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Flashcards in ITIL Exam A & B Deck (80)
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1
Q
  1. What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change
    management?
    a) Changes to a mainframe computer
    b) Changes to business strategy
    c) Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
    d) The retirement of a service
A

1 B

05-51 ST 4.2.4.3
A change request is a formal communication seeking an alteration to one or more configuration items (CIs). Services, SLAs and computers are examples of CIs. A business strategy is not normally a CI and would be out of scope for change management.

2
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?

a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and manage IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

A

2 A

02-09 SO 1.1.1
Each of these are a purpose of service operation except for option A, undertaking testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs. Option A is part of service transition.

3
Q
  1. What does the term IT operations control refer to?

a) Managing the technical and applications management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
c) A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and
applications
d) A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not available

A

3 B

06-02 SO 6.5.1.1
IT operations control oversees the execution and monitoring of the operational activities and events in the IT infrastructure.

4
Q
  1. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?

a) Service level management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
d) Incident management

A

4 C

05-63 ST 4.3.1
Part of SACM’s purpose is to maintain accurate information about assets, including the relationship between assets.

5
Q
  1. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analysing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service
management

A

5 A

07-02 SD 3.7.4.1
RACI is a responsibility model used by ITIL to help define roles and responsibilities.

6
Q
  1. Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that
assists in the provision of services
b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key targets
and responsibilities of both parties
c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the
customer
d) An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix and response
times

A

6 A

03-12 SD 4.3.4
A is the OLA, B is the definition of an SLA, C doesn’t correspond to an ITIL definition, D involves a third party and is a contract.

7
Q
  1. What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?

a) To monitor and report availability of components
b) To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business

A

7 D

05-42 SD 4.4.1
A is a supporting element of availability management, not a main purpose. B relates to service level management. Availability management does not offer guarantees as identified in C. D is the
main purpose of availability management: - “to ensure that the level of availability delivered in all IT services meets the agreed availability needs… of the business.”

8
Q
  1. Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
  2. Introducing new services
  3. Decommissioning services
  4. Transfer of services between service providers

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

A

8 C

02-07 ST 1.1.1
All three are in scope for service transition as all three involve major change.

9
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?

a) Service optimization
b) Service transition
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

A

9 A

02-02 SS 1.2
Service optimization is the correct answer

10
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system
    (CMS) is CORRECT?

a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
b) There may be more than one CMS
c) There should not be more than one configuration management database (CMDB)
d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS

A

10 D

03-18 ST 4.3.4.3
A: a CMS can contain corporate data about users / customers such as location or department. B and C: there may be more than one CMDB but they will be part of a single CMS. D is correct as a CMS still helps to control and report on the infrastructure when IT services are outsourced.

11
Q
  1. What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?

a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
b) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and component capacity management
c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology capacity management
d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and
component capacity management

A

11 A

05-45 SD 4.5.4.3
Book answer…business, service and component capacity management are the three sub-processes

12
Q
  1. Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
  2. Copies of purchased software
  3. Copies of internally developed software
  4. Relevant licence documentation
  5. The change schedule

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

A

12 D

03-19 ST 4.3.4.4
The DML contains master copies of all controlled software in an organization … “along with licence documents or information”. The change schedule would not be included.

13
Q
  1. Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on
    a regular basis?

a) Supplier management
b) Service level management
c) Service portfolio management
d) Demand management

A

13 B

05-31 SD 4.3.1
Service level management has responsibility for negotiating and agreeing OLAs.

14
Q
  1. Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?

a) The service owner
b) The chief information officer
c) Knowledge management
d) The process owner

A

14 D

07-01 SD 6.3.2
Book answer. A process owner should ensure process documentation is current and available.

15
Q
  1. Which of the following does the release and deployment management process
    address?
  2. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
  3. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
  4. Authorizing changes to support the process

a) 1 and 2 only
b) All of the above
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

A

15 A

05-61 ST 4.4.1
The two correct answers (1 and 2) are included in release and deployment objectives. Option 3 is addressed by change management.

16
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristics of every process?
  2. It is measurable
  3. It delivers a specific result
  4. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

A

16 D

01-10 SS 2.2.2
Measurability, delivery of specific results, and delivery of results to a customer or stakeholder are all characteristics of a process.

17
Q
  1. Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
  2. It is vendor-neutral
  3. It is non-prescriptive
  4. It is best practice
  5. It is a standard

a) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

A

17 B

01-02 SD 1.4
Option 4 is incorrect, ITIL is not a standard: ISO/IEC 20000 would be an example of a standard. ITIL is vendor-neutral, nonprescriptive, and provides a best practice framework.

18
Q
  1. Who should be granted access to the information security policy?

a) Senior business managers and IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information security management staff only

A

18 C

05-43 SD 4.7.4.1
In most cases the policies should be widely available to all customers and users and referenced in SLAs, OLAs and UCs.

19
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
  2. Agreed and documented business requirements
  3. A plan for transition of the service
  4. Requirements for new or changed processes
  5. Metrics to measure the service

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

A

19 D

03-14 SD App A
All of the elements identified are included in the service design package passed to service transition.

20
Q
  1. Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
  2. A tool to store definitive versions of software
  3. A workflow tool for managing changes
  4. An automated software distribution tool
  5. Testing and validation tools

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

A

20 C

08-02 SS 7.1
1 would be used to support a DML. 2 helps change management. 3 is a release and deployment tool. 4 can help with

21
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about problem management is/are CORRECT?
  2. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a configuration item (CI) are submitted through change management
  3. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

A

21 C

05-72 SO 4.4.2 and 4.4.6.4
Book answer. They are both valid roles for problem management.

22
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?

a) Dealing with service requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
d) Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met

A

22 A

05-82 SO 4.3.1
Request fulfilment is the process responsible for dealing with service requests from the users. ‘All requests’ (B) is too wide a scope for the process. Change management looks after change requests (C). Service level management is responsible for D.

23
Q
  1. Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?

a) The customer’s perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service

A

23 A

04-02 SS 3.2.3
D is incorrect; customer preferences drive value perception. C is incorrect; delivering on customer outcomes is vital. B is incorrect; the value of a service can be financial but other factors are also relevant. A is correct; customer perception is a vital element in defining how much a customer values a service.

24
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is MOST correct?

a) External customers should receive better customer service because they pay for their IT services
b) Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay employee salaries
c) The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the most money
d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service that has been agreed

A

24 D

01-04 SS 3.2.1.2
D is the correct response. Both internal and external customers should be provided with the agreed level of service, and with the same level of customer service.

25
Q
  1. Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?

a) Capabilities
b) Cost
c) Risk
d) Value

A

25 D

01-03 SS 2.1.1
A service is a means of delivering value to customers. IT needs capabilities to deliver services. Cost and risk are what IT helps to manage.

26
Q
  1. Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management (SLM) process?

a) Designing the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service

A

26 C

05-31 SD 4.3.5.6
C is correct: monitoring the SLAs and performance against them is a vital part of the service level management process. A - designing the CMS is a service asset and configuration management activity. B – technology metrics are likely to be created within capacity management or other design processes. D – training the service desk is a service desk role.

27
Q
  1. Which one of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices

A

27 A

05-81 SO 4.1.1
A - the ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action is provided by event management. B includes some incident management responsibilities. C is a technical management task. D is likely to be shared between availability management and service level management.

28
Q
  1. Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?
    a) The version information of all software
    b) The organizational structure of the company
    c) Asset information
    d) Details of all operational services
A

28 D

05-41 SD 4.2.1
The service catalogue should contain details of all operational services.

29
Q
  1. What does “Warranty of a service” mean?

a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security

A

29 D

03-01 SS 2.1.6
A is part of the definition of utility. B is unrealistic. C could be feasible as a warranty statement from another industry but is not the definition of warranty as used by ITIL. D is a good summary of warranty as defined by ITIL.

30
Q
  1. Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

a) Understand the business vision and objectives
b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

A

30 A

04-09 CSI 3.1
The improvement approach begins with embracing the vision by understanding the high-level business objectives.

31
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?

a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
b) It means known incident types never recur
c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve

A

31 C

05-71 SO 4.2.4.2
Incident models are designed to provide reusable steps that can be used to restore service after known incident types.

32
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?

a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, escalation, investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure
c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, escalation, resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure
d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, escalation, prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure

A

32 A

05-71 SO 4.2.5
The correct order is given in the diagram in the incident management process, and in the subsections of 4.2.5.

33
Q
  1. Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the
    required metrics for new or changed services?

a) Service design
b) Service operation
c) Service strategy
d) Service delivery

A

33 A

04-04 SD 3.1.1
Measurements and metrics should be included in the design for a new or changed service.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
  2. IT service continuity management
  3. Information security management
  4. Service catalogue management

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

A

34 D

05-43 05-46 SD 4.7.2 SD 4.6.5.2
IT service continuity management carries out risk assessment as part of defining the requirements and strategy. Information security
also needs to analyse security risks before taking action to mitigate them. Service catalogue management does not carry out these assessments.

35
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service improvement (CSI)?

a) Process metrics
b) Service metrics
c) Personnel metrics
d) Technology metrics

A

35 C

04-10 CSI 5.5
Personnel metrics are not one of the three types of metrics described in CSI

36
Q
  1. Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management system (CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is CORRECT?

a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS

A

36 B

03-16 ST 4.7.4.3
A is the wrong way round. C is incorrect as the SKMS contains more information than the CMS. D is incorrect as the CMS is part of the SKMS.

37
Q
  1. What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?

a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made
during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether they should be authorized
d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so
that no unacceptable delays occur

A

37 C

05-51 ST 4.2.5.11
The emergency change advisory board (ECAB) provides assistance in the authorization of emergency changes.

38
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
  2. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between
    IT and its users for all operational issues
  3. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process
    a) 2 only
    b) 1 only
    c) Both of the above
    d) Neither of the above
A

38 B

06-01 SO 6.3
The service desk should be the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-day basis. The service desk manager may also be the incident management process owner but would not normally be the owner of problem management.

39
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the four Ps of service design?

a) Planning, products, position, processes
b) Planning, perspective, position, people
c) Perspective, partners, problems, people
d) People, partners, products, processes

A

39 D

04-03 SD 3.1.5
Book answer: people, processes, products (services, technology and tools) and partners (suppliers, manufacturers and vendors).

40
Q
  1. Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a
    problem workaround is found?

a) The problem record is closed
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented within it
c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented on all related incident records
d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a
request for change(RFC)

A

40 B

05-72 SO 4.4.5.6
A is incorrect; the problem record must remain open as it hasn’t yet been resolved. B is correct to document the workaround on the problem record, not on each Incident record [C], nor on an RFC [D].

41
Q

1 Input from which processes could be considered by service level management when
negotiating service level agreements (SLA)?

a) All other ITIL processes
b) Capacity management and availability management only
c) Incident management and problem management only
d) Change management and release and deployment management only

A

1 A

05-31 SD 4.3.5.2
“Representatives of all of the other processes need to be consulted for their opinion on what targets can be realistically achieved.”

42
Q

2 Which one of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?

a) They are pre-authorized by change management
b) They follow a procedure or work instruction
c) They are low risk
d) They must be implemented as soon as possible

A

2 D

05-51 ST 4.2.4.3
Standard changes would not normally need to be implemented as soon as was possible, whereas emergency changes would.

43
Q

3 Which of the following statements about the service desk are CORRECT?

  1. It provides a single point of contact between the service provider and users
  2. It manages incidents and service requests
  3. It is a service management process
  4. Service desk staff try to restore service as quickly as possible

a) All of the above
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2 and 3 only

A

3 B

06-01 SO 6.3.2
The service desk is a function and not a process.

44
Q

4 Which of the following statements about functions are CORRECT?

  1. They may include tools
  2. They are groups that use resources to carry out one or more activities
  3. One person or group may perform multiple functions
  4. They are more costly to implement compared to processes

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

A

4 A

01-09 SS 2.2.3.1
Functions are not described as being more costly than processes and this would depend on the function or process being considered.

45
Q

5 Which one of the following is the BEST description of the activities carried out by
facilities management?

a) The management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network access
b) Advice and guidance to IT operations on methodology and tools for managing IT services
c) Management of the physical IT environment such as a data centre or computer room
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

A

5 C

06-02 SO 6.5.1
“Facilities management refers to the management of the physical IT environment, typically a data centre or computer rooms”.

46
Q

6 Which process would assist with the identification and resolution of any incidents and problems associated with service or component performance?

a) Capacity management
b) Supplier management
c) Technology management
d) Change management

A

6 A

05-45 SD 4.5.2
Performance issues are within the scope of capacity management.

47
Q

7 Which one of the following statements about the known error database (KEDB) is MOST correct?

a) The KEDB is the same database as the service knowledge management system (SKMS)
b) The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process
c) Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. This can be done by giving access to as many technicians as possible to create new
records
d) Access to the KEDB should be limited to the service desk

A

7 B

03-32 SO 4.4.7.2
A – The KEDB is part of the SKMS, NOT the same thing. B is correct. C – Duplication should be avoided but by RESTRICTING access. D – Yes, the service desk should use it but they are NOT the only ones.

48
Q

8 Which of the following statements about key performance indicators (KPIs) and metrics are CORRECT?

  1. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service
  2. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor
  3. Metrics can be used to identify improvement opportunities
  4. KPIs can be both qualitative and quantitative

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

A

8 D

04-10 CSI 4.1.12 5.5
Each statement is a summary of the book content.

49
Q

9 Which one of the following maintains relationships between all service components?

a) The capacity plan
b) The definitive media library
c) The configuration management system
d) A service level agreement

A

9 C

03-18 ST 4.3.4.3
The configuration management system (CMS) is responsible via its various data sources (CMDBs, etc) for maintaining these relationships.

50
Q

10 Should a customer’s request for a new service ALWAYS be fulfilled?

a) Yes – if they are an external customer as they are paying for the service
b) No – if they are an internal customer as they are not always paying for the service
c) No – it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before requests are fulfilled
d) Yes – the service provider should ensure that all requests for new services are fulfilled

A

10 C

01-04 SS 3.2.1.2
The service provider should ensure due diligence is carried out against the customer’s requirements, irrespective of whether they are internal or external customers.

51
Q

11 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

  1. Problem management can support the service desk by providing known errors to speed up incident resolution
  2. Problem management is the only source of information to service level management about the impact of changes

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

A

11 A

05-72 SO 4.4.6.4
Problem management is the source of known errors but change and service asset and configuration management are likely to be other sources of information about the impact of changes.

52
Q

12 A failure has occurred on a system and is detected by a monitoring tool. This system supports a live IT service. When should an incident be raised?

a) Only when users notice the failure
b) An incident should not be raised if the technicians have seen this before and have a workaround
c) Only if the failure results in a service level being breached
d) Immediately, to limit or prevent impact on users

A

12 D

05-71 SO 4.2.5
A – There do not need to be discernable impacts to the user for an incident to be raised. B – Even if a workaround is available it needs to be recorded to measure any on-going impact of the incident. C - All incidents must be recorded. D – Correct, in order to prevent loss of service or to restore service as soon as possible.

53
Q

13 Which of the following could be considered stakeholders in a service management project?

  1. Users
  2. Customers
  3. Suppliers
  4. Functions

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

A

13 D

01-08 SS 2.1.5
D is the correct response. Stakeholders can be both internal and external entities. An example of a function as a stakeholder could be the service desk, technical management or application management functions.

54
Q

14 Which of the following activities does service asset and configuration management ensure are performed?

  1. Configuration items (CIs) are identified
  2. CIs are baselined
  3. Changes to CIs are controlled

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

A

14 A

05-63 ST 4.3.2
All activities are part of the scope of service asset and configuration management.

55
Q

15 Which of the following aspects of service design should be considered when designing a service solution?

  1. Measurement methods and metrics
  2. Management information systems and tools
  3. Technology architectures
  4. The processes required

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

A

15 D

04-04 SD 3.1.1
All of these items are aspects of service design.

56
Q

16 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for ALL processes?

a) They define functions as part of their design
b) They deliver results to a customer or stakeholder
c) They are carried out by an external service provider in support of a customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

A

16 B

01-10 SS 2.2.2
A – Process design would involve allocation of activities to functions but not their definition. B – Correct – processes deliver results or they would not be worthwhile. C – Not ALL processes are carried out by external providers. D – Is a description of a function.

57
Q

17 Which process is primarily responsible for packaging, building, testing and deploying services?

a) Transition planning and support
b) Release and deployment management
c) Service asset and configuration management
d) Service catalogue management

A

17 B

05-61 ST 4.4.2
All are activities performed by release and deployment management.

58
Q

18 Which one of the following is the BEST example of a workaround?

a) A technician installs a script to temporarily divert prints to an alternative printer until a permanent fix is applied
b) A technician tries several ways to solve an incident. One of them works, although they do not know which one
c) After reporting the incident to the service desk, the user works on alternative tasks while the problem is identified and resolved
d) A device works intermittently, allowing the user to continue working at degraded levels of performance while the technician diagnoses the incident

A

18 A

03-30 SO 4.4.5.6
A is a good example of a workaround which is not a permanent solution but which overcomes the original incident. B is a ‘lucky’ incident resolution and unlikely to be repeatable. C does not allow the user to continue with their original task. D is an incident under investigation.

59
Q

19 Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?

  1. Request management
  2. Service catalogue management
  3. Detection and monitoring
  4. Design and modelling

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above

A

19 D

08-02 SS 7.1
All four areas can be assisted by technology.

60
Q

20 Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of stages in the Deming Cycle?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

A

20 D

03-42 CSI 3.8
The four key stages of the cycle are Plan, Do, Check and Act.

61
Q

21 Which two processes will be involved the MOST in negotiating and agreeing contracts for the provision of recovery capability to support continuity plans?

a) Service level management and capacity management
b) Supplier management and service level management
c) IT service continuity management and service level management
d) IT service continuity management and supplier management

A

21 D

05-46 SD 4.6.1
ITSC provides the subject matter expertise and supplier management provides the contract negotiation and selection process. SLM also has a role in underpinning contracts but is not as significant in this respect as the other two processes.

62
Q

22 Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incident model?

a) The template that defines the incident logging form used for reporting incidents
b) A type of incident involving a standard (or model) type of configuration item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of
incident
d) An incident that is easy to solve

A

22 C

05-71 SO 4.2.4.2
C matches the description of an incident model.

63
Q

23 What roles are defined in the RACI model?

a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
b) Responsible, Achievable, Consulted, Informed
c) Realistic, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
d) Responsible, Accountable, Corrected, Informed

A

23 A

07-02 SD 3.7.4.1
Roles are Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed.

64
Q

24 Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?

a) Continual service improvement
b) Service operation
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

A

24 D

02-03 SS 1.1.1
Deciding what services should be offered and to whom is an integral part of service strategy.

65
Q

25 Which of the following does continual service improvement (CSI) provide guidance on?

  1. How to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
  2. How to improve services
  3. Improvement of all stages of the service lifecycle

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

A

25 D

02-11 CSI 1.1.1 1.
CSI looks for ways to improve process effectiveness and efficiency, as well as cost effectiveness. 2. CSI identifies and implements improvements to IT services 3. CSI improvement activities support each lifecycle stage: service strategy, service design, service transition, service operation, and CSI itself.

66
Q

26 Which of the following is a type of service level agreement (SLA) described in the ITIL service design publication?

a) Priority-based SLA
b) Technology-based SLA
c) Location-based SLA
d) Customer-based SLA

A

26 D

05-31 SD 4.3.5.1
Priority-based, technology-based and location-based SLAs are not discussed in service design.

67
Q

27 Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed service level has been impacted
b) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or
improvement programme

A

27 B

03-24 SO 4.1
A and C may cause an event to be generated. D is a meeting. B closely matches the definition of an event in service operation.

68
Q

28 Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?

a) Customers
b) IT Senior management
c) Financial management for IT services
d) Suppliers

A

28 A

04-02 SS 3.2.3
Value is viewed as the level to which the service meets customer’s expectations and therefore they make the ultimate decision on whether the service will drive value.

69
Q

29 Which of the following should be treated as an incident?

  1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
  2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
  3. A network component fails but the user is not aware of any disruption to service
  4. A user contacts the service desk about the slow performance of an application

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above

A

29 A

03-26 SO 4.2
An incident is “an unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service… or a failure of a CI that has not yet impacted an IT service…”. The inability to access an IT service as agreed is an unplanned interruption from the user’s perspective.

70
Q

30 Which one of the following statements about a change model is CORRECT?

a) A change model should NOT be used for emergency changes
b) A change model should be constructed when a significant change is required
c) A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change
d) Escalation procedures are outside the scope of a change model

A

30 C

05-51 ST 4.2.4.5
A – A change model can be used for emergency changes. B – Change models would not routinely be created when significant changes are made. C is correct. D – Escalation procedures can be included in a change model.

71
Q

31 The CSI approach uses a number of techniques. Which one of the following techniques would BEST help a business understand “where are we now?”?

a) Reviewing critical success factors
b) Understanding the business vision
c) Performing a baseline assessment
d) Checking the CSI register

A

31 C

04-09 CSI 3.1.1
Understanding “where are we now” requires a business to create a baseline.

72
Q

32 Which service operation processes are missing from the following list?

  1. Incident management
  2. Problem management
  3. Access management
  4. ?
  5. ?

a) Event management and request fulfilment
b) Event management and service desk
c) Facilities management and event management
d) Change management and service level management

A

32 A

05-81 05-82 SO 4.1.1 4.3.1
All of the service operation processes are covered by the syllabus. The correct answer is A, B is a process and a function, C is a function and a process, D are processes in service transition and service design.

73
Q

33 Which stage of the service lifecycle provides a framework for evaluating service capabilities and risk profiles before new or changed services are deployed?

a) Service strategy
b) Continual service improvement
c) Service transition
d) Service operation

A

33 C

02-07 ST 1.1.1
Service transition is responsible for this as part of the deployment of new services.

74
Q

34 Which of the following activities should a service owner undertake?

  1. Representing a specific service across the organization
  2. Updating the configuration management system (CMS) after a change
  3. Helping to identify service improvements
  4. Representing a specific service in change advisory board (CAB) meetings

a) 2, 3 and 4 only
b) All of the above
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

A

34 D

07-01 SD 6.3.1 1,
3 and 4 are all responsibilities of the service owner role. Option 2 is the responsibility of the configuration librarian/administrator.

75
Q

35 Which one of the following is NOT a purpose or objective of availability management?

a) To monitor and report on the availability of components
b) To ensure that service availability matches the agreed needs of the business
c) To assess the impact of changes on the availability plan
d) To ensure that business continuity plans are aligned to business objectives

A

35 D

05-42 SD 4.4.1
4.4.2 D is the responsibility of IT service continuity management.

76
Q

36 Which one of the following is a CORRECT description of the “four Ps” of service design?

a) A four-step process for the design of effective service management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) Four major areas that need to be considered during service design

A

36 D

04-03 SD 3.1.5
1 – The “four Ps” are not a process. 2 – Has some merit but only addresses two of the four areas. 3 – The four Ps are not a checklist or set of questions.

77
Q

37 Which one of the following BEST describes a major problem review?

a) Facilitated by the problem manager, a major problem review is designed to apportion blame after a resolution to the problem has been found
b) A major problem review is run as part of the change advisory board (CAB) by the change manager. It is conducted after the request for change (RFC) to
resolve the problem has been accepted
c) A major problem review is facilitated by the service desk manager so that lessons can be learned after a major problem has been resolved
d) Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness
for support staff

A

37 D

05-72 SO 4.4.5.10
D is the book answer. A is the right role but it is not about apportioning blame. B is incorrect. C is plausible but is facilitated by the wrong role.

78
Q

38 Which one of the following statements about supplier management is INCORRECT?

a) Supplier management negotiates operational level agreements (OLAs)
b) Supplier management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier management maintains information in a supplier and contractor management information system
d) Supplier management negotiates external agreements to support the delivery of services

A

38

A 05-44 SD 4.8.1
All are objectives of the supplier management process, except A which is undertaken by service level management.

79
Q

39 Which one of the following is a primary purpose of business relationship management?

a) Carrying out operational activities to support services
b) Ensuring all targets within service level agreements are met
c) Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are delivered
d) Understanding the customer’s needs and ensuring they are met

A

39 D

05-23 SS 4.5.1
“To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet these needs…”

80
Q

40 Which one of the following statements is an objective of the design coordination process?

a) To ensure that service availability targets are met
b) To define, document, agree, monitor, measure and review service levels
c) To provide and maintain a single source of consistent information on all operational services
d) To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage

A

40 D

05-47 SD 4.1.1
D is the correct answer. C is the purpose of service catalogue management. B is an objective of service level management. A is an objective of availability management.