jeppesen general orals Flashcards
(253 cards)
1
Q
What is the result of adding a large positive number and a smaller negative number?
A
The result is a smaller positive number, and is the same as ignoring the signs and subtracting the smaller number from the larger.
2
Q
How do you convert a fraction into a decimal?
A
Divide the top number (numerator) by the bottom number (denominator).
3
Q
What is the key step that must be performed in order to add or subtract unlike fractions?
A
You must find the lowest (least) common denominator.
4
Q
How do you divide one fraction by another?
A
You invert the divisor and multiply the numerators together and the denominators together.
5
Q
How can you convert a decimal into a percent?
A
Multiply the decimal by 100. Move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign.
6
Q
How do you convert a fraction into a percent?
A
Convert it to a decimal, move the decimal point two places to the right and add the percent sign.
7
Q
How do you change a decimal into the nearest equivalent fraction?
A
Multiply the decimal by the desired denominator. The result becomes the numerator in the fraction.
8
Q
What are two different ways that a ratio may be expressed?
A
As a fraction. By placing a colon(:) between the two numbers. By using the word ‘to’ between the two numbers.
9
Q
What is a proportion?
A
A statement of equality between two or more ratios.
10
Q
What is meant by the root of a number?
A
A root is two or more numbers when multiplied together, equal the specified number.
11
Q
How do you find the square of a number? Give an example.
A
Multiply the number by itself. Examples: 4 x 4 = 16
12
Q
What is a common method of making computations involving very large or very small numbers more manageable?
A
Convert the numbers into scientific notation by using powers of 10.
13
Q
How is 100,000 expressed as a power of 10?
A
1x10^5 (1 times 10 to the 5th power).
14
Q
What formula is used to find the area of a rectangle and of a triangle?
A
For a rectangle, A = L x W, For a triangle, A = 1/2 (B x H).
15
Q
Define Pi (π).
A
Pi is a constant that expresses the relationship between the circumference of a circle and its diameter and is approximately equal to 3.1416.
16
Q
Describe a trapezoid.
A
A trapezoid is a closed, four-sided figure having two parallel sides and two sides that are not parallel.
17
Q
What is the formula for computing the area of a circle?
A
A = πr².
18
Q
Define matter.
A
Any substance that occupies space and has mass.
19
Q
Matter may exist in what three states?
A
Solid, liquid and gas.
20
Q
Define kinetic energy.
A
Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.
21
Q
Work is the product of what two factors?
A
Force and the distance moved.
22
Q
What are the parts of a lever?
A
A rigid bar and a pivot point called the fulcrum.
23
Q
A wheelbarrow is an example of what class of lever?
A
A second-class lever.
24
Q
Are all three states of matter affected by thermal expansion and if so, which state is affected most?
A
All three states are affected, with gases being affected the most.
25
What is a British Thermal Unit?
The amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of 1 pound of water 1 degree Fahrenheit.
26
Name the three methods of heat transfer?
Conduction, convection and radiation.
27
What term defines the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases?
Absolute zero.
28
Can liquids be compressed?
No, liquids are generally considered incompressible.
29
What are the customary units used to express hydraulic or pneumatic pressure in the United States?
Pounds per square inch.(PSI)
30
Describe how pressure is transmitted when a force is applied to a confined liquid.
Pressure is transmitted equally in all directions.
31
What formula expresses the relationship between force, pressure and area?
Force equals area times pressure.
32
What is the approximate speed of sound at sea level on a standard day?
661 Knots or 340 meters per second.
33
What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level on a standard day?
29.92 inches of Mercury or 1013.2 millibars.
34
On a standard day at sea level, what is the value for temperature?
59°F or 15°C.
35
What are the factors that determine density altitude?
Temperature and atmospheric pressure.
36
What is the term used to describe the ratio between the amount of moisture actually present in the atmosphere as compared to the amount the air could hold if it were completely saturated?
Relative humidity.
37
What are the four principle forces acting on an airplane in flight?
Lift, drag, thrust and gravity.
38
What is the term that describes the angle between the relative wind and the chord line of an airfoil?
The Angle of Attack.
39
What are the factors that cause an airplane wing to stall?
Stall is caused when the angle of attack exceeds a critical value and the airflow separates from the upper surface and becomes turbulent.
40
What are the principle effects that result from lowering the flaps while in flight?
Lift increases, drag increases and stall speed decreases.
41
What is the function of a wing mounted vortex generator?
Vortex generators delay or keep the airflow from separating from the upper surface of a wing during high speed flight.
42
How does blade-flapping help to compensate for dissymmetry of lift in helicopter main rotor systems?
Flapping increases the angle of attack and lift on the retreating blade and decreases the angle of attack and lift on the advancing blade.
43
How does the airflow through the main rotor of a helicopter change during the transition from normal flight to autorotation?
During normal flight the air moves downward and during autorotation the air moves upward.
44
What is friction?
The opposition to relative motion between two objects in contact with each other.
45
One kilowatt is equal to how many watts?
1,000 watts.
46
What law describes the most fundamental or basic relationships in an electrical circuit?(what are the laws)
Ohm's law.
47
What are the three elements of Ohm's law?
Voltage, current and resistance.
48
How would you write Ohm's law as an equation?
E = I x R, R = E / I, I = E / R.
49
If the resistance in a DC circuit remains the same but the voltage doubles, what happens to the amount of current flowing in the circuit?
It also doubles.
50
In DC circuits, what unit measures power?
Watts.
51
What three elements are required to form an electrical circuit?
A source of electrical energy, a load or resistance to use the electricity, and wires or conductors to connect the source to the load.
52
DC circuits can take one of three forms or types. What are they?
Series, parallel and complex (or series-parallel).
53
A 24-volt lead-acid battery has how many cells?
Twelve.
54
A fully charged lead-acid battery has a specific gravity that varies between what two values?
1.275 and 1.300.
55
You must apply a correction to the specific gravity reading of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery when the temperature is outside of what two values?
Whenever the temperature is less than 70°F or more than 90°F.
56
What is the reason for having separate facilities for storing and servicing nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries?
The electrolyte in the two types of batteries is chemically opposite and the fumes from one type can contaminate the electrolyte of the other type.
57
The state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery cannot be determined by measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte for what reason?
There is no significant change in the specific gravity of the electrolyte as the battery is charged or discharged.
58
What is the principal advantage of AC current over DC current?
Power can be transmitted over long distances more efficiently and with smaller wires because the voltage can be easily increased or decreased by a transformer.
59
What are the three causes of opposition to current flow in an AC circuit?
Resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
60
Define inductance.
An induced voltage which is opposite in direction to the applied voltage.
61
What component creates capacitance in AC circuits?
A capacitor.
62
How does a capacitor store electricity?
electrostatic charge/field between two conductors separated by an insulator.
63
What property of an AC circuit is defined by the term 'impedance'?
The total opposition to current flow.
64
What are two reasons that might cause a nickel-cadmium battery to fail to deliver its rated capacity?
Faulty cells or cell imbalance.
65
What electrical values are measured by a typical multimeter?
Voltage, current and resistance.
66
How many views are required to represent the important details of most aircraft parts?
One, two or three views are usually enough.
67
What kinds of parts can be represented by one-view drawings?
Parts with uniform thickness such as shims, plates and gaskets.
68
What is the name for a part of a drawing used to bring out important details and how is it drawn?
A detailed view, which is usually drawn to a larger scale than the main drawing.
69
What is the purpose of schematic diagrams?
They are primarily used for troubleshooting systems.
70
Describe an orthographic projection.
It is a way of drawing an object using different views at right angles to each other, such as a top, front, and side view.
71
Why do manufacturers use symbols on aircraft drawings?
Symbols are a form of shorthand and are used to convey the characteristics of a component with a minimum of drawing.
72
Describe the appearance of lines used to show hidden views, alternate positions and the middle of symmetrical objects, and give their proper name.
Hidden views- hidden lines,short, evenly spaced dashes.
Alternate positions- phantom lines light alternating long dashes and two short dashes.
Center lines- alternating long and short dashes show the middle
73
How can you determine if a drawing has been changed?
A record of the changes is listed either in a revision block or in ruled columns, which may be in a corner of the drawing or next to the title block.
74
How are dimensions shown on aircraft drawings, and what is their purpose?
Dimension lines are usually solid and generally broken at the midpoint for insertion of the measurement. They provide a means to accurately represent the size of an object.
75
What is the difference between an 'allowance' and a 'tolerance'?
An allowance is the difference between the nominal dimension and the maximum and minimum permissible sizes. The tolerance is the difference between the extreme permissible dimensions, which may be found by adding the plus and minus allowances.
76
What is meant by 'clearance' when used on aircraft drawings?
An allowable dimension between two parts.
77
What kinds of information about an aircraft drawing can be found in the title block?
part or assembly name
drawing size
scale
date
company name
name or initials of the people responsible for creating or approving the drawing.
78
What information is contained in a 'BILL of materials'?
A list of the materials and parts needed to fabricate or assemble the component or system shown in the drawing.
79
If an aircraft is loaded so that the aft C.G. limit is exceeded, what undesirable flight characteristic is likely to result?
The aircraft will be tail-heavy and may be unable to recover from a stall or spin.
80
If all the records for an aircraft are missing, how would you determine the empty weight and empty weight C.G.?
The aircraft would have to be weighed, and new weight and balance records would have to be prepared.
81
Define 'tare weight' and describe how it is handled when weighing an aircraft.
Tare weight is the weight of anything on the scales that is not part of the aircraft. It must be subtracted from the scale weight reading to determine the net weight of the airplane.
82
If a piece of equipment such as a radio is added to an aircraft, how can you determine the effect on weight and balance without re-weighing the aircraft?
If the weight and balance records are up to date, a new weight and C.G. location can be determined by computation.
83
Why is control of the weight and balance of an aircraft important?
To provide maximum safety.
84
What is the datum of an aircraft and what is its function?
The datum is an imaginary vertical plane at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the airplane. It is the reference point from which all horizontal measurements are taken.
85
How do you determine the moment of an item of equipment?
The weight of the item is multiplied by its arm, which is the distance between the item and the datum.
86
What are two ways of determining the arm of an item of equipment?
Measure the distance between the item and the datum, or use data supplied by the manufacturer.
87
What should be done to obtain a positive (plus) moment aft of the datum?
Add weight.
88
What should be done to obtain a negative (minus) moment aft of the datum?
Remove weight.
89
What should be done to obtain a positive (plus) moment FORWARD of the datum?
Remove weight.
90
What should be done to obtain a negative (minus) moment forward of the datum?
Add weight.
91
How does the category of an aircraft affect its loaded weight?
Aircraft certificated in more than one category, such as Normal and Aerobatic, may have two different maximum gross weights and different useful loads.
92
As you prepare an aircraft for weighing, you determine that there is equipment aboard that is not permanently installed and recorded on the equipment list. What should you do with this equipment?
All equipment not permanently installed in the aircraft or included on the equipment list should be removed from the aircraft.
93
Define the term 'residual fuel.'
Any fuel that remains in the tanks, lines, and engines, after the system has been drained.
94
Define the term 'residual oil.'
Any oil that remains in the tanks, lines, and engines, after the system has been drained.
95
How should you account for fuel when weighing an aircraft to determine weight and balance?
Either drain the fuel system until only unusable fuel remains, or fill the tanks full and subtract out the weight of the useable fuel.
96
Where are leveling instructions found, and describe one method of leveling an aircraft?
Leveling instructions are found in the Type Certificate Data Sheets. An aircraft may be leveled by using a spirit level at specified points, or an aircraft may be leveled by using a plumb bob from a designated point along with a leveling scale or protractor.
97
Define the term 'Mean Aerodynamic Chord' or MAC.
Mean Aerodynamic Chord is the chord drawn through the center of the wing plan area.
98
Describe the two most common ways of showing the C.G. location and/or C.G. range.
In inches from the datum or in percent of MAC.
99
What is the purpose of an aircraft loading graph?
It is a method for determining how to distribute the load so as to keep the C.G. within allowable limits.
100
What is ballast, and why would you use it in an airplane?
Ballast is weight added to an airplane to bring its C.G. into the allowable or desired range.
101
Installation of several new radios in the nose of an aircraft causes the forward C.G. limit to be exceeded. How can you correct this problem without removing the new equipment?
Ballast may be installed in the tail to move the C.G. aft.
102
How can you correct the problem of exceeding the forward C.G. limit after installing new radios in the nose of an aircraft?
Ballast may be installed in the tail to move the C.G. aft.
103
How does the C.G. range of a helicopter compare to that of a fixed-wing airplane?
Helicopters typically have a much smaller C.G. range.
104
How do you work harden a piece of metal?
By cold working the metal.
105
What is the primary difference between a thermosetting and a thermoplastic resin?
thermosetting- doesn't soften when heated and chars or burns rather than melting.
Thermoplastic- soft and pliable when heated, and harden when cooled
106
How are thermoplastic and thermosetting resins commonly used in modern aircraft?
-thermoplastic resin commonly used for windshields
-Thermosetting resins are used as the matrix material in composite structures.
107
Name one type of resin commonly used as a matrix material for aircraft composite laminates.
Polyester resin or Epoxy resin.
108
What materials are commonly used as the REINFORCING component in a composite structure?
Fiberglass, Aramid (Kevlar), Graphite (Carbon) fiber, linen and paper.
109
Why is alloy steel that is responsive to heat treatment usually less suitable for welding?
It may become brittle and lose its ductility in the area of the weld.
110
What is one advantage of pre-preg (pre-impregnated) materials?
Pre-preg fabrics contain the correct amount of matrix. The matrix material evenly and completely permeates the reinforcing fibers. The matrix has the resin and hardener in the correct proportions.
111
What do the markings on the heads of solid shank rivets indicate?
The material that they are made of, and indirectly, their strength.
112
How can you keep heat treated aluminum alloy rivets soft enough to install after the quenching process?
If the rivets are stored in a freezer they will remain soft for several days.
113
What is the grip length of a bolt?
The length of the unthreaded portion.
114
How are AN standard steel bolts identified?
By the code markings on the bolt heads.
115
What is the difference between a close tolerance bolt and a general purpose bolt?
Close tolerance bolts are machined to more accurate dimensions.
116
For what types of applications are self-locking nuts NOT allowed?
Self locking nuts may NOT be used when either the bolt or the nut is subject to rotation
117
If the maintenance procedures do not specify a torque value for a bolt or nut, how can you determine the proper values?
Consult a standard torque table such as found in AC 43.13-1B.
118
What is the most commonly used type of aircraft control cable?
Extra flexible 7 x 19 stainless steel cable.
119
What type of precision measuring instruments can be used to measure the outside dimensions of aircraft parts?
Outside micrometers and vernier calipers.
120
For what reasons should a micrometer be periodically calibrated?
If dropped, its accuracy may be affected, If the spindle is over-tightened, the frame may be sprung, Continually sliding objects between the anvil and the spindle may wear the surfaces.
121
What are the two types of fluid lines commonly found in aircraft?
Rigid metal lines and flexible hoses.
122
How is metal tubing classified according to size?
according to wall thickness and OD. OD in 1/16th inch increments.
123
When installing stainless steel tubing, what type of fittings should be used?
Stainless steel fittings.
124
What is the function of the sleeve on a flared-tube fitting?
The nut fits over the sleeve and draws the sleeve and the tubing flare tightly against the male fitting to form the seal.
125
What are the TWO types of FLARES commonly used on aircraft tubing?
The single flare and the double flare.
126
How can you determine if a fitting is an AN type rather than an AC type?
AN fittings have a shoulder between the flare cone and the end of the threads, AC fittings do not.
127
What are the most significant differences between AN and AC fittings?
-Sleeve length
-thread pitch
-the shoulder between the threads and the flare cone on AN fittings
128
What are the names of the parts of a flareless tube fitting?
The nut and sleeve.
129
How do you tell a flareless fitting from a flare-type fitting?
Flareless fittings don't have a flare cone and there is no space between the threads and the end of the fitting.
130
What is the effect of over-tightening a flare type fitting?
The sealing surface may be damaged or the flare cut off.
131
What is an additional requirement for installing metal fuel, oil and hydraulic lines?
The lines must be electrically bonded to the structure.
132
What are some important advantages of Teflon tubing?
-compatible with nearly every liquid,
-broad operating temperature range, -low resistance to fluid flow
-very long shelf and service life.
133
Describe the IDENTIFICATION markings commonly found on FLEXIBLE HOSES.
A lay line,
Mil Spec number
manufacturer's name or symbol
the hose size and a date code.
134
How can you determine if a flexible hose has been correctly or incorrectly installed?
The lay line will be straight if the hose is properly installed. A twisted lay line indicates an incorrect installation.
135
How are flexible hose sizes designated?
ID, 1/16th inch increments.
136
What precautions must be observed when deburring the end of a tube after it is cut?
The wall thickness must not be reduced in size or fractured.
137
Describe the operation of quick disconnect couplings.
Each half has a valve that is held open when coupled and is spring-loaded closed when disconnected.
138
If you fabricate a replacement for a flexible hose, what percentage of the total length must be added to allow for movement under pressure?
5 to 8 percent.
139
What happens to the tube when a flareless fitting is overtightened?
The tube is weakened when the nut drives the cutting edge of the sleeve too deeply into the tube.
140
Why are quick disconnect fittings used?
To provide a quick means to connect or disconnect a fluid line without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.
141
Describe the steps involved in a dye penetrant inspection.
-cleaned
-penetrant is applied
-dwell for a specified time.
-remove with an emulsifier or cleaner. -dried
-developer is applied.
-inspected and interpreted.
142
Name some tools that are commonly used to assist in making visual inspections of welds.
A magnifying glass, flashlight, mirror and, possibly, a borescope.
143
What are some non-destructive testing methods that may be used on aluminum parts?
Visual, dye penetrant, eddy current, ultrasonic testing and radiography.
144
What process occurs during the preparation stage of a dye penetrant inspection when the penetrating liquid is applied and then removed from a cracked part?
The penetrant enters the crack by capillary action and remains there until made visible by the developer.
145
What bead width and penetration should a correctly made butt weld have?
The bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal and there must be 100% penetration.
146
What characteristics are evidence of a cold weld?
A cold weld has rough, irregular edges that are not feathered into the base metal and has variations in penetration amounts.
147
What percentage of the thickness of the base metal should the penetration of a fillet weld be?
25 to 50 percent.
148
What are the basic steps of conducting magnetic particle inspections?
-Magnetize the part
-coat the surface with ferromagnetic particles
-particles align with discontinuity forming a visible pattern.
149
Is there a requirement for cleaning an aircraft prior to an annual or 100-hour inspection?
it is a legal requirement FAR Part 43, Appendix D.
150
What general precautions should be observed when washing an airplane?
Avoid or protect areas, which may be damaged or contaminated, such as: Pitot and static ports, hinges, sealed areas, and bearings.
151
What are some common light-duty cleaning agents?
Soap or detergents and water.
152
What materials are commonly used as heavy-duty cleaners?
Solvents and emulsions.
153
What are the preferred cleaners for plastic surfaces such as windshields?
Mild soap and water or a manufacturer approved cleaner.
154
What type of cleaning agents should be used to remove grease, oil, or fuel from aircraft tires?
Soap and water.
155
What factors CAUSE or INFLUENCE corrosion? (Metals)
-environmental conditions
- dissimilar metals
-type of metal
-electrolytes and/or contaminants
-condition of protective coatings.
156
What are some forms of corrosion?
Surface, Intergranular, Filiform, Dissimilar metal (or galvanic), Oxidation, Pitting, Stress, Fretting.
157
What is one cause of FILLiform corrosion?
incomplete curing of a wash primer prior to painting.
158
What are the visible signs of FILLiform corrosion?
Blistered paint surfaces or worm or thread-like tracks or patterns under the paint.
159
What are the two primary factors that may cause the development of STRESS CORROSION cracks?
A corrosive environment and sustained tensile stress.
160
What are the visible signs of fretting corrosion?
The corrosion residue has a dark, smoky appearance and often appears around and streaming back from rivet heads.
161
Why are piano-type hinges prime spots for corrosion?
The steel pin and aluminum hinge material are dissimilar metals and the hinge design tends to trap moisture and contaminants.
162
What is the best way to protect piano hinges from corrosion?
Keep them clean and properly lubricated.
163
What are some procedures used to prevent corrosion?
Cleaning
Lubrication
Treatment
Sealing
Inspection
Installing protective covers
Keeping drain holes free and clear.
164
What TOOLS should be used to REMOVE corrosion from anodized ALUMINUM SURFACES?
-Nylon scrubber pads
-bristle brushes
-aluminum wool/wire brushes.
165
What effects does using steel brushes or steel wool have on aluminum surfaces?
Steel brushes or steel wool must not be used to clean aluminum because steel particles can become embedded in the aluminum and cause corrosion.
166
What is the purpose of Alodine?
Alodine® is a chemical process that deposits a protective film on aluminum alloys. This film improves corrosion resistance and paint adhesion.
167
Why should ANODIZED aluminum surfaces NOT be cleaned with aluminum metal polish?
it will remove the anodized coating.
168
Why should aircraft fabrics and plastics be cleaned only with recommended cleaners?
Recommended cleaners cause the least amount of deterioration or damage.
169
What are some areas in an aircraft that are prone to corrosion?
Battery compartments
Exhaust trail areas
Bilge areas
Vent areas
Landing gear/wheel wells,
Fuel tanks
Wing flap recesses
galleys and lavatories
Piano Hinges
Any area that can trap water.
170
What are some possible HAZARDS during TYPICAL ground operations?
The possibility of fire
turning props
rotors
prop or jet blast/inlet areas
other aircraft
vehicles
people and obstacles
foreign objects
high noise levels
hydraulic lock in radial engines weathervaning of tailwheel aircraft.
171
What is the most generally used knot for tying down small aircraft?
The bowline (although other anti-slip knots may be used).
172
What precautions should be taken while starting and running an aircraft engine?
Study the procedures in the Airplane Flight Manual. Ensure the propeller or inlet area is clear and check for loose stones, gravel, etc. Have a fire guard nearby.
173
What procedure should be followed if an engine induction fire occurs while starting a reciprocating engine?
Continue cranking the engine to start it and suck the fire into the engine. If the engine doesn't start and the fire continues, extinguish the fire with a suitable fire extinguisher.
174
What safety procedures must be observed when hand-propping a small aircraft engine?
-Become thoroughly trained/have a qualified person in the cockpit
-check the brakes
-call 'SWITCH OFF' before moving the prop
-call 'CONTACT' when ready to start.
175
What procedure should be followed prior to starting a large radial engine to prevent hydraulic lock?
Pull the propeller through by hand for three or four complete revolutions. Resistance to the prop turning indicates a possible hydraulic lock.
176
What causes hydraulic lock in large radial engines?
Oil seeps by the piston rings and accumulates in the combustion chamber of lower cylinders.
177
What is meant by the term 'Hot Start' when starting a jet engine?
Ignition occurs with an excessively rich mixture, leading to a rapid temperature rise that can exceed the exhaust gas temperature limit.
178
When TOWING an aircraft, which brakes should be used to stop the aircraft?
The tow vehicle brakes should be used except in an emergency - then the aircraft brakes may be used.
179
Why should an aircraft technician become familiar with standard light signals?
Light signals may be used when taxiing an airplane without a radio or when a radio becomes inoperative.
180
What are the possible results of using a mixture of aviation gasoline and jet fuel in a reciprocating aircraft engine?
Avgas contaminated by jet fuel must not be used in piston engines - the engine may be damaged or destroyed.
181
What does the number 100 signify in 100LL aviation gasoline?
It refers to the lean mixture performance number (or octane rating) of the fuel.
182
Is it permissible to use avgas in a turbine engine?
Limited operation may be allowed by the manufacturer. Continued use may reduce efficiency due to lead deposits on the turbine blades.
183
What are the possible outcomes of using a lower grade of avgas than specified?
Increased chance of engine damage due to detonation, loss of engine power, and increased probability of overheating.
184
What markings must be placed adjacent to fuel filler openings for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?
The filler openings must be marked with the fuel grade and the word 'AVGAS.'
185
What precautions should be observed when fueling an aircraft?
-correct fuel
-properly ground aircraft refueling unit
-protect surfaces from hose/nozzle damage.
186
What markings are required for oil tank filler openings in piston engine powered airplanes?
The word 'OIL' and the permissible grades and/or types or a reference to the appropriate Airplane Flight Manual.
187
Where can standard aircraft taxi hand signals be found?
In the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
188
Under what conditions should a reciprocating engine be pre-oiled?
Prior to starting a new engine or one that has been preserved for storage.
189
Under what conditions may automobile gasoline be used in an aircraft engine?
Only if approved by the FAA, usually by the issuance of a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC).
190
What are the indications of water in aircraft fuel after draining a sample from the fuel sumps?
The sample may have a cloudy or hazy appearance or a solid slug of water.
191
What federal aviation regulation(FAR) prescribes the requirements for issuance of a type certificate?
FAR (14 CFR) Part 21.
192
What part of the FARs describes the airworthiness standards for Transport Category airplanes?
FAR Part 25.
193
What part of the FARs describes the performance characteristics that a small aircraft must demonstrate to be airworthy?
FAR Part 23.
194
Who is responsible for ensuring that only the most current information is used when performing maintenance on an aircraft?
The person performing the maintenance.
195
Why are Airworthiness Directives issued?
To correct unsafe conditions found in aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances.
196
How does the FAA notify aircraft owners of UNSAFE CONDITIONS that must be corrected?
By issuing Airworthiness Directives.
197
How do you determine the timeframe within which AD compliance is required?
The AD contains the compliance time or period for completing the corrective action.
198
What publication (FAR) contains the guidelines for the required inspection items for an annual or 100-hour inspection?
FAR Part 43, Appendix D.
199
How can you determine if the repair of damage is a major or minor repair?
FAR Part 43, Appendix A defines major and minor repairs as well as preventive maintenance.
200
What publication might you consult for guidance when maintaining an old aircraft for which no maintenance manual exists?
AC 43.13-1B or its latest revision.
201
What are Advisory Circulars?
Non-regulatory information of interest to the aviation public.
202
What publication would you consult to determine an aircraft's type design and its limitations?
The Type Certificate Data Sheets and/or Aircraft Specifications.
203
In what FAA publication could you find a list of engines approved for use in a specific make and model of airplane?
In the Type Certificate Data Sheets and/or Aircraft Specifications.
204
What reference material can be used to determine if an aircraft is certificated in more than one category?
The Type Certificate Data Sheets and/or Aircraft Specifications.
205
What is the name of the manual provided by the manufacturer to technicians who perform work on aircraft systems?
The aircraft maintenance manual.
206
Under what circumstances is compliance with a manufacturer's service bulletin mandatory?
When the service bulletin is incorporated into an AD (or other approved data).
207
What kinds of publications are used by aircraft MANUFACTURERS to notify owners of design defects?
●Service Bulletins
●Service Letters
●Service Instructions.
208
What publication would you consult to determine the serviceable dimensional limits for an engine part?
engine manufacturer's overhaul manual.
209
How often is the summary of ADs published?
Every two years.
210
Will a certificated mechanic automatically receive ALL ADs?
No. ADs are automatically sent only to registered aircraft owners.
211
How are AD updates issued to subscribers to the Summary of Airworthiness Directives?
Through biweekly supplements.
212
Where do you find the minimum scope and detail requirements for a 100-hour inspection checklist?
FAR Part 43, Appendix D.
213
Where must records of a major alteration be made?
The aircraft maintenance records and FAA Form 337.
214
How many copies of FAA Form 337 are normally prepared and what is their distribution?
Two signed copies. One is given to the aircraft owner and one is sent to the local FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours of the approval or return to service.
215
What do regulations require regarding the disposition of records that contain the current status of Airworthiness Directives when an aircraft is sold?
The seller must transfer the records to the buyer at the time of sale.
216
For how long must an aircraft owner maintain the records of a 100-hour inspection?
Until the work is superseded or for one year after the inspection.
217
In what publication may a mechanic find an example of a maintenance record entry for a 100-hour inspection?
FAR Part 43.11.
218
Where should a 100-hour inspection be recorded?
In the appropriate maintenance record for the airframe, powerplant, propeller or appliance.
219
What items must be entered into the aircraft records after maintenance is performed?
A description of the work performed and/or reference to acceptable data, the date the work was completed, and the signature, certificate number and type of certificate of the person approving the aircraft for return to service.
220
Who makes the final maintenance record entry after a 100-hour inspection is completed?
The person approving the aircraft for return to service.
221
What documents must be prepared when a required inspection is performed and defects are found?
The required maintenance entries must be made and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items must be furnished to the owner.
222
What maintenance record entries are required to contain the aircraft total time in service?
Only records of inspections require the total time.
223
What regulation authorizes a certificated mechanic with an Inspection Authorization to approve or disapprove a major repair or alteration?
FAR 65.95.
224
Who has the authority to rebuild an aircraft engine and return the operating time to zero?
Only the engine manufacturer or an overhaul facility approved by the manufacturer.
225
Are there circumstances when more than two copies of Form 337 are required?
Yes. Three copies are required when a fuel tank is installed in the passenger or baggage compartment.
226
How do the regulations define 'time-in-service' in regard to maintenance record entries?
'Time-in-service' begins when the aircraft leaves the surface of the earth until it touches it at the next point of landing.
227
What are the penalties for making fraudulent or intentionally false entries in any required record or report?
The applicable airmen certificate(s) can be suspended or revoked.
228
What persons are authorized to make the required maintenance entry approving the return to service after a progressive inspection?
An applicable certificated mechanic, an appropriately rated repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer.
229
What is the difference between 'overhaul' and 'rebuilding' as they pertain to aircraft engine maintenance records?
Overhaul refers to restoring an engine to a serviceable condition, while rebuilding involves returning the operating time to zero.
230
What persons are authorized to make the required maintenance entry approving the return to service after a progressive inspection is performed at a location other than the aircraft's home base?
An applicable certificated mechanic. An appropriately rated repair station. The aircraft manufacturer.
231
What is the difference between the terms 'overhaul' and 'rebuilding' as they pertain to aircraft engine maintenance records?
'Overhauled' engines must be tested to approved or acceptable current standards and technical data. 'Rebuilt' engines must be tested to the same tolerance and limits as a new engine.
232
When performing an inspection required by FAR Part 91, what rotorcraft systems must be inspected in accordance with the manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness?
-drive shafts
-main rotor, transmission gearbox, center section.
-auxiliary rotor on helicopters.
233
How can you determine that an aircraft part or appliance you receive is serviceable?
By an approval for return to service in the maintenance record for the part or appliance. With a completed Form 337.
234
What publication should a mechanic consult to determine if a repair is considered major or minor?
14 CFR (FAR), Part 43, Appendix A.
235
Where in the FARs will you find the certification requirements for mechanics?
FAR Part 65.
236
What are the ratings issued under a mechanic's certificate?
Airframe and Powerplant.
237
What types of work may a certificated mechanic perform?
A mechanic may perform or supervise maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations.
238
Is a certificated airframe mechanic allowed to perform maintenance on engines?
Not unless they are supervised by a certificated powerplant mechanic.
239
What are the limitations to a mechanic's privileges with regard to propellers?
A mechanic may not perform or supervise major repairs to, or major alterations of, propellers.
240
Is a mechanic allowed to repair or alter an aircraft instrument?
No. Mechanics may not perform any repairs or alterations on instruments.
241
What are the requirements for RECENT EXPERIENCE order to exercise the privileges of your mechanic's certificate or rating?
You must have worked as a mechanic or technically supervised other mechanics for at least 6 months out of the past 24 months.
242
What authority does a mechanic have regarding approval for return to service?
A mechanic may approve an aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance for return to service in accordance with the provisions of FAR Part 65.
243
What are the privileges of an A & P mechanic regarding inspections?
A mechanic may perform and approve for return to service an airframe or engine following a 100-hour inspection.
244
What is the duration of a mechanic's certificate?
The certificate is valid until surrendered, suspended or revoked.
245
What are the privileges and limitations of an A & P mechanic regarding MAJOR REPAIRS and alterations to airframes and engines, and their APPROVAL for return to service?
A & P mechanics may perform major repairs and alterations but may not approve them for return to service unless they hold an Inspection Authorization.
246
In addition to performing maintenance, what other privileges are granted to a powerplant mechanic?
A powerplant mechanic may perform a 100-hour inspection on an engine and approve the engine for return to service.
247
When may a mechanic perform an ANNUAL inspection and return the aircraft to service?
When the mechanic holds an Inspection Authorization.
248
May a mechanic supervise an inspection (or a portion of an inspection) and then approve the aircraft for return to service?
No. The mechanic approving the aircraft for return to service must actually perform the inspection.
249
What is the duration of a TEMPORARY airman's certificate?
120 days.
250
If a MECHANIC'S certificate is revoked, how long must he/she wait before applying for a new certificate?
One year unless the revocation order states otherwise.
251
What should a mechanic do if his or her temporary certificate is about to expire?
Contact a local FAA office and seek assistance.
252
Is a person with a private pilot's certificate allowed to perform maintenance and, if so, what are his/her limitations?
A pilot may perform preventive maintenance in accordance with FAR Part 43.3, 43.7 and Appendix A on an airplane owned by the pilot. He or she can also approve the aircraft for return to service following that maintenance.
253
What are your requirements as an aircraft mechanic when you have a change of address?
You must notify the FAA in writing within 30 days of any change to your permanent address.
