jeopardy mrs.kayla Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

the below symptoms are to be reported to the health care provider immediately as they are s/s of ___________.
- temp of 100.4 or greater
-cough
-sore throat
-chills
-frequent urination
-and/or a WBC count or less than 2500

A

luekopenia
infection

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2
Q

The nurse should notify the health care provider immediately if any of the following occurs during assessment of a client receiving an chemotherapeutic drug as they might be s/s of ________.
s/s:
- bleeding gums
- easy bruising
- petechiae
- increased menstrual bleeding
- tarry stools
- **hematuria

- and/or coffee-
ground** emesis

A

thrombocytopenia

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3
Q

Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are both types of ______.

A

bone marrow suppression

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4
Q

What term should the nurse use to describe the process by which cancer cells develop their own blood vessels?

A

angiogenesis

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5
Q

List three examples of immediate adverse reactions to a chemotherapeutic drug.

A
  • nausea, vomiting, and extravasation
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6
Q

List treatment(s) that may be used alone or in combination for the treatment of cancer. (list four)

A
  • surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, and/ or immunotherapy
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7
Q

Nursing diagnosis: body image disturbance
Nursing Intervention: The nurse can assist the client in being comfortable with their body image by suggesting that the client use ____ until the hair grows back?

A

-suggest the use of a wig or cap

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8
Q

Nursing Diagnosis: altered tissue integrity related to chemotherapeutic drug therapy
Nursing Intervention: The nurse would suggest the client to wear ____ and to watch ______

A
  • suggest to the client to wear loose protective clothing and to watch areas of skinfolds for breakdown
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9
Q

Cytokines create an immune response that can be similar to _______.

A
  • flu-like symptoms
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10
Q

A checkpoint inhibitor and glipizide may cause what?

A

-severe drop in blood sugar
-used cautiously together and the nurse should make sure the health care provider is aware of this interaction

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11
Q

Nursing Diagnosis: What nursing diagnosis would go with the below nursing intervention?
Nursing Intervention: -provide small frequent meals
-avoid exposure to unpleasant smells
- avoid greasy or fatty foods
- provide foods that are high in protein

A
  • Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
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12
Q

This colony stimulating factor drug works to stimulate WBC production and decrease the incidence of infection.

A

-filgrastim (neopogen)

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13
Q

List long-term averse effects of chemotherapeutic drug therapy.
(list four)

A

-fertility problems, cardiotoxicity, pulmonary toxicity, and neurologic problems

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14
Q

What is the first indication of cytokine storm?

A

-high fever

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15
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving inpatient treatment for cancer and who reports frequent diarrhea. What action should the nurse take?

A

-request testing of stool sample for C. difficile

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16
Q

What PPE equipment should the nurse don when cleaning a chemotherapeutic drug spill?

A

-don a gown, safety goggles, gloves, and a NIOSH-approved respirator per OSHA guidelines

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17
Q

Administration of the drug ______, which is an interleukin results in increased vascular permeability

A

-aldesleukin

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18
Q

__________ syndrome is accompanied by hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperphosphatemia * Be able to recognize abnormal lab levels**

A
  • tumor lysis syndrome
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19
Q

A change in blood pressure when administering aldesleukin may indicate ______?

A

-capillary leak syndrome

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20
Q

Alopecia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia, stomatitis, and diarrhea are adverse effects of what type of drugs?

A

-chemotherapeutic drugs
(and are related to the death of rapidly gowning cells)

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21
Q

The injection of ready-made antibodies found in the serum of immune individuals or animals is called ______?

A
  • passive immunity
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22
Q

This type of immunity protects the body against viral, bacterial, and fungal infections.

A
  • cell-mediated immunity
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23
Q

This type of immunity occurs with an individual is given a killed or weakened antigen in the form of a vaccine, which stimulates the formation of antibodies against the antigen.

A
  • artificially acquired active immunity
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24
Q

Experiencing chickenpox results in which type of immunity to the disease?

A

-naturally acquired active immunity

25
Administration of the influenza vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease would describe which type of immunity?
- artificially acquired active immunity
26
After recovering from pertussis, the client demonstrates which type of immunity against repeat exposure?
- naturally acquired active immunity
27
Administration of the varicella vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease would provide what type of immunity?
- artificially acquired active immunity
28
Administration of the rubella vaccine to an individual who has no immunity to the disease would provide which type of immunity?
- artificially acquired active immunity
29
In which arm would anticipate administering a vaccine?
-the dominate side
30
The nurse determines which situation(s) as a contraindication for the administration of a vaccine?
-acute febrile illness -leukemia -lymphoma -immunosuppressive illness (HIV) - chronic prednisone drug therapy
31
The below nursing intervention would go with this nursing diagnosis? Nursing Intervention: -administering prescribed acetaminophen every 4 hours -provide for frequent rest periods in a quit, non-stimulating environment -apply warm or cool compresses to the injection site -and encourage fluid intake
- acute pain related to the administration of a vaccine
32
The nurse will explain to the client that the antivenin will provide passive, transient protection against bites from which organism(s)?
- black widow spiders - rattlesnakes - copperhead snakes - cottonmouth snakes -and coral snakes
33
Clients may react within which time period if they are sensitive to an antivenin?
- within 30 minutes
34
Which two vaccines are contraindicated in clients with allergies to gelatin, neomycin, and eggs or those who had an allergic reaction to a previous dose of one of the vaccines.
-MMR and varicella vaccines
35
A nurse should recommend vaccination against which disease(s) before travel to endemic areas?
- cholera -diphtheria -japanese encephalitis -Lyme disease -smallpox -typhoid -yellow fever
36
Which vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy, especially during the first trimester?
- measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) and varicella vaccines
37
What information HAS to be documented after administration of a vaccine?
- day of vaccination -the route -the type of vaccination -the site - the manufacturer -the lot number - the expiration date -name and address
38
What is the action to hydrocortisone?
- topical corticoid steroid
39
What is the action to benzocaine?
- local anasthetic
40
What is the action to acetic acid?
- antimicrobial
41
What is the action to antipyrine?
- analgesic
42
What is the action to carbamide peroxide?
- aids or breaks down and removing the wax
43
When this medication is used for oral aesthesia the nurse would instruct the client not eat food for 1 hour after use to reduce the risk of aspiration. Who am I?
- lidocaine
44
The nurse should monitor for deafness as an adverse reaction to which medication?
- chlorhexidine
45
This medication is applied to the nasal mucosa to reduce the risk of institutional outbreaks of MRSA.
- mupirocin
46
What class of medication does triamcinolone belong?
- topical coticosteriods
47
Localized reactions caused by the topical administration of this medication include: -burning -pruritus -skin irritation - and temporary discoloration of the fingernails & hair
- anthralin
48
After administering this drug __________ for chronic open-angle glaucoma, the nurse should monitor the client for a potential adverse reaction of foreign body sensation.
- brimonidine tartrate
49
Which behavior(s) would the nurse note when assessing an infant for a possible ear infection?
- pulling of the ear -fever -change in behavior -fussy - irratibility
50
What should the nurse question a client reporting ear pain about?
- ringing in the ear - changes in hearing - dizziness - feeling of fullness in the ear
51
Two ophthalmic drugs are ordered at the same time. The nurse knows to separate the drug administered by _________ minutes.
- 5 minutes
52
A client receiving ophthalmic drugs reports blurred vision. What nursing diagnosis would be a priority for this client?
- risk for injury
53
What category of otic preparations does this teaching plan belong to? The client's treatment plan includes: Do NOT insert ANYTHING into the ear canal (cottonswab) Do NOT use the drug is there is ear drainage Use the drug no more than 4 days Call the primary health care provider if dizziness occurs And to remove any wax remaining after the treatment by gently flushing the ear with warm water using a soft rubber bulb syringe
- miscellanous preparationrations,otic agent to promote cerumen removal
54
If this class of medication is applied liberally, some systemic absorption may our: - hypothalamic-pituitary- adrenal axis suppression - Cushing syndrome - hyperglycemia - and glycosuria
- topical corticosteriods
55
If left untreated, glaucoma, results in an increase in the intraocular pressure (IOP) which can lead to ___________, ____________, and, if untreated, _____________
- nerve damage - vision loss - and if not treated blindness
56
The nurse determines the teaching session on how to instill otic drops in a child is successful when the caregiver correctly administers the drops in which manner(s)?
- pulling the ear down and back -having their head turned to their side -put a cotton ball in their ear -don't let the dropper touch the ear - warm the bottle before inserting in the ear
57
How should the nurse educate a client to apply a topical corticosteroid?
- apply sparingly
58
What equipment would the nurse point out as an appropriate tool to remove the drug from the container when education a client on application of a topical medication?
- tongue depressor - cotton swab - gauze -finger cot