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Jeppesen Instrument/FAA Text Flashcards

(104 cards)

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1
Q

What are sources of PILOT error in IFR flight?

A

Misinterpretation of chart, failure to understand a clearance, inability to use equipment properly, lack of coordination among crewmemebers.

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2
Q

DECIDE?

A

D-detect the fact that a change has occured
E- estimate the need to counter or react to the change
C- choose a desirable outcome for the flight
I- identify actions which could control the change
D- do the necessary action to adapt to change
E- Evaluate the effect of the action

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3
Q

What constitutes good situational awareness?

A

A solid mental picture of the flight

weather trends, good fitness, and ATC instructions

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4
Q

Kinesthetic sense?

A

A term used to describe an awareness of position obtained from the nerves in skin, joints, and muscles. It is unreliable becuase the brain cannot tell the difference between input caused by gravity and that of maneuvering G-loads.

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5
Q

Saptial disorientation?

A

occurs when there is a conflict between the signals relayed by your central vision and information provided by your peripheral vision, It is more likely in IFR conditions,

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6
Q

Vestibular disorientation?

A

When subjected to the differenct forces of flight during instrument maneuvers, the vestibular system may send misleading signals to the brain

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7
Q

Four types of hypoxia?

A

-Hypoxic - when there is not enough molecules of oxygen available at sufficient pressure to pass the membranes in your respiratory system.

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8
Q

Review pages 2-31

A

okay

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9
Q

HOw do you establish the correct heading after losing it in coordinated flight?

A

When you see heading deviation, use the attitude indicator to establish an angle of bank equal to the degrees deviation from the heading (10 degrees off = 10 degree bank)

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10
Q

What is the primary instrument for bank control after a turn has been entered?

A

The turn coordinator

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11
Q

HOw can you estimate the approximate angle of bank required for a standard rate turn?

A

Divide true airspeed in knots by 10 and add 5 to result

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12
Q

How do you stop a turn on the desired heading?

A

Lead the roll out by 1/2 the angle of bank

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13
Q

Why does an aircraft tend to lose airspeed in a level turn?

A

The increased angle of attack results in an increase in induced drag

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14
Q

what is the primary pitch instrument?

A

The altimeter

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15
Q

What should you due when using the compass to turn to a northerly heading in the northern hemisphere?

A

Roll out before the compass reaches the desired heading

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16
Q

What should you do when using the comapss to turn to a southerly heading in the northern hemisphere?

A

Roll out after the compass passes the desired heading.

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17
Q

What is The most accurate way to turn to a specific heading without the heading indicator

A

a timed turn

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18
Q

What should you do prior to beinning a timed turn?

A

Determine the accuracy of the turn coordinator. Establish a standard rate indication on the instrument for 30 seconds and determine weather the aircraft turns 90 degrees

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19
Q

How do you determine how long to turn in a timed turn?

A

Divide the degrees of desired heading change by three degrees per second for a standard rate turn. the result in the number of seconds to turn

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20
Q

What does blockage of the ram air inlet and the drain hole cause?

A

It causes the airspeed indicator to react like an altimeter.

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21
Q

What does each dot on the deviation scale refer to with regard to HSI/VOR?

A

2 degrees, or 200 feet per nautical mile

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22
Q

What does an HSI provide that a VOR does not?

A

An HSI provides information about the aircraft’s heading and its relationship to the intended course

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23
Q

How do you determine magnetic bearing to a station?

A

Add magnetic heading (MH) and relative bearing (RB)

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24
Q

What is relative bearing?

A

the angle between the needle and the aircraft nose reference

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25
How accurate is a DME?
TO within 1/2 mile or 3%, whichever is greater.
26
How far can a DME be received?
In a line of sight distance up to 199 nautical miles
27
When checking a VOR, what is the maximum permisible error on the ground?
+- 4
28
When checking a VOR what is the maximum permissible error while airborne?
+- 6
29
What is the maximum permissible difference allowable when performing a dual VOR check?
4
30
How is VOR station passage indicated?
By the first positive and complete reversal of the TO/FROM indicator
31
MH+RB=MB
to the station.. figure this out?
32
When is NDB station passage said to occur?
When the needle either points to a wingtip or settles at or near the 180 position
33
What is the maximum permissible deviation of a VOR checked via VOT?
+-4
34
What does RNAV provide?
(Area Navigation) provides the ability to fly direct to your destination without the need to overfly VORs or other ground facilities
35
What is RAIM and what does it do?
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring continuously verifies the integrity (usability) of the signals received from the GPS constellation
36
What is a non precision instrument runway?
A runway used with an instrument approach that does not have an electronic glide slope for approach glide path information.
37
ILS?
It uses an electronic glide slope to provide glide path information during the approach. The associated runways are marked so you can receive important visual cues. Touchdown zone markings are coded to provide distance information in 500 foot increments. Aiming point markings are located approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold.
38
What might be unique about the taxiway to an ILS runway?
The runway might have an ILS hold line to prevent aircraft near the runway from interfering with the ILS signal.
39
What operations are permitted in a displaced threshold.
It depends upon the type of restrictions imposed. Taxi, takeoff, and rollout areas are marked by white arrow leading to the displaced threshold. When landing, you must touch down beyond the displaced threshold. If the displaced threshold is marked with a yellow taxi line leading to it, it can only be used for taxi operations.
40
How do mandatory instruction signs look?
They have white lettering with a red background
41
What color are displaced threshold lights?
Green
42
What does an airport beacon operating during day light hours indicate?
Vis less than 3 miles or ceiling less than 1000 feet
43
When is a DME required?
When operating at or above FL240
44
Airspeed restrictions?
You may not operate an aircraft below 10,000 MSL at a speed greater than 250 knots unless approced by ATC. You may not operate an aircraft at or below 2500 feet above the surface within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a class c or D airspace.
45
Breakdance of Airspace?
Found in Chapter 3 section A
46
What are the air traffic control services provided to aircraft operating under IFR flight plans known as?
ARTCCs, air route traffic control centers.
47
What type of safety alerts might ARTCC provide?
Obstruction alerts, aircraft conflict alerts
48
ATIS?
Continuous record broadcast of non-control information that helps decrease frequency congestion
49
When should IFR flight plans be filed?
At least 30 minutes prior to departure
50
When are IFR flight plans deleted?
IFR plans are generally deleted from the ARTCC computer if not activated within one hour of the proposed departure time
51
What climb rate does ATC expect you to maintain?
at least 500fpm to your assigned cruising altitude if unable to maintain this climb rate, you should notify ATC of your reduced rate of climb.
52
When establishe don an airway...
FAR part 91 specifies that you must fly the centerline of that airway during climb, cruise, and descent. However, the regulation further provides that you are not prohibited from maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other aircraft in VFR conditions.
53
When are you responsible for collision avoidance?
When operating on an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions.
54
What will be given, if ythere are delays at your destination?
A clearance to a fix short of your desintation. You will be given an expect further clearance (EFC) time.
55
What is a cruise clearance?
an authorization to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the assigned altitude without a further clearance. In addition, you may vacate an altitude/flight level within the cruise clearance block of airspace without notifying ATC.
56
What are VFR cruising altitude based on?
The magnetic course of the aircraft
57
What is a composite flight plan?
A request to operate IFR on one portion of a flight and VFR for another. 3-64
58
Release time?
The earliest time you may depart
59
Hold for release?
You may not depart until you receive a release time or you are given additional instrucitons
60
Clearance void time
Indicates that ATC expects you to be airborne by a certain time.
61
What parts of a clearance are you expected to read back?
Altitude assignments, radar vectors, or other instructions that require verification
62
Clearance shorthand?
3-66
63
When can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
When experiencing an emergency or the clearance will cause you to violate a rule or regulation
64
What should you do if you deviate from an ATC clearance?
You should notify ATC as soon as possible. You may be request to submit a written report ot the manager of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
65
What is the purpose of departure charts?
They simply clearance delivery procedures, reduce frequency congestion, ensure obstacle clearance, and control the flow of traffic.
66
By what criteria are IFR departure charts designed?
By the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPs)
67
How can you determine the climb rate necessary for a DP?
Divide groundspeed by 60 and multiply by the climb gradient.
68
What do DPs provide?
a transition between the airport and enroute structure
69
What is the minimum climb gradient of a DP?
At least 200 feet per nautical mile
70
Pilot nav DPs...?
allow you to navigate along a route with minimal ATC communications.
71
What should you do on a DP with instructors to maintain runway heading?
Maintain the magnetic heading of the runway centerline
72
What is a vector DP?
ATC provides radar navigation guidance. ATC provides vectors to help reach fixes portrayed on the chart
73
What is true regarding climb gradients?
They are shown in feet per nautical mile and must be converted to feet per minute for use during departure
74
what are the stanard departure minimums?
One statute mile visibility for single and twin engine airplanes, one half statute mile for aircraft with more than two engines
75
Prevailing visibility?
The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personnel can see throughout one half the horizon. This visibility which need not be continuous, is reported in statute miles or fractions of miles and record on the aviation routine weather report (METAR)
76
Runway Visibility Value?
RVV - the visibility determined for a particular runway by a device, called a transmissometer, located near the runway. RVV is used in liue of prevailing visibility in determining minimums for a particular runway
77
Runway Visual Range?
RVR - based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway from the approach end. Rported in hundreds of feet.
78
What is required to fly a DP?
You must have the charted procedure of at least the textual description in possession, otherwise file "NO DP" in flight plan
79
What does the V in Victor Airways stand for?
It stands for VHF because these airways connect VOR, VOTAC, and VOR/DME stations.
80
What is the width of an airway?
Generally, 8 nautical miles, 4 miles on each side of the centerline. When an airway segment is more than 102 nautical miles long, additional airspace is allocated.
81
How are the distances expressed on enroute charts?
Nautical miles
82
non compulsory reporting points?
Are identified by open triangles, and position reports are not required unless requested by ATC
83
Compulsory reporting points?
Identified by a solid triangle, you are required to make position report when you pass over this point.
84
What is the minimum enroute altitude?
(MEA) is ordinarily the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that guarantees adequate navigation signal reception and obstruction clearance. It is normally the lowest altitude you would use during an IFR flight on airways.
85
What is minimum obstruction clearance altitude?
(MOCA) on Jepp charts, has letter T following the altitude. On NOS charts, an asterisk precedes the altitude
86
What is the major difference between an MEA and a MOCA?
A MOCA ensures reliable navigation signal only within 22 nautical miles of the facility. Conversely, the MEA ordinarily provides reliable navigation signals throughout the entire segment.
87
What are the basics of minimum altitudes during IFR flight?
Remain at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from your intended course. If in a designated mountainous area, minimum altitude is 2,000 and the distance from the course remains the same.
88
Maximum authorized altitude?
MAA - at higher altitdues you might be able to receive two or more VOR stations simultaneously on the same frequency, making the signals unreliable for navigation. Def- MAA is the highest altitude you can fly based on the line-of-sight transmitting distance of VOR or VORTAC stations using the same frequency. It guarantees that you will only receive on signal at a time on a given frequency
89
minimum reception altitude?
Lowest altidue that ensures adequate receiption of the naivation signals forming an intersection or other fix. (MRA)
90
MCA?
Minimum Crossing Altitude - must begin climbing to this altitude prior to reaching a fix
91
MRA
Minimum reception altitude
92
MOCA?
Minimum obstruction clearance altitude
93
MEA
Minimum enroute altitude
94
MAA?
Maximum authorized altitude
95
COP
Change over point, indications when a change must be made in a place other than the midpoint
96
RCO?
Remote Communication Outlets - set up to provide adequate communication coverage throughout the area served by the center.
97
MORA?
Minimum Off Route Altitude
98
What should an initial call to center include?
- Facility Ident - Aircraft ident- - altitude - assigned altitude
99
What are times you should report to ATC without a specific request?
5-29
100
What is required for GPS IFR enroute and terminal area operation?
- GPS - Tradition navigation equipment (VOR, DME, TECAN, and/or NDB) - All navaids along route of flight must be operational
101
What is the window of an altimeter called?
a Kollsman window
102
What is the sensitive element in an altimeter?
Bronze aneroid capsules.
103
What is the maximum allowed altimeter error?
75 feet
104
14 CFR part 91 requires the altitude transmitted by the transponder
to be within 125 feet of the altitude indicated on the instrument used to maintain flight altitude.

Instrument Rating (11 decks)

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