Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

B717 Refresher > Jeppesen/ERSA Theory > Flashcards

Jeppesen/ERSA Theory Flashcards

(69 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the RVSM flight levels, and how much separation is provided?

A

FL290-FL410

1000ft Separation between RVSM approved aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a declaration of MINIMUM FUEL mean?

A

It is not an emergency declaration, but is an indication that if any further delay occurs an emergency situation may result.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does an RNP Value represent?

A

A containment value in nautical miles from the intended position in which the aircraft must be within 95% of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between RV & RVR values?

A 
RV = Runway Visibility = Human derived
RVR = Runway Visual Range = Instrument derived
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does calling ‘Visual’ imply for ATC?

A

Indicate acceptance for responsibility to see and avoid obstacles when operating below MVA/MSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

For En-route displayed LSALTs what RNP is this based on?

A

RNP 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In regards to LSALT calculations, what height of obstacles are considered?

A

Unreported obstacles may exist up to 360ft, so the min LSALT is 1360ft above the highest elevation, but if the highest elevation is below 500ft, a min LSALT of 1500ft applies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If ATC advise ‘Resume Normal Speed’ which speed does this cancel?

A

Only the previously issued ATC speed restriction, Airspace & STAR restrictions will still apply following this.
Wont be used if already complying with a published speed limitation Resume Published Speeds would be said

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If ATC advise ‘No Speed Restrictions’ which speeds does this cancel?

A

All airspace and ATC speed restrictions

Note* this will not be used whilst conducting a STAR or SID where published speeds exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aerodrome forecasts are issued for weather within what distance?

A

5nm from the ARP (Aerodrome Ref Point)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In a METAR or SPECI and 360V090 (for example) is shown, what does this mean?

A

The wind has varied between 360-090 in the 10min sample period, this will only show when winds vary by over 60degrees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When visibility is shown in a METAR/SPECI as (for example) 6000m 700S, what does this mean?

A

The prevailing visibility is 6000m, and 700m Vis to the south (only shown when min vis less than 5000m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/0900U, what does this indicate?

A

The RVR indicates 900m Vis in an upward trend (improving), averaged over the 10min reporting period

U - Upward Trend, D - Downward Trend, N - Nil Change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/0900V1200, what does this indicate?

A

That RVR is varying greatly over the reporting period, the first figure (900m) indicates 1 minute mean min vis, (1200m) indicates 1 minute mean max vis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/P2000, what does this indicate?

A

The RVR is 2000m (or more), which is greater than the instrument can measure, and gives the maximum value that can be assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When a SPECI indicates R16/M0100 what does this indicate?

A

The RVR is 100m or less, this is the lowest value that can be assessed by the instrument.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

At what percentage probability will thunderstorms or reduced visibility periods be included in the main body of the TAF?

A

Over 50% probability, if not PROB30 or PROB40, if below 30% this will not be included.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a SPECI indicates VV010, what does this indicate?

A

A vertical visibility of 1000ft. This is commonly used when thick smoke is present. The VV is the ‘equivalent’ to an overcast cloud layer when practically planning for approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A GPWT chart shows 25120-50 what does this show?

A

Wind 250degrees at 120kts, Temp -50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On RSWT (Route Sector Winds & Temps) chart, what does 340-42 2505545 Indicate?

A

At FL340, ISA is -42degrees

Wind is 250/55, Temp is -45 (ISA-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What time can ELTs be tested, or if an ELT is heard during this time testing might be assumed?

A

Within the first 5mins of the hour, and only 5 seconds in duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Unless tracking via SID or instructed by ATC, when is the departure track required to be intercepted?

A

Within 5nm of departure aerodrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What requirements do ATC require to issue an aircraft with a Visual Approach Clearance? (BY DAY)

A
  • Within 30nm of aerodrome
  • Pilot has established and can maintain visual reference with ground/water to the aerodrome.
  • Visibility not less than 5000m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What requirements do ATC require to issue an aircraft with a Visual Approach Clearance? (BY NIGHT)

A
  • Pilot has established and can maintain visual reference with ground/water to the aerodrome.
  • Visibility not less than 5000m
  • Aircraft within 30nm or if A/C is being vectored at the MVA given a heading to intercept final
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
If cleared a visual approach by ATC and not tracking via a STAR, at what point can tracking be adjusted to position for landing?
By day within 5nm of aerodrome | By night within the circling area
26
What are the minimum altitude requirements when tracking via a Visual Approach? (DAY & NIGHT)
By day not less than 500ft above lower limit of CTA By night not less than the appropriate LSALT/MSA or DGA step until; - Within circling area - 5nm Established not below slope (7nm ILS Rwy) - 10nm Not below ILS G/S, within full scale LOC
27
If cleared a visual approach (although following an instrument approach) and a go-around is required, what must be flown?
Must initially climb on Rwy Track until advised by ATC, however if the aircraft cannot maintain obstacle clearance the aircraft my turn.
28
If cleared via an instrument approach, but the aircraft is established in VMC what tracking is required during a go-around?
The published missed approach or advised by ATC regardless if the aircraft is established in VMC
29
What is the navigational order of precision?
Localiser, GNSS, VOR then NDB
30
What is the cross-track tolerance before ATC need to be advised when operating in RNP 2 & RNP 1 airspace?
Greater than 2nm X-track error - RNP 2 airspace | Greater than 1nm X-track error - RNP 1 airspace
31
What weather conditions are required for the conduct of LAHSO operations? (Crosswind/Tailwind/Visibility)
- Max of 20kts crosswind - Max of 5kts of Tailwind DRY (0 if WET) - 8km Vis, can be reduced to 5km if ATC can sight aircraft before separation standards are reduced.
32
What equipment is required for RSVM operations?
- 2 independent primary altimetry systems - Mode C SSR Transponder - Altitude alert system - Autopilot with height lock
33
If RVSM equipment is U/S, can operations in RVSM airspace still allowed?
Yes, but NEGATIVE RVSM must be advised to ATC, they may approve flight within FL290-FL410 with conventional separation standards
34
During changes of flight level in RVSM airspace what is the tolerance allowed?
Not more than 150ft overshoot or undershoot.
35
What should be done if 1 primary altimetry system fails in RVSM airspace?
- Couple the autopilot to the side with the functioning altimeter. - Advise ATC that "For information, operating on 1 primary altimeter only"
36
What should be done if both primary altimeter systems fail?
- Maintain cleared flight level on the standby altimeter | - Advise ATC "Negative RVSM"
37
What is the altimeter tolerance in RVSM airspace, and what should be done if this is not within tolerance?
- 200ft between primary altimeters - Check standby altimeter, determine malfunctioning altimeter and couple autopilot to functioning side - If troubleshooting doesn't fix, advise ATC "operating on 1 primary altimeter only"
38
Once established at the CFL 'Cleared Flight Level' what altitude deviations are required to be reported?
300ft or more from CFL, including TCAS manoeuvres
39
If departing from a non-controlled aerodrome, and contact with ATC is unable to made can you still depart?
Yes, if you have contact with company that has a phone able to contact ATS. or other than RPT flights a sartime EOBT+30mins can be set with ATC.
40
If using a TAF3 in the first 3hours for planning requirements, a probability of reduction in visibility & associated PROB30 or 40 of Thunderstorms, what fuel is required?
No additional, this only applies to PROB weather requirements in first 3 hours. Also no buffers apply to periods (similar to old TTF system)
41
If in flight calculated FOB on landing is less than fixed reserves (i.e. 1.0t), what is required?
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL | And if required "Expecting normal approach & landing, emergency services not required"
42
If on final and a laser illumination event takes place, what details are handy to note to pass onto tower?
Event position, altitude, colour of laser, originating direction and position.
43
What are the Class D speed restrictions that need to be considered for departure planning?
Speed restriction of 200kts within 4nm and below 2,500ft AGL
44
When restricted airspace is designated RA1, RA2 & RA3 what do each of these mean?
RA1 (Least Restrictive) - May plan & expect clearance through RA2 - May not plan through, unless on a route, clearances are not assured RA3 (Most Restrictive) - Do not plan through, no clearances through
45
What are the minimum wake turbulence separation standards required, when the proceeding aircraft is a Heavy?
All operations = 2mins (5nm) | Intersection departure & Heavy used full length = 3mins
46
What are the Category speeds of the B717?
``` Cat C Initial = 240kts - 160kts Final =115kts - 160kts Vat = 121 - 140kts Missed Approach = 240kts Circling (Not Allowed) = 180kts ```
47
What is the minimum obstacle clearance for Cat C aircraft, and what is the size of the circling area?
400ft & 4.2nm
48
When can an aircraft descend below the MDA?
- Visual Reference can be maintained - All elements of Met minima are met (cloud/vis) - The aircraft is in a position to land with a normal rate of descent.
49
If a runway has an offset Non-Precision approach, when can the aircraft break off and establish a centreline track?
- Within the circling area (4.2nm) - Visual Reference can be maintained - Continuously in sight of ground/water
50
When is a missed approach required (Jepp)?
- When the aircraft is out of tolerance for the prescribed approach aid - During an IAP below MSA and the aid becomes suspect or fails - Visual reference is not obtained by the MDA/DA - If landing via a circling approach, and visual reference cannot be established by circling minima - Visual reference is lost whilst circling
51
To descend below an MDA/DA visual reference is required to be established, what does this mean?
The runway threshold, approach lighting or markings identifiable with the landing runway. And visibility not less than that listed on the chart.
52
What is the missed approach climb gradient, and what obstacle clearance is provided?
2.5% & 100ft obstacle clearance
53
What are the max holding speeds, and outbound timings? and can you exceed these speeds?
Up to and including FL140 = 230kts/ 1min Above FL140 and including FL200 = 240kts/1.5min Above FL200 = 265kts ** Due Turb can be increased up to 280kts/M.8 with ATC permission**
54
If a holding pattern shows a distance limitation how is the pattern adapted for this?
This is an outbound leg limitation, however the turn is to be commenced at or before the distance. Don't have to stay within distance limitation.
55
What is the take-off minima for qualifying multi-engine aircraft (disregard NJS exemption)?
0' & 550m - Listed on chart (which confirms centreline markings/lighting, edge lighting & secondary power with 1 sec swapover) otherwise 800m
56
What are the requirements for 800m Vis on an ILS approach?
- Aircraft is manually flown to DA via a flight director, or coupled approach to DA - Aircraft has failure warning for attitude & heading reference - Runway HIRL's are ON (Edge Lighting) - Runway HIAL's on ON (Approach Lighting)
57
What equipment is required to use special alternate minima? (Updated by NOTAM)
- Duplicated LOC/GS/VOR receivers | - Either duplicated DME or GNSS or 1 DME/ 1 GNSS
58
When is special alternate minima not available?
-Local METAR/SPECI service N/A -ATC not provided NOTAM will advise when; -Protracted U/S of any VHF Nav Aid (more than 7days) -Facilities required for approach U/S or N/A
59
What is the standard SID climb gradient?
3.3%
60
If ATC issue a speed on descent, what speed restrictions can be ignored and which remain?
If ATC advise a speed, published speeds are cancelled however Airspace speeds still apply. Speed can be reduced as normal for approach & landing.
61
What is the standard IFR altimeter tolerance?
Within 60ft of listed elevation, greater than 75ft is U/S, between 60-75ft can be rechecked at first landing point.
62
What is the COBT window for arrivals?
-5mins to +15mins
63
What traffic restrictions are there for non-compliance of a COBT?
Early Non-Compliance - Up to 60mins | Late Non-Compliance - Published traffic holding
64
When ATC applies a waypoint crossing time restriction, what buffer applies to this?
Aircraft can cross up to 30sec early, but no later than the specified time.
65
For planning a offpeak un-scheduled flight, what validity must the forecast TAF at the destination have remaining on arrival?
No less than 60mins left on TAF validity after planned arrival.
66
During LAHSO operations, the white oscilating lights show the hold short location are operating, however you've been cleared to land or takeoff without further instruction, can you pass these lights?
Yes, they only apply if instructions have been given
67
How far and what altitude are aerodrome beacons intended to be seen from?
8km and between 1,000ft-5,000ft
68
When are aerodrome beacons operated?
By day in reduced visibility & at night. The beacon can be turned off by ATC when there are no traffic movements.
69
What is the RFFS Frequency?
131.0 (ATC must be advised first though)

B717 Refresher (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions