Ischemic Heart Disease- Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

More than 90% of acute coronary syndrome events (angina, NSTEMI, STEMI) result from the disruption of _

A

More than 90% of acute coronary syndrome events (angina, NSTEMI, STEMI) result from the disruption of atherosclerotic plaque followed by platelet aggregation and thrombus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atherosclerotic plaques may rupture due to _ or _

A

Atherosclerotic plaques may rupture due to chemical factors that destabilize the lesion or physical stress on the lesion
* Triggers include strenuous physical activity, emotional stress, SNS activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Coronary thrombosis following atherosclerotic plaque rupture is often exacerbated by _

A

Coronary thrombosis following atherosclerotic plaque rupture is often exacerbated by endothelial dysfunction –> leads to vasoconstriction and diminished anti-thrombotic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The 90% lesions have lots of _ and are not as common to rupture; the 30-40% lesions are soft with _ and are more commonly the ones to rupture

A

The 90% lesions have lots of calcium and are not as common to rupture; the 30-40% lesions are soft with cholesterol and are more commonly the ones to rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture will stimulate thrombosis via activation of _

A

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture will stimulate thrombosis via activation of hemostasis
* Endothelial damage –> exposure of the thrombogenic connective tissue to the cirulating blood
* Triggers soft platelet plug (1) and then fibrin clot (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The ACS pathologies that are characterized by partially occlusive thrombus are _

A

The ACS pathologies that are characterized by partially occlusive thrombus are unstable angina and NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The ACS pathology that is characterized by completely obstructive thrombus is _

A

The ACS pathology that is characterized by completely obstructive thrombus is STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The difference between unstable angina and NSTEMI is _

A

The difference between unstable angina and NSTEMI is NSTEMIs have enough blockage that there is necrosis of the tissue
* Troponin is normal in unstable angina, abnormal in NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A common result of acute plaque rupture and coronary artery thrombosis is _

A

A common result of acute plaque rupture and coronary artery thrombosis is myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

With an MI event, blood flow can be spontaneously restored within _ hours

A

With an MI event, blood flow can be spontaneously restored within 12-24 hours
* Endothelium is working to dissolve the thrombus
* However, this is often too late because ischemia can result very quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Only _ minutes of ischemia can cause irreversible myocyte injury called infarct

A

Only 20-30 minutes of ischemia can cause irreversible myocyte injury called infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name some of the factors that determine the severity of an infarction

A
  1. Magnitude and duration of ischemia
  2. Is there collateral coronary flow?
  3. Mass of the myocardium perfused by the blocked coronary artery
  4. Oxygen demand of the myocardium at risk
  5. Degree and timing of reperfusion (good)
  6. Once you do reperfuse, how big is the inflammatory response (reperfusion injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Within 20-30 minutes irreversible cell injury ensues; marked by _ cellular change

A

Within 20-30 minutes irreversible cell injury ensues; marked by loss of nuclei
* An MI occurs when the ischemia is severe enough for long enough to cause irreversible injury and necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During reversible myocyte injury, there is a rapid shift from _ –> _ metabolism

A

During reversible myocyte injury, there is a rapid shift from aerobic –> anaerobic metabolism
* Lactic acid accumulates
* Reduction in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reversible myocyte injury is also associated with abnormal electrolyte ion shifts that can result in _ or _

A

Reversible myocyte injury is also associated with abnormal electrolyte ion shifts that can result in arrhythmias or edema (rising intracellular Na+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infarctions begin in _ layer of the heart and can progress to the entire thickness of the myocardium due to prolonged, total occlusion of _

A

Infarctions begin in subendocardial layer of the heart and can progress to the entire thickness of the myocardium due to prolonged, total occlusion of epicardial coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The subendocardial layer is susceptible to ischemia due to _

A

The subendocardial layer is susceptible to ischemia due to poor collateral flow, being adjacent to high-pressure ventricles, and being furthest from epicardial coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Two possible ECG findings that might suggest subendocardial ischemia:

A
  1. ST depression
  2. T wave inversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The most suggestive finding on the ECG for an MI is _ ; however, _ or _ can also be signs

A

The most suggestive finding on the ECG for an MI is ST segment elevation ; however, ST segment depression or T wave inversion can also be signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Labile T wave inversions in the setting of chest pain are likely to suggest _

A

Labile T wave inversions in the setting of chest pain are likely to suggest myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The ST segment represents _

A

The ST segment represents the period between depolarization and repolarization of the left ventricle
* In a normal state, the ST segment should be isoelectric to the PR segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
A

ST depression in multiple leads; suggestive of ischemia/ infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What medications are adminstered in the setting of unstable angina/ NSTEMI?

A
  1. Beta blockers (metoprolol)
  2. Nitrates (nitroglycerin)
  3. Anti-platelet therapies (aspirin, clopidogrel)
  4. Anticoagulant Therapy (heparin)
  5. ACE inhibitor (lisinopril)
  6. Statin (atorvastatin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Beta blockers are administered for ischemic heart disease for the purpose of _

A

Beta blockers are administered for ischemic heart disease for the purpose of decreasing oxygen demand
* Lower the heart rate –> enhances electrical stability and decreases oxygen demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Beta blockers should be administered in the first 24 hours post MI and should be continued indefinitely because _

A

Beta blockers should be administered in the first 24 hours post MI and should be continued indefinitely because reduces long-term mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Beta blockers should almost always be used for ACS unless patient has _

A

Beta blockers should almost always be used for ACS unless patient has marked bradycardia, severe bronchospasm, hypotension, acute heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nitrates are used in the setting of ACS for the purpose of _

A

Nitrates are used in the setting of ACS for the purpose of venodilation –> decreases preload –> less wall stress –> lower oxygen demand

Additionally, coronary vasodilation improves blood flow, reduces vasospasm, and improves O2 supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Be cautious when using nitrates for right ventricle infarctions because these patients are often _

A

Be cautious when using nitrates for right ventricle infarctions because these patients are often preload-dependent –> nitrates can cause hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Anti-platelet therapies in the context of ACS are very important because _

A

Anti-platelet therapies in the context of ACS are very important because they reduce mortality
* Give them immediately and continue indefinitely
* Often combine aspirin + clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Aspirin works as an anti-platelet therapy by _

A

Aspirin works as an anti-platelet therapy by inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 –> inhibits platelet activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor, Prasugrel all function as _ inhibitors

A

Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor, Prasugrel all function as P2Y12 inhibitors (they block ADP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Heparins are also used in the context of ACS and work by _

A

Heparins are also used in the context of ACS and work by enhancing antithrombin effects
* LMW heparin is technically more effective but is harder to monitor compared to unfractionated heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Severe occlusions require intervention via _

A

Severe occlusions require intervention via percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

All patients who receive a stent need to take a dual platelet therapy of _ + _

A

All patients who receive a stent need to take a dual platelet therapy of aspirin (ASA) + clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To diagnose a STEMI on ECG, we must see ST segment elevation > _ mm in at least two anatomically contiguous leads

A

To diagnose a STEMI on ECG, we must see ST segment elevation > 1 mm in at least two anatomically contiguous leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Or we can diagnose STEMI if there is > _ mm elevation in 2 contiguous precordial leads

A

Or we can diagnose STEMI if there is > 2 mm elevation in two contiguous precordial leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

We also proceed with STEMI treatment if we see _

A

We also proceed with STEMI treatment if we see new left bundle branch block
* LBBB can hide the ST elevation so we proceed with treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ST elevation in lead II, III, aVF

A

Lead II, III, aVF: inferior infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ST elevation in lead V2-V4

A

Lead V2-V4: anterior infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ST elevation in lead V1-V4

A

Lead V1-V4: anteroseptal infarction

41
Q

ST elevation in I, aVL, V5, V6

A

Lead I, aVL, V5, V6: lateral infarction

42
Q

A left bundle branch block on ECG suggests _ MI

A

A left bundle branch block on ECG suggests anterior MI

43
Q

ST elevation in V4R

A

V4R: right ventricle infarction

44
Q

ST depressions in V1, V2

A

ST depressions in V1, V2: posterior infarction

45
Q

“Electrically silent” on ECG

A

“Electrically silent” on ECG: Left circumflex occlusion

46
Q

Infarction on the anterior or anteroseptal portion of the heart is a problem at the _

A

Infarction on the anterior or anteroseptal portion of the heart is a problem at the left anterior descending artery (LAD)

47
Q

Infarction on the lateral portion of the heart is most often a problem of the _

A

Infarction on the lateral portion of the heart is most often a problem of the left circumflex, can sometimes be LAD

48
Q

Infarction in the inferior portion of the heart is a problem of the _

A

Infarction in the inferior portion of the heart is a problem of the right coronary artery

49
Q

ST elevation in V4R, which suggests a right ventricle MI is usually a problem of the _

A

ST elevation in V4R, which suggests a right ventricle MI is usually a problem of the right coronary artery

50
Q

V1 and V2 ST depressions, which suggest posterior MI, is a problem of _

A

V1 and V2 ST depressions, which suggest posterior MI, is a problem of right coronary artery (usually) can sometimes be the left circumflex

51
Q

Pathologic Q waves are indicative of _

A

Pathologic Q waves are indicative of prior transmural MI

52
Q

3 criteria for Q waves to be “pathologic”

A

Criteria for Q waves to be pathologic:
1. Q waves > 1 mm wide
2. Q waves > 25% of QRS amplitude
3. Pathologic Q waves should be present in at least 2 contiguous leads

53
Q

Two immediate treatment options in treating a STEMI are _ or _

A

Two immediate treatment options in treating a STEMI are primary PCI or fibrinolytic therapy
* PCI is the ideal treatment option; fibrinolytics are used when there is no access to a cath lab
* The goal is to restore flow to the epicardial vessels as soon as possible

54
Q

Goals in STEMI treatment

A
  1. Restore epicardial blood flow (salvage muscle)
  2. Prevent further thrombus formation (antiplatelets, anticoagulants)
  3. Restore the balance between O2 supply and demand (nitrates, beta blockers)
55
Q

Name 3 major complications post MI

A
  1. Decreased contractility (inc risk of thrombus)
  2. Electrical instability (arrhythmias)
  3. Tissue necrosis (papillary muscle tear, VSD, ventricular rupture)
56
Q

The most common complication of an MI (both during and after) is _

A

The most common complication of an MI (both during and after) is arrhythmias
* Impaired perfusion to the conduction system
* Accumulation of toxic metabolic products
* Autonomic stimulation
* Sometimes even caused by the drugs that we give

57
Q
A

Ventricular fibrillation

58
Q
A

Ventricular tachycardia

59
Q

Ischemia from a myocardial infarction results in:
impaired contractility which is _ dysfunction &
increased myocardial stiffness which is _ dysfunction

A

Ischemia from a myocardial infarction results in:
impaired contractility which is systolic dysfunction &
increased myocardial stiffness which is diastolic dysfunction

60
Q

Left heart failure is a major complication of MI that presents with _ and can be treated with _

A

Left heart failure is a major complication of MI that presents with dyspnea, rales, S3, peripheral edema, orthopnea and can be treated with ACE inhibitors, beta blocks, diuretics

61
Q

Left heart failure can progress to cardiogenic shock if the cardiac output reduces enough and SBP drops below _

A

Left heart failure can progress to cardiogenic shock if the cardiac output reduces enough and SBP drops below 90

62
Q

Recall, that if you administer nitroglycerin to a patient and they become very hypotensive, you probably have _ involvement

A

Recall, that if you administer nitroglycerin to a patient and they become very hypotensive, you probably have right ventricular involvement
* About 1/3 of patients with LV inferior wall infarction will also have RV involvement

63
Q

What does a right ventricular infarction look like on ECG?

A

ST elevation in lead III > II and ST elevation in V4R

64
Q

What are the signs of right heart failure (possibly from RV infarction)

A

Elevated JVP, hypotension, clear lungs

65
Q

What is the treatment plan for right ventricular infarction?

A

Lots of VOLUME!

66
Q

Mitral papillary muscle rupture is a post-MI complication that can occur _ days post MI and can lead to _

A

Mitral papillary muscle rupture is a post-MI complication that can occur 3-5 days post MI and can lead to severe mitral regurgitation (holosystolic murmur)

67
Q

The most common site of mitral papillary muscle tear is the _ muscle

A

The most common site of mitral papillary muscle tear is the posteromedial papillary muscle
* Recall, it only has one single arterial blood supply (the RCA)

68
Q

Ventricular septal rupture is a post MI complication that can occur _ days post MI and causes _

A

Ventricular septal rupture is a post MI complication that can occur 3-7 days post MI and causes VSD
* A hole forms in the interventricular septum: causes shunting from LV –> RV
* This causes a holosystolic murmur
* Diagnosis with echo
* This can lead to heart failure due to an overload of pulmonary circulation

69
Q

Ventricular free wall rupture is a post MI complication that can occur within _ days of an MI

A

Ventricular free wall rupture is a post MI complication that can occur within 14 days of an MI
* Blood fills the pericardial splace –> cardiogenic shock/ tamponade
* This can form a pseudoaneurysm if the thrombus forms to plug the rupture

70
Q

Describe the most common acute findings/ complication after an MI

A

Pericarditis involves inflammation extending from the injured myocardium to the pericardium
* Patients experience sharp, pleuritic pain, fever, pericardial friction rub on auscultation
* We treat with aspirin and avoid anticoagulants

71
Q

As opposed to acute pericarditis which happens early on, _ is a pericarditis that occurs weeks later

A

As opposed to acute pericarditis which happens early on, Dressler syndrome is a complication that occurs weeks later

72
Q

Dressler syndrome, which develops weeks after an MI is _

A

Dressler syndrome, which develops weeks after an MI is immune process directed against necrotic myocardium
* We treat with aspirin and NSAIDs

73
Q
A
  • QRS duration is prolonged beyond normal (.10 seconds)
  • The normal Q wave in lead V5 or V6 that represents septal depolarization is absent
  • There is no secondary R’ wave in VI as occurs in RBBE

Several other ECG changes that may occur in LBBB are seen in this ECG although they are not essential to make the diagnosis. The QRS complexes in leads facing the left ventricle (I, aVL and V6) show an M shaped pattern and there are secondary changes in the ST segments which are depressed and accompanied by T wave inversion. The initial R waves that are normally seen in the right sided precordial leads are absent in this record and the complexes in these leads are changes in these leads – the ST segments are elevated and the T waves are tall. As explained elsewhere these changes should not be interpreted to indicate ischaemia in the presence of LBBB

74
Q

Describe what to look for in a left bundle branch block on ECG

A
  1. Prolonged QRS (more than 3 small boxes)
  2. rS or QS wave in V1
  3. Broad and notched/slurred R wave in lead I and V6
75
Q
A
76
Q

_ is a sudden increase in the tempo or severity of anginal episodes that occur at less exertion or at rest

A

Unstable angina is a sudden increase in the tempo or severity of anginal episodes that occur at less exertion or at rest
* Result of rupture of unstable atherosclerotic plaque with subsequent platlet aggregation and thrombosis
* Can progress to NSTEMI

77
Q

_ is a predictable transient chest discomfort during exertion or emotional stress

A

Chronic stable angina is a predictable transient chest discomfort during exertion or emotional stress
* Generally caused by fixed obstructive atherosclerotic plaque in at least one coronary artery
* Caused by mismatch between oxygen supply and demand
* Not associated with cardiomyocyte death

78
Q

Recall that the most important factor in oxygen supply and demand is the _

A

Recall that the most important factor in oxygen supply and demand is the radius of coronary arteries

79
Q

Metabolic factors that contribute to vascular tone:

A

Metabolic factors that contribute to vascular tone:
* Acidosis –> vasodilation
* Hypoxia –> vasodilation
* Citrate –> vasodilation
* Adenosine –> vasodilation

80
Q

Endothelial factors that contribute to vascular tone:

A

Endothelial factors that contribute to vascular tone:
* Nitric oxide –> vasodilation
* Endothelin-1 –> vasoconstriction

81
Q

The humoral factors that contribute to vascular tone:

A

The humoral factors that contribute to vascular tone:
* Angiotensin II –> vasoconstriction
* Prostaglandins –> vasodilation

82
Q

The neural factors that contribute to vascular tone:

A

The neural factors that contribute to vascular tone:
* alpha1, alpha2 –> vasoconstriction
* beta2 –> vasodilation
* serotonin –> vasodilation
* acetylcholine –> vasodilation

83
Q

The most important factors for determining vascular tone and vascular resistance are _ and _

A

The most important factors for determining vascular tone and vascular resistance are metabolic molecules and nitric oxide (from the endothelial cells)

84
Q

Endothelial-dependent vasodilators like NO work via a _ mechanism

A

Endothelial-dependent vasodilators like NO work via a paracrine mechanism

85
Q

_ is the most potent known endogenous vasodilator; it tends to get disrupted by atherosclerosis

A

NO is the most potent known endogenous vasodilator; it tends to get disrupted by atherosclerosis
* Atherosclerosis causes endothelial dysfunction –> depletes NO

86
Q

Atherosclerosis decreases oxygen supply through 2 mechanisms:

A

Atherosclerosis decreases oxygen supply through 2 mechanisms:
1. Fixed decrease in radius (coronary stenosis)
2. Decrease in dynamic vasodilation (endothelial dysfunction –> decreases NO)

87
Q

The primary intervention for stable angina is _

A

The primary intervention for stable angina is beta bocker, nitrate, aspirin, statin

88
Q

The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand are _ , _ , and _

A

The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand are heart rate , wall tension , and contractility
* These are all proportional to oxygen demand

89
Q

Define wall stress

A

Wall stress = pressure * radius / 2 * wall thickness

90
Q

Chronic stable angina is mostly a (supply/ demand) problem

A

Chronic stable angina is mostly a demand problem
* Treatment is mostly directed at reducing demand

91
Q

Atherosclerosis causes a (supply/ demand) problem

A

Atherosclerosis causes a supply problem

92
Q

The major circulating mediators of demand are _

A

The major circulating mediators of demand are catecholamines
* Physical or emotional stress –> NE, E
* B1 stimulation Increase in contractility and heart rate –> increases myocardial oxygen demand

93
Q

William Marrow

A

V1 and V6
LBBB: William
RBBB: Marrow

94
Q

Beta blockers block B1 on ventricular myocytes to _

A

Beta blockers block B1 on ventricular myocytes to decrease contractility

95
Q

Beta blockers block B1 on nodal cells to _

A

Beta blockers block B1 on nodal cells to decrease heart rate

96
Q

Additionally, beta blockers increase the time spent in _

A

Additionally, beta blockers increase the time spent in diastole –> increases myocardial oxygen supply

97
Q

How can we blunt the reflex tachycardia associated with the administration of nitrates?

A

Nitrates –> arteriodilation –> reflex tachycardia to compensate for drop in BP –> we can give beta-blockers to blunt this

98
Q

Nitrates are contraindicated for patients taking _

A

Nitrates are contraindicated for patients taking phosphodiesterase inhibitors like viagra

99
Q

Nitrate tolerance develops over _ weeks

A

Nitrate tolerance develops over 1-3 weeks
* Can be prevented by daily withdrawal of nitrates at night