JFS MQF Flashcards
(338 cards)
1
Q
What are the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?
A
Accurate target location and size, Accurate firing unit location, Accurate weapon and ammunition information, Accurate meteorological information, Accurate computational procedures
2
Q
- As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect are you solely responsible for?
A
Accurate target location and size
3
Q
- True/False: The observer serves as the “eyes” of the indirect fire systems and the FDC serves as the “brain” of the system
A
True
4
Q
- What and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function into operations?
A
Fires Cell
5
Q
- What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?
A
Fixed Wing Aircraft
6
Q
- _____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact (i.e., close combat attack) or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.
A
Army Attack Aviation
7
Q
- Which branch of service employs it’s attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?
A
Marine Corps
8
Q
- True/False: Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component
A
True
9
Q
- _____ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions.
A
Unmanned Aircraft
10
Q
- _____ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition. It also reduces our vulnerability to adversary target acquisition.
A
Massing Fires
11
Q
- Failure to select proper shell fuze combinations may result in what?
A
a. Undesired Effects on Target
b. Reduction in Desired Effects on Target
c. Excessive Expenditure of Ammunition
12
Q
- Aside from tactical considerations, the selection of targets, munitions, and techniques of fire must comply with what?
A
Law of War
Geneva and Hague Conventions
13
Q
- Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of about how many meters?
A
250m
14
Q
- Who is in charge of the FIST and also the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?
A
Company/Troop FSO
15
Q
- The _____ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver and provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The _____ translates the guidance into fire support tasks.
A
a. Maneuver Commander / FSO
16
Q
- Select all that apply: What is a Target?
A
a. An entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other action.
b. A country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed.
c. An area designated and numbered for future firing.
d. An impact burst that hits the target.
17
Q
- What is a target that is identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting?
A
a. Target
b. Time Sensitive Target
c. Target of Opportunity
d. Unplanned Target
18
Q
- A _____ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned, using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives.
A
d. Planned Target
19
Q
- A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time.
A
a. Scheduled Target
20
Q
- A _____ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting
A
b. On-call Target
21
Q
- A _____ is a target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element.
A
a. Priority Target
22
Q
- What is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
A
Final Protective Fire
23
Q
- When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?
A
d. 300 / 75
24
Q
- When planning an FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers?
A
a. 400 / 50
25
25. What is the DA form used for the Target List Worksheet?
c. DA Form 4655
26
Using target number AA1000 with an altitude of 420m and a target description of ENY Dismounts, properly label the point target below
+
27
27. Using target number AA1005, properly label the linear target below
28
28. Using target number AA1010, properly label the rectangular target below.
29
29. Using target number AA1015, properly label the circular target below
30
30. Using target number AA1020, C Battery, 2-15 FA, a 155mm Howitzer battery, properly label the FPF below.
31
31. A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
d. Group of Targets
32
32. A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
b. Series of Targets
33
33. A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack
d. Program of Targets
34
34. What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?
a. Fire Support Team
35
35. Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. It includes developing integrated fire plans using what?
b. Target Lists, No Fire Lists, Fire Support Execution Matrix, Scheme of Fires, and Overlays
36
36. _____ is the planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.
a. Fire Support Coordination
37
37. _____ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces.
d. Close Air Support
38
38. _____ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft.
a. Terminal Attack Control (TAC)
39
39. What type of control requires control of individual attacks and the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack?
a. Type 1 Control
40
40. What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target?
b. Type 2 Control
41
41. What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.
c. Type 3 Control
42
42. What does each letter of the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?
42. What does each letter of the memory aid FA-PARCA stand for?
a. F-Fire Support Task
b. A-Allocation of Assets or Targets to Subordinate Units
c. P-Positioning Guidance for Fire Support Assets and Observers
d. A-Attack Guidance
e. R-Restrictions
f. C-Coordinating Instructions
g. A-Assessment
43
43. Select all that apply: What types of close air support terminal attack control can a joint fires observer provide target information in support of?
b. Type 2 Control
c. Type 3 Control
44
44. How many options are used to employ the fire support team?
3
45
45. Which FIST employment option consolidates the FIST at the battalion level?
a. Option 1 – Battalion Fire Support Team
46
46. Which FIST employment option has the FIST assets remaining at the company or troop level?
b. Option 2 – Company or Troop FIST
47
47. Which FIST employment option makes it to where most platoons in the maneuver companies or troops receive a forward observer
c. Option 3 – Platoon Forward Observer
48
48. Which forward observer control option would you use for a more experienced and highly trained FO team, allowing them to call for fire from fire support assets available to support the operation?
a. Option 1 - Decentralized
49
49. Which forward observer control option would you use to assign a particular fire support asset to an FO from which they may request fire support?
b. Option 2 - Designated
50
50. Which forward observer control option would you use for maximum control that requires the FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?
c. Option 3 - Centralized
51
51. Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?
a. Option 1 - Control
52
52. Which vehicle employment option positions the fire support vehicle on terrain to maximize use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the commander’s vehicle?
b. Option 2 - Observation
53
53. Which vehicle employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but might degrade the supported unit?
c. Option 3 - Independent Observer
54
54. Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be-
a. A graduate of a primary duty skill identifier and additional ASI producing school
55
55. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of L-Location.
c. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces.
56
56. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
b. Communication
57
57. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is NOT part of T-targeting.
d. Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters
58
58. True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O - Observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly or adversary forces recognition.
True
59
59. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?
Position Improvement
60
60. What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets’ location?
a. Precision Target Location Equipment
61
61. _____ is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.
b. Mensuration
62
62. An observer must be able to self-locate to within _____ meters or _____ meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.
c. 10 or 100`
63
63. Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be-
c. True North, Grid North, or Magnetic North
64
64. When converting degrees to mils you must multiply the number of degrees by what to determine mils?
a. 17.8
65
65. What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target?
b. Angle T
66
66. If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, what should the observer consider doing?
d. Cut the corrections.
67
67. The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _____ with shorter hash marks at _____ increments
d. 10 mils and 5 mils
68
68. True/False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are the same for all observers
b. False
69
69. Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils? How far away should observers move away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings?
b. 10 mils and 50 meters
70
70. What direction will observers convert their direction to for the CFF requests unless otherwise stated?
Grid
71
71. Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of how many mils?
10
72
72. When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest how many meters?
10
73
73. When using the flash to bang method of distance determination, how many meters per second do you multiply by the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang)?
350
74
74. Utilizing the flash to bang method of distance determination, you observe the flash and count 14 seconds before hearing the impact, how far is the impact?
4900
75
75. An OF fan has how many radial arms that are 100 mils apart and cover 1,600 mils?
17
76
76. Vertical shift is only sent in the target location if the difference in vertical shift is greater than or equal to how many meters? Vertical shift is expressed to the nearest how many meters?
35, 5
77
77. What are the five parts of a terrain sketch?
Skyline, intermediate hills crests ridges, other natural terrain features, Manmade features, Labels
78
78. What are the methods of target location?
a. Grid Coordinates Using Precision Imagery with Mensuration Tools
b. Laser Grid
c. Laser Polar
d. Grid Coordinates Using Map Spot
e. Polar Plot
f. Shift From a Known Point
79
79. Fill in the circular error, in feet and meters, for the following TLE categories:
a. CAT I 0-6 m / 0-20 ft
b. CAT II 7-15 m / 21-50 ft
c. CAT III16-30 m / 51-100 ft
d. CAT IV 31-91 m / 101-300 ft
80
80. Which of the following is NOT a part of combat identification?
Clarification
81
81. What are the six elements of the call for fire?
Observer Identification
b. Warning Order
c. Target Location
d. Target Description
e. Method of Engagement
f. Method of Fire and Control
82
82. What does the warning order consist of?
d. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location
83
83. What type of mission is normally fired on planned targets, and a length of time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire?
b. Suppress
84
84. What type of mission would you use when engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly maneuver or elements under fire?
d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke
85
85. True / False: When conducting an immediate mission the CFF is sent in three transmissions.
False
86
86. Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the corrections sent?
c. In the form of a grid to the burst location.
87
87. True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.
False
88
88. In a polar plot mission, a _____ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is located above or below the observer's location.
Vertical Shift
89
89. True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the observer’s location.
False
90
90. The observer must describe the target in enough detail that the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use. The target description should contain the following:
a. What the Target Is
b. What the Target is Doing
c. The Number of Elements in the Target
d. The Degree of Protection
e. The Target Size and Shape
91
91. What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
a. So the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use
92
92. The method of engagement consists of
d. type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark
93
93. True / False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision
True
94
94. True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
False
95
95. What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?
600/750
96
96. Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?
c. To mark the Illumination optimal height of burst
97
97. If an observer wants HE and then WP what term would they use in the call for fire?
Followed By
98
98. If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give _____.
Attitude
99
99. What are the 14 methods of control from ATP 3-09.30?
a. Fire When Ready
b. At My Command
c. Cannot Observe
d. Time on Target
e. Time to Target
f. Coordinated Illumination
g. Continuous Illumination
h. Cease Loading
i. Check Fire
j. Continuous Fire
k. Repeat
l. Request Splash
m. Do Not Load
n. Duration
100
100. If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would the observer utilize?
At my command
101
101. Which method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather, terrain, vegetation, intensity of the conflict, or smoke?
d. Cannot Observe
102
102. Which method of control would an observer use to specify the specific time rounds impact on the target?
a. Time on Target
103
103. Which method of control would an observer use to specify the time, in minutes and seconds post hack statement, rounds impact on the target?
b. Time to Target
104
104. True / False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact
True
105
105. What method of control would an observer utilize if they wished to tell the FDC the total time to engage a target?
Duration
106
106. What four items does the MTO consist of?
Unit to fire, Change to call for fire, number of rounds, target number
107
107. Select all that apply: What additional information can be sent separately or along with the MTO?
a. Probable Error in Range
b. Angle T
c. PRF Code
d. Time of Flight
108
108. What are the 9 lines for the 9-Line CAS Brief?
a. Line 1 – Ingress Point (IP) or Battle Position (BP)
b. Line 2 – Heading and Offset
c. Line 3 – Distance
d. Line 4 – Target Elevation
e. Line 5 – Target Description
f. Line 6 – Target Location
g. Line 7 – Mark Type and Terminal Guidance
h. Line 8 – Friendlies
i. Line 9 – Egress
109
109. What are the 5 lines for the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
Line 1 – Observer and Warning Order
b. Line 2 – Friendly Location and Mark
c. Line 3 – Target Location
d. Line 4 – Target Description and Mark
e. Line 5 – Remarks
110
110. How many transmissions are transmitted to the ship for the NSFS call for fire?
d. Two Transmissions
111
111. What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as “DNL” or after establishing a priority target?
Laid
112
112. What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as “At My Command” or “By Round, At My Command”?
Ready
113
113. What FDC command is used to signify the number of rounds specified in the fire for effect has been fired?
c. Rounds Complete
114
114. _____ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean point of impact of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed along the observer-target line.
a. Spotting
115
115. True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
True
116
116. What are the five HOB spottings and what do they mean?
Air, Graze, mix. mix air, mix graze
117
117. What are the eight range spottings?
over
short
target
Range Correct
Doubtful
Lost
Unobserved
Unobserved Over or Short
118
118. As an FO calling for fire you observe a round impact beyond the adjusting point. What range spotting would that be?
Over
119
119. During the impact portion of a registration you spot a round that impacts on the registration point. What range spotting would that be?
Target
120
120. While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1020. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact you neither see nor hear the round impact. What spotting would you make?
Lost
121
1. While executing a CFF you receive a Splash call for AA1025. After waiting 5 seconds for the impact you aren’t able to visually acquire the impact, but you hear it but you’re unable to make out if it’s over or short. What spotting would you make?
Unobserved
122
122. What are the three deviation spottings?
Line
Left
Right
123
123. True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).
true
124
124. As an observer on the hill, you spot a round to the right of the observer-target line. Using your binoculars you measure the angular deviation to be 40 mils to the right. How would you record your spotting of the round?
40 right
125
125. What are the 15 subsequent corrections in sequence (in order)?
OT Direction
Danger Close
Trajectory
Method of Fire
Distribution
Projectile
Fuze
Volume
Deviation
Range
HOB
Target Description
Mission Type and Method of control
Splash
Repeat
126
126. Send the observer-target direction if it has not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than _____ from the previously announced direction.
100mils
127
127. What correction do you need to send before a control correction during an immediate suppression or when attacking a new target without sending a new call for fire?
b. Target description
128
128. What are the four adjustment techniques used to conduct area adjustment fires?
Successive bracketing
Hasty Bracketing
One round adjust
creeping fire
129
129. Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target?
d. Successive Bracketing
130
130. Which adjustment technique is best when responsive fires are required, and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire?
b. One Round Adjustment
131
131. You’re an observer on the hill and you identify an enemy approximately 500 meters from your position. You announce DANGER CLOSE in your method of engagement. While adjusting your rounds, which adjustment technique is best suited for your situation?
Creeping Fire
132
132. Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE once the _____ meter bracket is split. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.
d. 100, 38, 200
133
133. How is a registration initiated?
a. With a message to observer
134
134. The objective of an impact registration is to get spottings of _____ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.
d. 4 rounds (2 over and 2 short)
135
135. True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two over and two short) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.
True
136
136. While conducting a registration you spot a round target or range correct. What does that round provide a spotting as?
Both over and short
137
137. During an impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before _____.
c. Splitting a 200 meter bracket
138
138. During an impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, how many round(s) are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting?
b. 2
139
139. During an impact registration, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, what is the range refinement necessary to move the impact toward the registration point?
c. No Range Refinement is Necessary
140
140. If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be from the last data fired?
a. Add or Drop 10
141
141. If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be?
d. Add or Drop 20
142
142. What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?
a. DA 5429
143
143. In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then _____ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____.
b. Divide, 10 meters
144
144. Using the following information, what should the observer send to the FDC as their deviation refinement for a registration? OT Factor of 2; Spottings of +7R, +15R, -5L, and +3R.
d. Left 10
145
145. Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. The exception is that once a _____ meter range bracket has been split and the last round fired is within _____ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25 meters. Only _____ round over and _____ round short are required.
d. 100, 50, 1, 1
146
146. What is the additional step that is not required for artillery but may be required for mortars during a registration?
a. Adjust the Sheaf
147
147. When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, what does the observer base the determination for the method of fire on?
Wind Direction
148
148. When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, how is the sheaf adjusted?
d. On line with a 40 meter lateral spread, perpendicular to the gun-target line.
149
149. What is the objective of the time portion of the precision registration?
a. 4 rounds fired with the same data 20 meters above the registration point.
150
150. What is the automatic HOB correction for the time portion of the precision registration if the first round is spotted as a graze burst?
b. Up 40
151
151. During the time portion of the precision registration, once the observer achieves a measurable airburst, what is the command given?
c. 3 Rounds Repeat
152
152. During the time portion of the precision registration, when three airbursts and one graze burst is spotted what is the HOB correction?
a. No correction is required
153
153. During the time portion of the precision registration, when two airbursts and two graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?
Up 10
154
154. During the time portion of the precision registration, when one airburst and three graze bursts are spotted what is the HOB correction?
Up 20
155
155. In the event an Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to _____.
c. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud.
156
156. For Excalibur calls for fire, what is the minimum the grid locations will be expressed to?
10 Digits
157
157. What must the observer specify in the target location portion of an Excalibur CFF?
TLE
158
158. What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to create the desired effects on the target?
APMI
159
159. What fuze can be added to 155mm Artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds to increase precision?
PGK
160
160. How many sub munitions are in the M449 family of APICMs?
60
161
161. How many sub munitions are in the M4831A1 DPICM?
88
162
162. How many sub munitions are in the M864 DPICM?
72
163
163. Which of the following options is NOT a use of illumination?
c. Mark friendly location for CAS attacks.
164
164. What is the initial height of burst in meters for the M485A2 illumination round?
600
165
165. What is the rate of descent for M485A2 illumination rounds?
b. 5 meters per second
166
166. What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?
750
167
167. What is the initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds?
500
168
168. Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?
b. Two Gun Illumination
169
169. Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
b. Two Gun Illumination Lateral Spread
170
170. Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no shadows or dark spots?.`
d. Four Gun Illumination Pattern
171
171. What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?
200
172
172. When adjusting illumination rounds, what are HOB corrections sent in multiples of?
b. 50 meters
173
173. During an illumination mission, if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
Down 100
174
174. During an illumination mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination rounds and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second. What is your HOB correction?
Up 50
175
175. True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.
False
176
176. Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities?
Screening Smoke
177
177. Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision?
Obscuring Smoke
178
178. Which range of wind speed is best for the production of smoke screens?
a. 4 to 14 knots
179
179. How wide, in meters, would you use a quick smoke mission to obscure areas?
150 to 600
180
181. During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke (HC) you use HE in adjustment until which bracket is split?
200
180
180. True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
True
181
182. What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?
50m
182
183. What is the minimum range correction for smoke?
100m
183
184. Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within _____ to _____ meters (danger close) of friendly positions.
200 to 400m
184
185. True / False: Once a target number is assigned, the observer should begin each correction with the observer identification, followed by the target number, and ending with the desired correction.
True
185
186. How far away from the target should an auxiliary adjusting point be?
500m
186
187. Linear and rectangular targets require orientation in terms of direction. The observer must send target description, length, width, and what else in the third transmission of the call for fire?
Attitude
187
188. Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?
100mil
188
189. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire mission report?
Pepper
189
190. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a new target report?
Honey
190
191. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an unfired target report?
Pickle
191
192. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an ammunition remaining report?
Candy
192
193. Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used that summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
GURF
193
194. What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission of the naval surface fire support (NSFS) call for fire?
Target Number
194
195. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?
22500
195
196. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
3500
196
197. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
5800
197
198. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the M929 WP round?
7120
198
199. What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M982 Excalibur projectile?
37500
199
200. What are the 12 steps of the CAS execution template?
a. Routing and Safety of Flight
b. CAS Aircraft Check In
c. Situation Update
d. Game Plan
e. CAS Brief
f. Remarks and Restrictions
g. Readbacks
h. Correlation
i. Attack
j. Assess Effects
k. Battle Damage Assessment
l. Routing and Safety of Flight
200
201. What does each letter of the situation update stand for when using TEFACHR?
a. T-Threat
b. E-Enemy Situation
c. F-Friendly Update
d. A-Artillery
e. C-Clearance Authority
f. H-Hazards
g. R-Remarks and Restrictions
201
202. The BDA report for a CAS engagement should include size, activity, location, time, and remarks (SALTR). If conditions preclude briefing full BDA, at a minimum what do you pass?
d. Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown
202
203. What can JTACs and FAC(A)s use to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations?
JFOs
203
204. What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?
Location of Friendlies
204
205. True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and the target prior to conducting an engagement.
False
205
206. True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship use the same call for fire format.
True
206
207. How would an observer maintain positive control of the SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during an engagement?
d. State “At My Command”
207
208. True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.
True
208
209. If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
c. Ground Commander’s Initials
209
210. Do Army Attack Aviation or AC-130 engagements require terminal attack control?
No
210
211. When executing CAS without a JTAC or FAC(A) qualified individual, what must you advise the aircrew?
a. ”I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”
211
212. Select all that apply: What methods can be used to integrate and deconflict aircraft and surface fires?
a. Lateral Separation
b. Altitude
c. Time
212
213. When is a gun-target line considered hot?
c. Once the firing unit is actively firing
213
214. Which of these fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
AC-130J
214
215. Which of these fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
F-16
215
216. True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
True
216
217. What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnances?
MQ-9
217
218. What brevity term means to discontinue stated activity?
Cease
218
219. What brevity term would you use to begin using briefed communication procedures to counter communications jamming?
Chattermark
219
220. What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
Cherry
220
221. What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ has enemy activity below the prebriefed risk tolerance?
Ice
221
222. What brevity term means sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
Visual
222
223. What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?
Contact
223
224. What brevity term means sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
Tally
224
225. What brevity term means acquisition of laser designation, or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable?
Spot
225
226. What brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative?
Deadeye
226
227. What brevity term means mark or marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer?
Sparkle
227
228. What brevity term means oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
Snake
228
229. What brevity term means an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
Captured
229
230. What brevity term means FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
Rifle
230
231. What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?
Winchester
231
232. _____ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time.
Collateral Damage
232
233. True / False: For air-to-surface weapons JTACs, aircrew, and commanders will refer to the standing posture column of the REDs to determine when DANGER CLOSE procedures apply, regardless of friendly force posture.
True
233
234. A _____ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.
c. High-Payoff Target
234
235. The role of the Field Artillery is to _____ the enemy by cannon, rocket, and missile fire and to integrate and synchronize all fire support assets into operations.
a. Suppress, Neutralize, or Destroy
235
236. What are the two Field Artillery core competencies provided to Army operations?
c. Coordinate Fire Support and to Deliver Indirect Fire
236
237. The _____ is the senior field artillery commander for the theater, corps, division, brigade combat team who is the maneuver commander’s primary advisor to plan, coordinate, and integrate field artillery and fire support in the execution of assigned tasks.
d. Fire Support Coordinator
237
238. What are the four Fire Support functions?
b. Support Forces in Contact, Support the Concept of Operations, Synchronize and Converge FS Across All Domains, and Sustain and Protect the FS System
238
239. Who is the fire support representative for the maneuver platoon?
FO
239
240. What is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so that their fire will be coordinated?
Fire Plan
240
241. The _____ is a specialized, regionally focused Army element that serves as the senior Army operational commander’s liaison with the air component. A _____ is co-located with the joint or combined AOC
b. Battlefield Coordination Detachment
241
242. The _____ is an air liaison unit co-located with ground maneuver units. _____s are under the operational control of the ASOC and have two primary missions: to advise ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of air operations (the responsibility of the air liaison officer [ALO]) and provide terminal attack control of CAS aircraft (the responsibility of the JTACs).
TACP
242
243. What is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit effective employment of capabilities that create the required effects?
a. Target Acquisition
243
244. What are actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission?
Military Deception
244
245. Army _____ operations are designed to support operational and tactical plans by protecting Army aviation assets near the forward line of own troops (FLOT) or during cross-FLOT operations. _____ also includes the protection of Air Force aircraft (such as CAS aircraft) supporting the ground commander’s operation.
c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense
245
246. _____ is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems including their command and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they engage friendly forces.
c. Proactive Counterfire
246
247. _____ provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize, destroy, and suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired.
b. Reactive Counterfire
247
248. What task/effect is to render a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
a. Defeat
248
249. What task/effect is when a force under pressure trades space for time by slowing down the enemy’s momentum and inflicting maximum damage on enemy forces without becoming decisively engaged?
delay
249
250. What task/effect is a tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?
Destroy
250
251. What task/effect is a tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires, terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal fashion?
Disrupt
251
252. What task/effect is the act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention?
Diversion
252
253. What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable of interfering with a particular operation?
Neutralize
253
254. _____ is a brief, intense bombardment on selected targets or a prolonged effort over time covering a large number of targets
Preparation Fire
254
255. What task/effect is a tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission?
Suppress
255
256. Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by _____ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.
Massing Fires
256
257. _____ is the act of designing a force, support staff, or sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or mission.
b. Task-Organizing
257
258. What command relationship means to be assigned to and forming an essential part of a military organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy?
Organic
258
259. What command relationship means to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the unit or personnel?
Assign
259
260. What command relationship is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission?
Operational control
260
261. What command relationship is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned?
Tactical Control
261
262. Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for assistance?
Direct Support
262
263. Which support relationship is a relationship requiring a force to support another supporting unit?
Reinforcing
263
264. Which support relationship is support which is given to the supported force as a whole and not to any particular subdivision thereof?
General Support
264
265. Which support relationship is a relationship assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole and to reinforce another similar-type unit?
b. General Support-Reinforcing
265
266. A _____ is a munition that corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance and control up to the aimpoint or submunitions dispense with terminal accuracy less than the lethal radius of effects.
c. Precision Munition
266
267. The goal of any indirect firing unit is to achieve accurate _____ on a target
c. First-Round Fire for Effect
267
268. What is NOT a method for responsive fires?
c. Streamlining the Call for Fire by Shortening the Number of Transmissions
268
269. A _____ is an operation to defeat an enemy attack, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for offensive or stability operations.
a. Defensive Operation
269
270. What is a type of defensive operation that concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?
Area Defense
270
271. What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
Mobile Defense
271
272. What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
Retrograde
272
273. What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
Movement to contact
273
274. What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
Attack
274
275. What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?
Exploitation
275
276. What is a type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?
Pursuit
276
277. What type of operation orients on the force or facility being protected?
b. Security Operations
277
278. What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force’s combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?
d. Passage of Lines
278
279. What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
Breach
279
280. A _____ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment.
b. Measure of Performance
280
281. A _____ is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.
Measure of effectiveness
281
282. Permissive fire support coordination measures _____ the attack of targets. Fires must be cleared with both terrain owners and other airspace users.
Facilitate
282
283. A _____ is a line beyond which conventional surface-to-surface direct fire and indirect fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination but does not eliminate the responsibility to coordinate the airspace required to conduct the mission.
b. Coordinated Fire Line
283
284. A _____ is a fire support coordination measure established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation, beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement, and short of the line, all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement.
c. Fire Support Coordination Line
284
285. A _____ is a specific region into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ.
Free Fire Area
285
286. A _____ is a three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires. A _____ facilitates the expeditious air-to-surface lethal attack of targets.
Kill Box
286
287. True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.
True
287
288. A _____ is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.
No fire area
288
289. A _____ is a location in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ
a. Restrictive Fire Line
289
290. A _____ is a specific boundary established between converging, friendly surface forces that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing
a. Restrictive Fire Line
290
291. A _____ is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas (JP 3-0). _____(ies)(s) divide up areas of operation and define responsibility for clearance of fires. _____(ies)(s) are both permissive and restrictive in nature.
Boundary
291
292. A _____ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability
Position Area for Artillery
292
293. Which radar zone is an area of coverage by weapons locating radar which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission?
a. Critical Friendly Zone
293
294. Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area from which the commander wants to attack hostile firing systems?
d. Call for Fire Zone
294
295. Which radar zone is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the commander monitors closely to detect and report any weapon ahead of all acquisitions other than those from critical friendly zones or call for fire zones?
c. Artillery Target Intelligence Zone
295
296. Which radar zone is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions and that is normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from being acquired by friendly radars?
Censor Zone
296
297. Who is responsible for all aspects of joint fires planning, prioritization, coordination, execution, and assessment?
b. Joint Force Commander
297
298. What is a list of objects or entities characterized as protected from the effects of military operations under international law and/or rules of engagement (ROE)?
a. No-Strike List
298
299. What is a list of valid military targets that could be on the joint integrated prioritized target list (JIPTL) that have restrictions placed upon their engagement by the JFC or directed by higher authorities?
b. Restricted Target List
299
300. What is the senior Marine air-ground task force (MAGTF) fire support organization and assists the MAGTF commander in planning, coordination, execution, and assessment of MAGTF fires and effects?
d. Fires and Effects Coordination Center (FECC)
300
301. The joint targeting cycle consists of how many phases?
6
301
302. What provides the process to prioritize targets, determine the appropriate fires and which components will mission-plan and synchronize the execution of those fires, and determine whether the resulting effects are sufficient to support the Joint Force Commander’s objectives?
Targeting
302
303. What facilitates efficient use of airspace to accomplish air operations and fires and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces?
ACMs
303
304. What is characterizing detected objects in the operational environment to support engagement decisions?
Combat identifications
304
305. What is an identification derived from observation and analysis of target characteristics, including visual recognition; electronic warfare support (ES) systems; non-cooperative target recognition techniques; identification, friend or foe systems; other physics-based identification techniques; or human identity-based biometric data collection devices?
Positive Identification
305
306. What is the process of fixing, observing, and reporting the location and movement of friendly forces?
c. Friendly Force Tracking
306
307. What branch is a Battlefield Coordination Line specific to?
marine Corps
307
308. What measures do land, maritime, and amphibious commanders use to define lines of responsibility in support of movement and maneuver of friendly forces?
b. MCMs
308
309. What is a maneuver control measure used by land forces for control and coordination of military operations?
Phase Line
309
310. What maneuver control measure is an appropriate maneuver area assigned by the maritime commander to fire support ships, from which they deliver surface joint fire support to an operation ashore?
b. Fire Support Area
310
311. What is an exact location at sea from which a fire support ship delivers fires?
d. Fire Support Station
311
312. What is CAS augmented by machine-to-machine exchange of situational awareness (SA) and targeting messages that can include CAS briefs; friendly, threat, and target locations; battle damage assessment (BDA);clearance of fires; and command and control (C2)?
a. DACAS
312
313. Which entity within the Theater Air Control System (TACS) allocates resources and tasks forces through the air tasking order (ATO)?
c. Air Operations Center (AOC)
313
314. Which entity within the Theater Air Control System (TACS) processes include handling immediate air support requests, coordinating the execution of scheduled and on-call CAS sorties, and coordinating manned/unmanned aircraft transiting through the assigned airspace?
d. Air Support Operations Center (ASOC)
314
315. Which entity within the Army Air-Ground System (AAGS) is an Army liaison provided by the Army component or force commander to the COMAFFOR for duties with the air operations center (AOC) or to the joint force air component commander (JFACC) for duties in the joint air operations center (JAOC) based on the scenario?
b. Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD)
315
316. Which entity within the Marine Corps Command and Control System (MACCS) is the senior agency?
c. Marine Tactical Air Control Center (TACC)
316
317. Which entity within the Special Operations Air-Ground System (SOAGS) is typically located with the joint fires element at the joint special operations task force (JSOTF)?
a. Joint Air Coordination Element (JACE)
317
318. What is the link between the air support operations center (ASOC) and subordinate tactical air control parties (TACP) for aircraft coordination and sending immediate air support requests?
b. Joint Air Request Net (JARN
318
319. What net provides a means for the control of aircraft?
a. Tactical Air Direction (TAD) Net
319
320. What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne) (FAC(A)) during a Type 1 and 2 control when granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a specific target?
Cleared Hot
320
321. What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne) (FAC(A)) during all types of control to authorize the aircraft to proceed with the attack profile, but weapons release is not granted yet?
Continue
321
322. What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne) (FAC(A)) during Type 3 control granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft or flight to attack a target or targets within the parameters prescribed by the JTAC/FAC(A)?
Cleared to Engage
322
323. What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
a. Bomb on Target (BOT) and Bomb on Coordinate (BOC)
323
324. When will the joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne) (FAC(A)) state the method of attack?
b. In the game plan prior to the CAS brief.
324
325. Which method of attack requires that the joint terminal attack controller’s (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne)’s (FAC(A)) intended target or mark is tally/contact/captured by the aircrew?
b. Bomb on Target (BOT)
325
326. Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is remote?
c. Traveling
326
327. Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is possible?
b. Traveling Overwatch
327
328. Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is imminent?
a. Bounding Overwatch
328
329. Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is stationary or has little forward motion?
a. Hovering Fire
329
330. Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is level, forward flight?
b. Running Fire
330
331. Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in descending forward flight?
c. Diving Fire
331
332. True / False: For successful JFO employment, it is imperative the JTAC and JFO participate in the planning process.
True
332
333. What additional line of the CAS 9-line is a mandatory readback when working with NATO forces?
Line 8
333
334. Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
ACAs
334
335. True / False: JTACs/FAC(A)s should respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with just “readback correct” or “good readback”.
False
335
336. Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is primarily responsible for scanning the objective (or assigned checkpoint) and back to the friendly force?
Neutral
336
337. Which aircraft sensor posture is when both the lead and wing aircraft concentrates on the objective?
Offensive
337
338. Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is responsible for sanitizing the route directly in front of the friendly force?
Defensive
