable angina = beta blocker (CANNOT USE THIS IF PATIENT HAS ASTHMA) or a calcium channel blocker and combine the two if monotherapy doesn’t work

CC monotherapy: verapamil
CC combination: amlodipine, nifedipine

prevention of stable angina (LONG TERM)= aspirin and statin OR aspirin + statin with an ACE-inhib if also have diabetes

if drugs do not work = CABG or PCI

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29
Q

How do you treat SVT (supraventricular tachycardia), acute and chronic?

A

acute management:
-vasovagal maneouvre but if systolic BP<90 then shock first
-IV 6mg adenosine (can cause chest pain)–> 12mg –> 18 mg UNLESS have asthma then use verapamil

Prevention of episodes:
beta-blockers
radio-frequency ablation

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30
Q

How do treat an NSTEMI and unstable angina?

A

1) aspirin 300mg and fondaparinux if no immediate PCI
2) calculate GRACE score
3) if GRACE > 3% = PCI, heparin, prasugrel or ticagrelor
4) if GRACE < 3% = ticagrelor

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31
Q

How do you treat bradycardia?

A

1) atropine 500mcg (up to 6 times)
2) transcutaneous pacing
3) adrenaline infusion

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32
Q

How do you treat atrial flutter?

A

radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve

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33
Q

What would be the most likely diagnosis if someone had breathlessness and PALPITATIONS with pain worse when lying down? and what would be seen on an ECG? How do you treat?

A

acute pericarditis

PR depression and saddle shaped ST elevation

management:
-NSAID AND colchicine

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34
Q

What are the features of cardiac tamponade and how do you manage it?

A

accumulation of pericardial fluid under pressure

-Beck’s triad = hypotension, raised JVP and muffled heart sounds
-can also be worse when lying down like pericarditis
-pulsus paradoxus = an abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration
-ECG: electrical alternans: QRS height varies

management: ugrent pericardiocentesis

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35
Q

What are the features of a PE and how do you manage it?

A

tachypnea
tachycardia
crackles
fever
chest pain

Calculate Well’s score and follow below: can also order ECG and chest x-ray

If a PE is ‘likely’ (more than 4 points) = CTPA/VQ scan and give a DOAC if delay in imaging
if the CTPA is positive then a PE is diagnosed
if the CTPA is negative then consider a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan if DVT is suspected

If a PE is ‘unlikely’ (4 points or less) = D-dimer test
if positive follow above steps

Management:
-DOACs for 3 months if there was a cause or for 6 months if there was no known cause
-If renal impairment/anti phospholipid syndrome/pregnancy give LMW heparin
-Thrombolysis for hypotensive PE

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36
Q

How do you treat the different types of heart block?

A

AV blocking drugs stopped: beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, antiarrhythmics, and digoxin
Pacemaker if symptomatic

Atropine, transcutaneous pacing, adrenaline (for complete block)

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37
Q

How would a patient present if they had alcohol withdrawal and how would you treat this?

A

Calculate CIWA score

6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, tachy, anxiety
36 hours: seizures
48-72 hours: delirium tremens –> coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachy

treat with TAPERING chloradiazepoxide or diazepam
pabrinex

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38
Q

How do you assess risk?

A

1) risk to self:
-self harm (if so then take a history on this)
-look after themselves (hygiene, substances, physical health)

2) risk from others:
-do they feel safe at home?
-has anyone hurt you?

3) risk to others:
-sometimes when people are going through difficult things, they might have thoughts to harm other people. Have you ever thought about this?
-is anyone telling you to harm other people

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39
Q

How do you sedate an agitated patient who is at risk to self or others?

A

-Try to camp patient down and moved to a safe place
-Call security
-Turn on the lights and explain where they are and the time and ask if a relative is near to come in to the room

LORAZEPAM 1-2mg PO/IM
OR HALOPERIDOL 2-5mg PO/IM

Repeat at 30-60mins up to 3 times
If this fails call anaesthetist

-half doses in elderly or renal failure
-haloperidol is contraindicated in Parkinson’s, Lewy body dementia, alcohol withdrawal, heart problems
-ensure procyclidine is available if using haloperidol to counteract

-REMEMBER TO DOCUMENT WHY

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40
Q

What is the management for small bower obstruction caused by adhesions?

A

smALL bowel obstruction = bowel lines cross ALL the way across

No surgery needed–> insert NG tube to allow bowel rest, give fluids, anti-emetics and pain relief

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41
Q

What is Coeliac’s disease, symptoms, investigations and management?

A

Autoimmune disorder where gluten is not broken down fully and leads to chronic inflammation and malabsorption

Symptoms:
rash, change in bowel habits, fatigue, iron and B12 deficiency, osteomalacia

Investigations:
-TTG (tissue transglutaminase) Antibodies
-IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA)
-duodenal endoscopy biopsy which shows:

villous atrophy, raised intra-epithelial lymphocytes and crypt hyperplasia

Management:
Gluten free diet
Pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years
Correct anaemia
Refer to dietician

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42
Q

What is Hirschbrungs disease?

A

Poo is sticky and sticks to walls of intestine —> no passage of poo

should be seen when they are born- failure to pass meconium!!

persistent constipation, swollen tummy, failure to pass poo in 48hrs, vomiting green bile

Rectal washouts and bowel irrigation

rectal biopsy + surgery is a must

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43
Q

How is DKA diagnosed and treated?

A

Hyperglycaemia (>11), ketonaemia (>3 and urine), acidosis (ph low <7.3)

treatment in this order:
-fluids (slowly to prevent cerebral oedema)
-insulin: 0.1 /kg/hour
-potassium
-if diabetic: continue long acting insulin but stop short acting

Hourly check of blood sugar
2hr check of potassium + HCO3

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44
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

not enough cortisol and aldosterone—> synacthen test

FATIGUE
ABDO PAIN
VOMITING
LOW BP
LOW SODIUM
hyperpigmentation- darkened skin
low mood
loss of appetite and unintentional weight loss
increased thirst

replace hormones + adrenal crisis/”Addisonian crisis” = give hydrocortisone

hydrocortisone (most of it given in morning) and fludrocortisone

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45
Q

How is acute cholecystitis treated?

A

antibiotics: cephalosporin (cefruoxime) OR piperacillin/tazobactam (tazocin) AND metronidazole

surgery: laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 1 week of diagnosis

46
Q

What is the treatment for a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

calculate Glasgow Blatchford bleeding score (GBS)
PPI
terlipressin acetate
Stop NSAIDs/aspirin

give abx before endoscopy

47
Q

How do you treat hyperthyroidism?

A

carbimazole (ATD therapy) = to treat Grave’s

propranolol = Initial treatment to control symptoms (tremor, anxiety)

radioactive iodine: used in patients who relapse following ATD (anti-thyroid drugs) therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment

48
Q

What is alcoholic ketoacidosis?

A

non-diabetic form of ketoacidosis that occurs in people who regularly drink large amounts of alcohol. Often alcoholics will not eat regularly and may vomit food that they do eat, leading to episodes of starvation

It typically presents with a pattern of:
Metabolic acidosis
Elevated anion gap
Elevated serum ketone levels
Normal or low glucose concentration

treatment: infusion of saline & thiamine

49
Q

How is ulcerative colitis seen on an CT, treated and what are the investigations?

A

Lead pipe appearance of the colon and pseudopolyps

Flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred

inducing remission = topical (rectal) aminosalicylate

maintaining remission = topical (rectal) aminosalicylate +/- oral aminosalicylate

severe relapse or 2 or more exacerbations in a year = oral azathioprine

severe flare up = IV hydrocortisone

50
Q

How is acute cholangitis investigated and managed?

A

Ultrasound
CT
MRCP/ERCP

antibiotics: cefuroxime and metronidazole
SEPSIS 6

Ursodeoxycholic acid –> primary biliary cholangitis

IV fluids, pain relief, relief of biliary obstruction and removal of cause

51
Q

What is a duodenal/peptic ulcer?

A

mostly caused by H.pylori (diagnosed by stool tool), NSAIDs, stress, alcohol, obesity

X-ray!!!

x-ray is free air under the diaphragm, pain, rigid abdomen on examination, dark and tarry stools

treatment if H.pylori:
-3 drugs: PPI (lansoprazole 30mg or omeprazole 20-40mg) and two antibiotics (amoxycillin and clarithromycin)
2 times a day
1 week
-stop NSAIDs
-laparoscopic repair

52
Q

How do you treat Crohn’s disease?

A

prednisolone = starting remission 1st line
Mesalazine = starting remission 2nd line

Azathioprine = maintaining remission

Infliximab = SEVERE active/fistulating- IV or subcut

53
Q

What are the main causes of pancreatitis, how do you treat it and what is the most serious complication of acute pancreatitis?What blood results may suggest pancreatitis?

A

alcohol and gallstones

acute respiratory distress syndrome is caused when the pancreas is inflammed, it makes the vessels leaky and makes it harder to breathe –> death

hypocalcaemia, increase in amylase and LIPASE in > 24hrs, ultrasound, cullen’s sign (bruising around belly button) and Grey Turner’s sign (bruising on flank)

treatment: pain management, fluids, avoid food so have IV feeding to give bowels a rest, potential abx

54
Q

What is primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

mostly caused by solitary adenoma

-bones: pain/fractures
-stones: polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones
-groans: constipation, peptic ulcers, pancreatitis
-moans: depression

Bloods: raised calcium, low phosphate, raised or normal PTH
X-ray: pepperpot skull

–> total parathyroidectomy and if not suitable for surgery then give calcimimetics

55
Q

How do you treat oesophageal bleeding: acute and chronic?

A

oesophageal bleeding/varices is uncontrolled bleeding and an emergency

acute: terlipressin, endoscopic variceal band ligation, Sengstaken-Blakemore tube if uncontrolled haemorrhage, Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) if above measures fail

prophylaxis: propranolol and abx, ligation and shunt as last option

56
Q

How do you treat ascites?

A

reduce dietary sodium
fluid restriction
spironolactone
abdominal paracentesis if a lot
prophylactic ciprofloxacin
TIPS shunt potentially (this can cause hepatic encephalopathy)

57
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

can be seen in any type of liver disease

confusion
liver flap
raised ammonia
constructional apraxia: inability to draw a 5-pointed star

TIPSS procedure can cause it
treat with –> lactulose
prophylaxis = rifaximin

58
Q

What investigations would you order for potential IBD?

A

FBC, vitB12, folate
U&Es
LFTs (sclerosing cholangitis)
CRP
thyroid
Coeliac’s screen

Faecal calprotectin (raised in IBD but not IBS)
Stool culture for C.diff

Sigmoidoscopy (for UC)
Colonoscopy
Abdo x-ray

59
Q

What is hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

A medical emergency that has a high mortality
Usually presents in elderly people with type two diabetes

Hyperglycaemia over many days (DKA is hours)
NO acidosis or hyperketonaemia
Dehydrated
Lethargic
Drinking and peeing lots

Fluid replace
Only give insulin if the blood glucose does not fall whilst giving fluids
VTE prophylaxis

60
Q

What is mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Generalised severe Abdo pain
Nausea and vomiting
Underlying AF

FBC, U+Es, LFTs
Amylase (rule out pancreatitis)
Clotting factors
ABG!!!! Check lactate (high)
CT with contrast

Refer to senior
2222
A-E
Broad spectrum abx
Urgent surgery
Treat underlying AF

61
Q

When do you treat hyperkalaemia and what is the treatment for it?

A

** plasma-potassium concentration 6.5 mmol/litre or greater, or in the presence of ECG changes **

IV calcium chloride 10% or calcium gluconate 10% 10ml over 10mins

IV insulin (5–10 units) with 50 mL glucose 50% given over 5-15 minutes

sodium bicarbonate infusion should be considered

Salbutamol by nebulisation or IV: used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease

Drugs exacerbating hyperkalaemia should be stopped

haemodialysis

62
Q

What is diabetes insipidus?

A

HIGH SODIUM

decreased secretion of ADH from the pituitary (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI)

causes of cranial:-haemochromatosis, post head injury, pituitary tumour

Causes of nephrogenic:-lithium, genetic, electrolyte imbalance

peeing lots and drinking lots (increased thirst)

-high plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality
-a urine osmolality of >700 mOsm/kg excludes diabetes insipidus
-water deprivation test: urine osmolality less than 300 after fluid deprivation AND greater than 800 after desmopressin then it is cranial rather then nephrogenic (nephrogenic is less then 800)
-MR of pituitary gland

Management:
-nephrogenic –> thiazides and a low salt/protein diet
-cranial –> can be treated with desmopressin

63
Q

What is syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)?

A

HYPOnatraemia with water retention but are euvolemic (don’t show the water retention)

causes:
-small cell lung cancer
-subarachnoid, stroke, subdural
-SSRIs
-carbamazepine
-infection

investigations:
-urine osmolality: HIGH
-urine sodium concentration: HIGH

management:
-fluid restrict
-demeclocycline
-ADH receptor antagonists (vasopressin)

64
Q

How do you treat an acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

ABCDE

Address drugs
Boost BP
Calculate fluid balance
Dip urine and ABG
Exclude obstruction

65
Q

How do you investigate hyponatraemia and hypernatraemia?

A

HYPO:
-plasma osmolarity
-Urine osmolarity
-Synacthen’s test = Addison
-SIADH = high urine osmolarity
-hypothyroidism = TFTs

HYPER:
-Urine osmolarity
-Water deprivation test

66
Q

What is the dose of adrenaline for children and adults in CARDIAC ARREST?

A

Child
10micrograms every 3-5mins
1:10,000

Adult
1mg every 3-5
1:10,000

67
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

infection of the bone

Staph. aureus is the most common cause except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate

MRI then flucloxacillin for 6 weeks

68
Q

What is temporal arteritis (Giant Cell Arteritis)?

A

vasculitis of large arteries

occurs in OVER 60 years old and rapid onset
linked with polymyalgia rheumatica

headache
jaw pain with movement
visual loss - swollen pale disc and blurred margins

skip lesions may be seen on artery biopsy
ESR blood test

-steroids: prednisolone if no visual loss and IV methylprednisolone if there is visual loss
-ophthalmology review
-bisphosphonates
-aspirin

69
Q

What features would suggest cauda equina rather than sciatica? How would you manage this patient?

A

bilateral leg symptoms, urinary retention, loss of bowel movements, loss of sacral sensation and anal tone

SPINE EXAM
PR EXAM

MRI spine
Analgesia
Catheter + bladder scan
Surgical decompression laminectomy

“ONLY GIVE DEXAMETHASONE IN METS CORD COMPRESSION”

70
Q

What is Intussusception?

A

invagination of one portion of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, most commonly around the ileo-caecal region

affects infants between 6-18 months old

intermittent, crampy abdominal pain
blood stained stool - ‘red-currant jelly’ - is a late sign
sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant
“Target sign” shown on ultrasound

—> air insufflation

71
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

prolonged neonatal jaundice (jaundice lasting beyond 2 weeks of life) and obstructive jaundice (pale stools and dark urine) –> conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia —> surgery

ultrasound scan shows the gallbladder ghost triad - atretic gallbladder, irregular contour and lack of smooth echogenic mucosal lining with an indistinct wall - which is highly sensitive and specific for biliary atresia

–> ursodeoxycholic acid, Kasai procedure and potentially a liver transplant

72
Q

What is roseola infantum (6th disease)?

A

HHV6 human herpes virus 6 in children

affecting ages of 6months to 2years

fever then a maculopapular rash
Nagayama spots
!!!febrile convulsions!!!

73
Q

What are the school exclusion rules for children with:
scarlet fever
whooping cough
measles
rubella
chickenpox
mumps
diarrhoea & vomiting
impetigo
scabies
influenza
everything else…

A

scarlet fever- 24hrs after abx

whooping cough- 2 days after abx

measles- 4 days from onset of rash

rubella- 5 days from onset of rash

chickenpox- all lesions crusted over

mumps- 5 days from swollen glands

diarrhoea & vomiting- last symptom for 48hrs

impetigo- crusted over or 48hrs after abx

scabies- until treated

influenza- until recovered

everything else…no time off

74
Q

What is bronchiolitis?

A

RSV pathogen in children less than 1y/o

fever before
dry cough
breathlessness- resps of 60/70
wheeze/crackles
grunting (IMMEDIATE HOSPITAL REFERRAL)

Bloods and x-ray NOT routinely done

supportive management: oxygen, NG tube, IV fluids, CPAP

75
Q

What is pyloric stenosis in children?

A

usually seen 2-4 weeks of life

-projectile vomiting usually 30mins after a feed
-curdled non bile (IF IT IS NOT CURDLED IT IS USUALLY TRACHEOESOPHAGEAL FISTULA)
-constipation and dehydration
-mass in upper abdo
-hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis

ultrasound

Give IV saline with POTASSIUM before surgery then treat with Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

76
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria and treatment for a Whooping cough?

A

cough lasting for 14 days or more and has one or more of:
paroxysmal cough (uncontrollable, violent coughing attacks that are painful and tiring)
inspiratory whoop
post-tussive vomiting (vomiting due to coughing)
apnoeic attacks

swab for bordetella pertusis and PCR/serology

notifiable disease
under 6months –> admitoral azithromycin if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days
household contacts given prophylaxis abx

77
Q

How do diagnose and treat cystic fibrosis in children?

A

meconium ileus
recurrent chest infections
failure to thrive
short stature
delayed puberty
male infertility
rectal prolapse
can cause diabetes mellitus

Raised immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT)
sweat test: high sweat chloride

-twice daily chest physio
-high calorie/fat diet
-vitamin supplementation
-pancreatic enzyme supplements
-lung transplantion: chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation

78
Q

What is paediatric BLS?

A

in this order:
look, listen, feel for breathing
give 5 rescue breaths
check pulses: brachial or femoral
15:2 compression
Attach ECG
Defib
Adrenaline

79
Q

What is croup?

A

caused by parainfluenza

more common in autumn

stridor
barking cough
fever
coryzal symptoms

mild = no stridor at rest
moderate = stridor at rest
severe = stridor at rest, tachycardia, lethargy x-ray can show subglottic narrowing- “steeple sign”
-thumb sign seen in epiglottitis

–> single dose of 0.15mg/kg dexamethasone (oxygen and nebulised adrenaline in an emergency)

80
Q

How is acute asthma treated in children?

A

-bronchodilator therapy via a spacer
-steroids given to ALL children for 3-5 days

81
Q

What are the causes of jaundice in newborns?

A

irst 24 hours is always pathological:
-rhesus haemolytic disease
-ABO haemolytic disease of the newborn
-hereditary spherocytosis
-G6PD deficiency

2-14 days:
-breast milk jaundice

after 14 days (prolonged):
-biliary atresia
-hypothyroidism
-galactosaemia
-urinary tract infection
-breast milk jaundice
-prematurity
-congenital infections e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis

82
Q

What is included in a paediatric septic screen?

A

FBC, U+Es, CRP
BLOOD CULTURE
Urine dip
Throat swab
Lumbar puncture

Do this if signs of meningitis, septicaemia, UTI, bronchiolitis !!

83
Q

How do you treat a DVT?

A

Wells score can be calculated

2 or more = high risk of DVT

high risk = ultrasound and then DOACs (apixaban for at least 3 months) unless ultrasound is negative then do a D-dimer—> use low weight heparin instead of DOACs if renal impairment or antiphospholipid syndrome

low risk = D-dimer and if this is positive do a ultrasound

84
Q

If a elderly patient with a history of Parkinson’s is admitted with confusion due to a UTI, what can be given to treat the confusion?

A

IM lorazepam (usually haloperidol but not here as the patient has Parkinson’s and same with lewy body dementia)

85
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2

-rapidly progressing painful rash
-commonly seen in children with atopic eczema
-monomorphic punched out circular, depressed, lesions

life threatening –> children should be admitted for IV aciclovir

86
Q

What is the dose of adrenaline given to adults and children in anaphylaxis?

A

adults-12 = IM 500micrograms (1:1000) and if no response give again after 5mins

6-11 years = 300 micrograms

6months-5years = 150 micrograms

<6 months = 100-150 micrograms

IV adrenaline and IV fluids can be given in refractory anaphylaxis

87
Q

What are the rules for advanced life support (cardiac arrest)?

A

2222

Shockable rhythms: pulseless ventricular tachycardia/VF

Nonshockable rhythms: asyetole/pulseless asystole (flatline) –> give adrenaline instead

-chest compressions (30:2)
-defib (shock then 2mins CPR)
-IV adrenaline 1mg every 3-5mins if it persists after 3 shocks (if can’t get IV then use intraosseous)
-amiodarone 300mg in VF/pulseless VT after 3 shocks (use lidocaine if no available)

ATROPINE NOT USED

88
Q

How do you treat hypercalcaemia and what are the symptoms?

A

Usually seen in people with cancer

-EMERGENCY admission to hospital
-give IV fluids and THEN IV bisphosphonates (pamidronate or zoledronate)

89
Q

What are the different types of seizures and the first line treatment for them?

A

-febrile convulsions = no specific treatment

-focal seizures: one part of the brain: hearing, speech, taste, memory, emotions, hallucinations and flashbacks —> lamotrigine or levetiracetam

-absence seizures: also called petit mal, rapid blinking of a few seconds of staring into space —> ethosuximide, sodium valproate

-generalised tonic-clonic seizures: fall to ground, muscle jerks, lose consciousness —> sodium valproate. Since this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy or women of child bearing age the next most appropriate drug is lamotrigine.

-Status epileptics - a seizure lasting 5 or more minutes or 2 or more seizures within a 5 minute period without the patient returning to normal between them = CHECK BLOOD GLUCOSE =

If IV access is available 1st line is lorazepam and if IV not possible then 1st line is either buccal midazolam or PR diazepamno recovery after 5mins —> 2nd dose of the above no recovery after 10mins —> IV levetiracetam or phenytoinno recovery 25-30mins —> anaesthetise and intubate

90
Q

What is anterior uveitis ALSO KNOWN AS iritis?

A

Associated with autoimmune conditions e.g. ankylosing spondylitis, crohn’s

anterior chamber cells seen on slip lamp exam

red eye
pain
photophobia

Management:
-urgent review by ophthalmology
-cycloplegics (dilates the pupil which helps to relieve pain and photophobia) e.g. Atropine, cyclopentolate
-steroid eye drops

91
Q

What is the difference between:
scleritis
episcleritis
pre-septal cellulitis
orbital cellulitis
optic neuritis?

A

scleritis = inflammation of the sclera, red, painful, watering, decrease in vision –> ophthalmologist, NSAIDs, steroids

episcleritis = red, NOT painful, watering, photophobia, phenylephrine blanches the episcleral vessels but NOT the scleral vessels –> conservative, artificial tears

pre-septal/peri-orbital cellulitis = children, red, swollen, painful eye of acute onset, symptoms associated with fever, ptosis, NO PAIN on moving eye –> referred to secondary care for assessment, oral antibiotics (co-amoxiclav)

orbital cellulitis = red, painful, proptosis (bulging), ptosis, reduced vision, PAIN ON EYE MOVEMENT –> admission to hospital for IV antibiotics, septic screen, CT head

optic neuritis = commonly associated with MS, unilateral decrease in vision, colour vision affected, pain on eye movement, Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD), central scotoma –> MRI and steroids

92
Q

What does retinal detachment present like and how do you treat it?

A

-Sudden painless loss of vision
-Dense shadow that starts peripherally progresses towards the central vision
-A veil or curtain over the field of vision
-Straight lines appear curved
-Central visual loss
-relative afferent pupillary defect

management:
-urgently referred to ophthalmologist for assessment with a slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy
-if caused by diabetes then treat this

93
Q

What is acute epiglottitis?

A

emergency

Caused by h. influenzas B

Do not examine child’s mouth

chin is lifted and pushed forward with hands on floor (tripod position)

DDDD: dysphagia, drooling, dysphonia, distress

—> ceftriaxone, oxygen, endotracheal intubation potentially

94
Q

What is the difference between Non-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy and how do you treat it?

A

SUDDEN VISION LOSS

Non-proliferative = microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots –> observation and if severe panretinal laser photocoagulation

proliferative = neovascularisation –> Intravitreal VEGF inhibitors and pan-retinal photocoagulation laserboth –> glycaemic control

95
Q

What would be the fundoscopy findings of central retinal artery occlusion and central retinal vein occlusion and how do you treat it?

A

Artery:
-sudden unilateral vision loss
-‘cherry spot’ on retina
-pale retina
—> IV acetazolamide, IV mannitol, ocular massage, intraarterial thrombolysis

Vein:
-sudden painless unilateral vision loss
-severe retinal haemorrhages ‘stormy sunset’
—>managed conservatively unless underlying condition, anti-VEGF, laser photocoagulation

96
Q

What is age-related macular degeneration and the different types?

A

Most common cause of blindness
usually elderly women

symptoms:
-reduced vision acuity
-worse in dark
-flashing lights
-wavy lines: Amsler grid testing

investigations:
-fundoscopy: dry or wet?
-slit lamp microscopy

types: WET = subacute presentation, presence of neovascularisation —> anti-VEGF

DRY = gradual onset, Drusen —>give beta-carotene, vit C and E, zinc

97
Q

What is Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

A

seen in patients taking antipsychotic medication OR dopaminergic drugs (such as levodopa) for Parkinson’s disease, usually when the drug is suddenly stopped or the dose reduced

occurs within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic

-raised creatine kinase
-Acute kidney injury (secondary to rhabdomyolysis) and leukocytosis
-pyrexia
-muscle rigidity
-hypertension
-tachycardia and tachypnoea
-agitated delirium with confusion

management:
stop antipsychotics
IV fluids
give dantrolene or bromocriptine in selected cases

98
Q

What is the management of a subarachnoid haemorrhage and how does it present?

A

thunderclap headache with occipital headache with nausea

-non-contrast CT
-only lumbar puncture 12hrs from onset if CT was done MORE than 6hrs of onset and CT was normal: Xanthochromia
-refer to neurosurgery
-oral nimodipine
-coil to treat intracranial aneurysms

99
Q

How do you treat a stroke?

A

Investigations:
-FAST screening tool (public)
-ROSIER score (medical): MUST RULE OUT HYPOGLYCAEMIA first
-non contrast head CT and rule OUT haemorrhagic stroke

acute:
-aspirin 300mg
-Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms or haemorrhage has been definitively excluded
-thrombectomy + thrombolysis if present within 4.5 hrs
-thrombectomy between 6-24hrs
-SAFE swallow assessment

chronic:
-clopidogrel or aspirin + MR dipyridamole if cannot take clopidogrel
-statin if cholesterol >3.5
-carotid artery endarterectomy: if stroke is in carotid territory and stenosis is >70%

If it’s a HAEMORRHAGIC STROKE:
-surgical intervention
-only treat high BP if they present within 6hrs and systolic between 150 and 220
-stop any anticoags and REVERSE it
-avoid statins

100
Q

What is the difference between subdural and an extradural haematoma?

A

Extra: due to trauma, loses then regains then loses consciousness I.E. lucid interval, craniotomy and evacuation of haematoma

sub: CT, observe conservatively, surgical decompression, monitor ICP, stop or reverse anticoagulants

**remember if there is another bleed opposite to the haematoma this might be a contracoup injury

101
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Acute unilateral facial nerve paralysis due to infection, inflammation etc.

-LMN palsy: forehead is affected (opposite for UMN lesion)
-post-auricular pain (behind ear)
-altered taste
-dry eyes

treatment:
-oral prednisolone within 72hrs
-eye care: lubricants and drops as they cannot control eye movements
-refer urgently to ENT if no improvement in 3 weeks

102
Q

What is acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG)?

A

Rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) stops aqueous outflow

risks:
-long sighted (hypermetropia)

symptoms:
-Pain
-eye or head
-semi dilated non-reacting pupil
-decreased acuity
-symptoms worse when in the dark
-hazy cornea

investigations:
-tonimetry to assess raised IOP
gonioscopy

Management:

Emergency:
-combination of eye drops (pilocarpine, beta blocker, alpha-2-agonist)
-IV acetazolamide
-steroids

long term: laser peripheral iridotomy

103
Q

What is primary OPEN-angle glaucoma?

A

often only picked up at routine optometry appointments:
-peripheral visual field loss
-optic disc cupping

treatment:
1st: 360° selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT) to people with an IOP of ≥ 24 mmHg
2nd: prostaglandin analogue eyedrops
3rd: beta-blockers
4th: surgery trabeculectomy

104
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

-no cure-women-20-40 y/o-two types: relapsing-remitting and secondary progressive disease (symptoms between relapses)

-visual: optic neuritis, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening in vision after rise in body temperature)
-sensory: pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia
-motor: spastic weakness, ataxic gate, temor
-urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction

MRI = plaques and Dawson fingers
CSF lumbar puncture = oligoclonal bands

treatment–>
-acute relapse = high dose steroids (methylprednisolone) for 5 days
-prophylaxis = natalizumab (monoclonal antibodies)
-to treat spasticity = gabapentin and baclofen

105
Q

What is idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

classically seen in young, overweight females

headache
blurred vision
papilloedema
enlarged blind spot

Management:
-weight loss
-acetazolamide
-furosemide
-analgesia
-VP shunt
-refer to ophthal/neuro

106
Q

How do you treat a TIA?

A

Aspirin 300mg UNLESS:
-bleeding disorder
-taking an anticoagulant
-taking aspirin already

If more than 1 TIA (crescendo TIA) then admit

MRI (NOT CT HEAD) and carotid Doppler

Long term:
Clopidogrel
Statin
Carotid endarterectomy if in carotid territory >70% stenosis
Cannot drive until seen by a specialist

107
Q

bacterial meningitis management

A

CT head before lumber puncture to rule out coning

Decide whether to lumber puncture or not, and if you cannot same as below, plus blood cultures

Antibiotics and steroids
-IV cefotaxime/cefriaxone (don’t use with calcium)
-(+/- vancomycin if have been an area with drug resistance)
-Newborns and elderly over 50 may require IV amoxicillin
-IV dexamethasone (NOT IN SEPSIS or in children younger than 3 months)
-REPORT The case as close contacts within seven days before onset will be started on chemo prophylaxis e.g. ciprofloxacin (preferred) or rifampicin

108
Q

What bedside test must you always check in a respiratory station?

A

peak flow and reversibility

109
Q

Explain stoma care.

A

three types of stomas: can be permanent or temporary:
-colostomy = large bowel (LIF)
-ileostomy = small bowel (RIF)
-urostomy = bladder (RIF)

-provided with a stoma nurse
-Empty bag when it’s 2/3 full and change the bag every 2-4 days
-Bags can be left on in the shower
-At the start take lots of fluids and small amount of fibre for the first two months
-Blockage foods: nuts, sweetcorn, mushrooms
-Diarrhoea foods: fridges, fruit, vegetables, caffeine, alcohol

110
Q

ACUTE SURGICAL PREP.

A

IV fluids
NBM: 6n2
DVT prophylaxis
IV abx
crossmatch/G&S
Take bloods