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Jeopardy > Jeff's cards > Flashcards

Jeff's cards Flashcards

1
Q

Alexander the Great refused to let his troops eat fish due to this toxin;
Most common fish food poisoning in tropical coastal regions

A

Ciguatera toxin

Sxs: GI –> neuro

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2
Q

Fish + histamine

A

Sombroid

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3
Q

Red tide + fish toxin

A

Saxitoxin

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4
Q

Pufferfish (fugu) toxin

A

Tetrodotoxin

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5
Q

Cyanide toxicity Tx
Inahled?
IV?

A

Amyl nitrite

Sodium thiosulfate

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6
Q

TCA toxicity

A

Na bicarb

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7
Q

Bitter almond

Garlic

A

Cyanide

Arsenic

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8
Q

methgb toxicity Tx

A

methylene blue

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9
Q

ethylene glycol toxicity Tx

A

ethanol or fomepizole

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10
Q

organophosphate toxicity Tx

A

atropine; pralidoxime

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11
Q

BZO toxicity Tx

A

flumazenil

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12
Q

osmolar gap & ketosis w/o sig met acidosis

A

isopropyl alcohol

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13
Q

pt on a beta blocker goes into anaphylactic. shock refractory to epi

A

glucagon

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14
Q

lactic acidosis, AMS, on nitroprusside drip

A

cyanide

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15
Q

decompression sickness

A

accumulation of nitrogen gas

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16
Q

nomogram for acetaminophen toxicity

A

modified Rumack-Matthew nomogram

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17
Q

salicylate toxicity Tx

A

alkalinization of urine

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18
Q

carbon monoxide poisoning with coma

A

hyperbaric chamber

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19
Q

electrolyte abnormality a/w MDMA (ectasy)

A

hyponatremia

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20
Q

antivenom rxn (1-2 weeks)

A

serum sickness

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21
Q

cholinergic toxicity

A

SLUDGE: salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, gastric emptying
BBB: bronchospasm, bradycardia, bronchorrhea

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22
Q

2 alcohols that cause high AG

A

methanol, ethanol

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23
Q

alcohol that doesn’t cause high AG. Why?

A

isopropyl alcohol (converted to acetone–neutral compound)

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24
Q

lithium toxicity Tx

A

HD

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25
Q

anticholinergic toxicity

A

red as a beet, dry as a bone, mad as a hatter, blind as a bat

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26
Q

NMJ disease, improves with use

A

Lambert Eaton

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27
Q

yellow tint in CSF

A

xanthochromia

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28
Q

prion disease, PNG

A

Kuru

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29
Q

1 inherited peripheral neuropathy

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth

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30
Q

impaired short term memory with confabulation, normal cognition

A

Korsakoff

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31
Q

ipsilateral weakness, contralateral loss of pain/temp

A

Brown-Sequard

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32
Q

wernickes triad

A

nystagmus
encephalopathy
ataxia

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33
Q

Charcot’s triad (for MS)

A

scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus

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34
Q

Stroke like symptoms following seizure

A

Todd’s paralysis

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35
Q

miners of this element get PD

A

manganese

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36
Q

test for NPH

A

Miller-Fischer test (remove 30 cc CSF and walk again)

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37
Q

plexus in achalasia

A

Auerbachs

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38
Q

plexus in Hirshsprungs

A

Meyers

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39
Q

protein found in Lewy Bodies

A

synuclein

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40
Q

Cushings reflex (triad)

A

HTN, bradycardia, irregular respirations

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41
Q

rapidly progressive dementia with startle myoclonus. CSF protein

A

CJD.

14-3-3

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42
Q

acute memory loss lasting minutes w/o LOC

A

transient global amnesia

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43
Q

auditory symptoms a/w Bell’s palsy

A

hyperacusis

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44
Q

Tx for spasmodic torticollis (cervical dystonia)

A

Botox injections

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45
Q

Parkinsons + dysautonomia + ataxia + corticospinal tract signs

A

Multiple system atrophy

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46
Q

pupil with consenual but not direct response to light. eponym

A

afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil)

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47
Q

1 malignant eye tumor

A

melanoma

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48
Q

1 presentation of MS

A

optic neuritis

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49
Q

corkscrew conjunctival vessels

A

sickle cell disease

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50
Q

glaucoma dx criteria (3)

A

progressive loss of peripheral vision, high IOP, abnormal cup/disc ratio

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51
Q

pseudotumor cerebri Tx

A

acetazolamide

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52
Q

Daily spiking fevers (quotidian), arthritis and an evenescent “salmon-colored” rash

A

Adult stills disease

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53
Q

Pain at at the elbow is reproduced with the extension of the wrist against resistance

A

Lateral epicondylitis (Tennis elbow)

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54
Q

RA index finger abnormality

A

boutonniere deformity (PIP hyperflexion with DIP hyperextension)

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55
Q

proximal muslce weakness and elevated CK levels in a patient on chronic treatment for gout

A

colchicine myopathy

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56
Q

seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A

Reactive arthritis, IBD-associated, Psoriatic, Ankylosing spondylitis

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57
Q

TNF alpha inhibitors (3)

A

Infliximab
Ertanercept
Adalimumab

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58
Q

Felty’s syndrome (3)

A

neutropenia, splenomegaly, RA

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59
Q

stridor and hoarseness in a patient with RA is a signal for involvement of this joint. Tx?

A

Cricoarythenoid synovitis (steroids!)

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60
Q

2 large vessel vasculitidies

A

Giant cell arteritis, Takayusu arteritis

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61
Q

active Hep B and vasculitis

A

PAN (polyarteritis nodosa)

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62
Q

low complement levels in these 2 vasculitidies

A

Cryoglobulinemia, SLE vasculitis

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63
Q

antibody associated with the absence of interstitial lung disease in patients with scleroderma

A

anti-centromere

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64
Q

autoantibodies associated with interstitial lung disease, arthritis, and a hyperkeratotic rash on the hands

A

Antihistidyl-tRNA synthetase

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65
Q

Test for lacrimal function in patients with dry eyes

A

schirmer test

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66
Q

pain localized to the distal radius and a positive Finkelstein’s test

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

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67
Q

Most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis

A

acute anterior uveitis

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68
Q

candlewax appearance on back x-ray

A

DISH (diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis)

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69
Q

Autoimmune disorders that comprise Mixed connective tissue disorder (3)

Antibody?

A

SLE, scleroderma, polymyositis

anti-U1 RNP (spliceosomal component)

70
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy that most commonly affects older men

A

Inclusion body myositis

71
Q

2 types of arthritis that affect the DIP joints

A

OA (Heberden’s nodes), psoriatic arthritis

72
Q

class of drugs is the treatment of choice in patients with HTN crisis with scleroderma

A

ACE-I

73
Q

Connective tissue disease in which wide mouthed colonic diverticuli are pathagnomonic

A

scleroderma

74
Q

Antibody associated with neonatal lupus (congenital heart block)

A

Anti-SSA (Ro)

75
Q

most specific autoantibody for SLE

A

Anti-Smith or anti-ds-DNA

76
Q

Pulmonary complication of sjogren’s syndrome predisposing to lymphoma

A

Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia

77
Q

Apthous stomatitis, uveitis, genital ulcers

A

bechets syndrome

78
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis antibody

A

Antimitochondrial

79
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome antibody

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane

80
Q

Antibody associated with drug induced lupus

A

anti-histone antibody

81
Q

Familial Mediterranean fever Tx

A

colchicine

82
Q

most common glycogen storage disease which can be associated with pain and weakness after exercise

A

McArdle’s disease

83
Q

HLA antigen is associated with aggressive rheumatoid arthritis

A

HLA DR4

RA also associated with DR1

84
Q

Wegners Ab

A

C-ANCA (anti-PR3)

85
Q

Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction

A

Ogilvie’s syndrome

86
Q

common hereditary form of colon cancer (not FAP)

A

Hereditary Non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)

87
Q

Stress ulcers associated with severe burns or trauma due to ischemia of the gastric mucosa

A

Curlings ulcers

88
Q

pain out of proportion to abdominal exam findings in an elderly patient

A

Ischemic bowel (Mesenteric ischemia)

89
Q

Most sensitive and specific test to diagnose acute cholecystitis

A

HIDA scan

90
Q

Most sensitive and specific test to diagnose acute cholecystitis

A

Neutropenic enterocolitis

91
Q

intestinal obstruction and pneumobilia

A

gallstone ileus

92
Q

narrowing of the extra-hepatic bile duct from mechanical compression by a gallstone impacted in the cystic duct

A

Mirizzi’s syndrome

93
Q

skin condition a/w IBD (but activity does not correlate with disease activity)

A

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

94
Q

esophageal webs and iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer Vinson syndrome

95
Q

Gastrointestinal polyps and pigmented macules around mouth and lips

A

Peutz-Jeghers’ disease

96
Q

Drug used to treat bleeding associated with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

A

Combination estrogen/progesterone

97
Q

Lights criteria

A

Protein (Effusion/serum) ratio greater than 0.5.
LDH (effusion/serum) ratio greater than 0.6.
Effusion LDH >2/3 upper limit lab reference range of serum LDH

98
Q

TST threshold for tx in pt planning to take infliximab

A

5mm

99
Q

Class of drugs causing regression of polyps in familial adenomatous polyposis

A

NSAIDs

100
Q

Fe/TIBC percent consistent with hemochromatosis

A

45%

101
Q

monoclonal antibody reduces disease activity in both MS and Crohns disease

A

natalizumab, an alpha-4 integrin antagonist

102
Q

Minimum Child-Pugh and MELD (Cr, INR, total bili) scores to consider liver transplantation

A

7 & 10

103
Q

Hepatotoxic mushroom

A

Amanita phalloides

104
Q

patient with hemochromatosis develops abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea (bloody)

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

105
Q

hepatic mass has been associated with the use of OCP

A

Hepatocellular adenoma

106
Q

Most common cause of osmotic diarrhea

A

lactase deficiency

107
Q

Associated with Fundal involvement of gastritis

A

pernicious anemia

108
Q

Associated with antral involvement of gastritis

A

H. pylori

109
Q

5 components of child pugh classification

A

Ascities, encephalopathy, bilirubin, albumin, PT

110
Q

Charcot’s triad

Reynaulds pentad

A

RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills

AMS, hypotension

111
Q

Pancreatitis: periumbilical region

A

Cullen’s sign

112
Q

1 cause of liver failure in the US

A

acetaminophen toxicity

113
Q

Finding on colonoscopy in patient abusing laxatives

A

melanosis coli

114
Q

acute hepatic or chronic biliary infection caused by eating watercress

A

Fasciola hepatica

115
Q

Urine lab used to aid in the diagnosis of intestinal carcinoid tumor

A

5-HIAA (5-Hydroxyindoleacetic Acid)

116
Q

Antibody associated with ulcerative colitis

A

P-ANCA

117
Q

Screening tests for HCC indicated in Hep B

A

AFP & hepatic US Q6mos

118
Q

male patient with neuronal hearing loss and renal insufficiency

A

Alport Syndrome

119
Q

Path of kidneys in patients with diabetic nephropathy

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

120
Q

RTA is assoicated with nephrolithiasis

A

Type I RTA (distal)

121
Q

Winter’s formula

A

PCO2 = [1.5(HCO3 + 8) +/- 2

122
Q

patient with nephritic syndrome who presents with flank pain, frank hematuria and acute worsening of their renal function

A

Renal vein thrombosis

123
Q

5 causes of low complement GN

A 
post infectious
SLE
cryoglobulinemia
MPGN
endocarditiis
124
Q

acute renal failure, eosinophilia and livedo reticularis

A

cholesterol emboli syndrome

125
Q

Most likely cause of hyperkalemia in diabetic patients with mild to moderate renal insufficiency

A

Type IV RTA

126
Q

Most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease)

127
Q

BB that improve mortality in HFrEF

A

carvedilol
metoprolol succinate
bisoprolol

128
Q

goal SBP w/in 1 hr aortic dissection

A

<120

129
Q

a/w bicuspid aortic valve & Turner syndrome

A

aortic coarctation

130
Q

hand finding pathogneumonic for Dermatomyosis

A

Gottron’s papules

131
Q

Ears + saddle nose

A

relapsing polychondritis

132
Q

pain, numbness, tingling in the forefoot, aggravated by high heels

A

mortons neuroma

133
Q

vitamin that reduces falls in the elderly

A

vit D

134
Q

normal time threshold for “get up and go”

A

<10 secs

135
Q

distinguish factor deficency from factor inhibitor

A

Mixing study

136
Q

least common MPN

A

primary myelofibrosis

137
Q

gold standard HIT Dx

A

serotonin release assay

138
Q

characterized by lack of CD 55 & CD 59 on RBCs

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hematuria

139
Q

max TIMI score

A

7

140
Q

cause of STEMI in young F with Raynauds

A

coronary vasospasm

141
Q

fibro-fatty infiltration of the RV

A

Arrhythmogenic RV dysplasia

142
Q

septal shudder and bounce on echocardiography

A

Constrictive pericarditis

143
Q

atopy, recurrent food impaction and esophageal rings, furrows, plaques, or strictures

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

144
Q

Immunological cause of false-negative IgA anti-tTG antibody test for celiac disease

A

IgA deficiency

145
Q

nausea, early satiety, and bloating in patient with systemic sclerosis

A

Gastroparesis (accept delayed gastric emptying)

146
Q

Eponym for perihepatitis and pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome

147
Q

peritoneal carcinomatosis of unknown primary are treated for this cancer

A

ovarian

148
Q

histological scoring system for patients with biopsy proven prostate cancer

A

gleason score

149
Q

eponym for gastrointestinal metastases to ovary

A

Krukenberg tumor

150
Q

BRAF mutation is specific for this endocrine cancer

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

151
Q

association with spoon nails

A

iron defcy anemia

152
Q

Irradiated blood prevents this fatal transfusion-related complication

A

Graft vs Host disease (GVHD)

153
Q

elevated homocysteine and normal methylmalonic acid levels

A

Folate deficiency

154
Q

intracytoplasmic inclusion associated with ehrlichiosis

A

Morulae

155
Q

Etiological agent responsible for cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

156
Q

skin lesions in animal hide workers

A

Cutaneous anthrax

157
Q

Most likely malarial agent causing an 8% RBC parasitemia rate

A

P. falciparum

158
Q

Scoring system to predict risk of stroke at 2, 7, and 90 days after TIA

A

ABCD2

159
Q

Dementia presenting with early personality changes, fixation, disinhibition and emotional lability

A

Frontotemporal dementia

160
Q

noninflammatory, nonatherosclerotic carotid artery stenosis in a young woman

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

161
Q

ulcerative impetigo

A

Ecthyma

162
Q

develops after infection with β-hemolytic Streptococcus

A

Guttate psoriasis

163
Q

Eponym describing the ability to laterally extend bullae by application of pressure

A

indirect Nikolsky sign

164
Q

Split urine collection (daytime and nighttime) used to diagnose this condition

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

165
Q

Multiple myeloma type typically associated with low anion gap

A

IgG myeloma

166
Q

Eponym for renal carcinoma, CNS hemangioblastomas and retinal angiomas

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

167
Q

Eponym for criteria used to diagnose acute rheumatic fever

A

Jones criteria

168
Q

nonarthritic lateral hip pain that worsens with direct pressure

A

trochanteric bursitis

169
Q

test that measures forward spine flexion

A

Schober test

170
Q

cutaneous sarcoidosis characterized by red indurated papules, plaques, or nodules on the central face

A

lupus pernio

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