ITE Heme Flashcards

1
Q

Hypothermia (increases/decreases) risk of bacterial infection compared to normothermic pts

A

increases

- hypothermia decreases regional blood flow, oxygen tension, and chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Trauma triad of death

A
  1. Hypothermia
  2. Coagulopathy
  3. Acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(Hyper/Hypo)ventilation increases the risk of citrate toxicity

A

Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ is more likely to cause citrate toxicity compared with other blood products bc more citrate is used

A

FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

________ contains all clotting factors, fibrinogen, albumin, electrolytes, physiologic anticoagulants (prot C and S), and citrate

A

FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recipients serum is mixed with commercially supplied RBCs containing selected antigens commonly implicated in hemolytic transfusion reactions

A

Antibody screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Recipients serum is mixed with donor RBCs

A

Crossmatching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recipients RBCs are mixed with commercially supplied anti-A and anti-B sera

A

ABO typing

  • most important
  • ABO incompatibility will cause hemolytic rxns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4 Ts of HIT

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Timing of reduced plt count
  3. Presence of thrombosis
  4. Exclusion of oTher thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Having a platelet count of > _____ is a risk factor for heparin resistance

A

300,000/mm^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heparin resistance is defined as an ACT of _____ after 500 U/kg of IV heparin has been administered

A

< 480

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Antithrombin levels ____ of normal is a risk factor for development of heparin resistance

A

< 60% of normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of heparin resistance

A
  1. supplemental heparin
  2. AT3
  3. FFP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_____ are separated from RRBCs mainly by centrifugation, and from leukocytes by leukocyte reduction filters

A

Platelets

*but small amounts of RBCs and leukocytes are still present in platelet concentrates and cause RH sensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______ is the most common blood product associated with TRALI

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Platelets lose their activity if ______ and should be stored at ____ deg C

A

refridgerated

20 deg C

17
Q

If a pt develops contrast-induced nephropathy and continues to take metformin it can ________

A

accumulate to toxic levels resulting in lactic acidosis

18
Q

Can metformin be continued through the perioperative period?

19
Q

Anemia causes a (Right/Left) shift of oxygen hgb dissociation curve? This allows for (Higher/lower) hgb affinity to oxygen, which results in greater oxygen release into tissue.

A

Right shift
lower

*anemia is a disease state of low hgb. The oxygen extraction ratio is increased

20
Q

The body compensates for anemia by (3)

A
  1. increasing CO
  2. redistributing flow to favor heart and brain
  3. oxygen extraction ratio is increased (R shift)
21
Q

_______ is given to pts with Type 1 von willebrand disease (partial decrease in VWF) prior to surgery

A

desmopressin (DDAVP)

- increases release of von Willebrand factor from endothelial cells

22
Q

________ is a common genetically inherited quantitative or qualitative dysfunction of von willebrand factor

A

Von willebrand disease

23
Q

vWD is divided into 3 major categories:

A
  1. Partial quantitative deficiency (type I)
  2. Qualitative deficiency (type II)
  3. Total deficiency (type III)
24
Q

_______ is given to pts with Type III von willebrand disease (total depletion) prior to surgery

A

vWF concentrate

- DDAVP has no effect

25
DDAVP trials are contraindicated in pts with type IIB von Willebrand Disease bc of _____ and ____
thrombocytopenia and thrombotic complications | by decreasing plt count
26
The anticoagulant response to enoxaparin (LMWH) can be monitored by measuring _____ activity
factor Xa activity
27
(LMWH/UFH) is suitable for outpt use
LMWH - one or twice daily dosing - more predictable level of ac - does not need routine monitoring
28
Unfractionated heparin exerts its anticoagulation effects by _____
binding to and enhancing effects of AT3 by several thousand folds *AT3 inactivates multiple coagulant factors, esp factor II (thrombin)
29
Most preferred way to reverse INR?
Prothrombin complex concentrate - contains all Vit K dependent coag factors II, VII, IX, X (2790) *more consistent and rapid than FFP
30
Warfarin MOA
interferes with hepatic synthesis of Vit K dependent coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X (2790), Protein C and S
31
Half life of warfarin
2-4 days
32
________ is the most common inherited bleeding disorder
Von Willebrand disease
33
Von willebrand factor is a protein that _____
assists platelets to adhere to sites of vascular injury | and stabilizes clotting factor VIII
34
What are all of the blood products that can be given to pts with von willebrand disease?
1. VWF concentrates 2. desmopressin (DDAVP) 3. Cryoprecipitate
35
Cryoprecipitate contains what?
1. Factor VIII 2. VWF 3. Factor XIII 4. Fibrinogen
36
PTT measures the speed of clotting of the ______ pathway, which involves factors ______
intrinsic I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII (89 11 13)
37
PT measures the speed of clotting of the ______ pathway, which involves factors ______
Extrinsic I, II, V, VII, X (710)