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June 2020 Big Mock Flashcards

(93 cards)

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1
Q

“____ ____” fundus is associated with CMV retinitis

A

Pizza pie

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2
Q

HIV is associated with ___ retinitis

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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3
Q

There are 4 ____ muscle surrounding the eye

A

rectus (superior, inferior, lateral, medial)

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4
Q

What is the LR _ , SO __ , AO __ eye nerve mnemonic?

A

LR6, SO4, AO3

Lateral Rectal CN6, Superior Oblique CN4, All Others CN3

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5
Q

Meningitis has ____ type rash.

A

Petechial

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6
Q

Henoch-Schölein Purpura has ____ type rash

A

Purpuric

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7
Q

The ____ flexure is a watershed area.

A

Splenic

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8
Q

_____ jaundice is seen > 24hr up to 7 days.

A

Physiological

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9
Q

Breast Milk Jaundice, Hypothyroidism, Galactosemia are all ______ jaundice.

A

Prolonged (> 2 weeks)

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10
Q

____ antibody test is sensitive in SLE.

A

ANA (Antinuclear Antibody)

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11
Q

_____ antibody test is specific in SLE.

A

Anti-dsDNA

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12
Q

Bronze diabetes, Hepatomegaly, Bronze Hyperpigmentation is a triad of _______.

A

Hereditary Haemochromatosis.

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13
Q

Hereditary Haemochromatosis consists of triad of _____, hepatomegaly, bronze hyperpigmentation.

A

Bronze diabetes. (Iron deposits)

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14
Q

Hereditary Haemochromatosis consists of triad of bronze diabetes, ______, bronze hyperpigmentation.

A

Hepatomegaly

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15
Q

Hereditary Haemochromatosis consists of triad of bronze diabetes, hepatomegaly, ___________.

A

Bronze hyperpigmentation

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16
Q

________ antibiotic is used in first trimester of pregnancy to treat UTI.

A

Nitrofurantoin

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17
Q

________ antibiotic is used in third trimester of pregnancy to treat UTI.

A

Trimethoprim

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18
Q

Initial test for Guillain-Barre syndrome is ________

A

Nerve conduction studies

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19
Q

Neuropathic pain in Gullian-Barre syndrome is treated with _______

A

Gabapentin

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20
Q

Serial Troponin is used to confirm _____.

A

MI

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21
Q

_____ peaks at 12 hours post-MI

A

Troponin T

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22
Q

Mechanism of action of Cabergoline is Dopamine _____

A

Agonist

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23
Q

Heinz bodies and bite cells are found on a blood smear in ________

A

G6PD (Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency)

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24
Q

Emergency management for Croup in a child is ________ nebulised and Oxygen

A

Adrenaline

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25
Non-emergency management for Croup in a child is ____ dexamethasone
Oral
26
X-ray findings of croup is _______ sign.
Steeple
27
_______ virus causes Croup.
Parainfluenza
28
X-ray findings of Epiglottis is ______ sign.
Thumb
29
Red flag should be raised for walking or standing unsupported is at ____ months.
18 months
30
Red flag should be raised for meaningful speech is at ____ months.
18 months.
31
_______ are good for liver capsular pain.
NSAIDs (eg. Ibuprofen)
32
_______ is the most appropriate investigation for Acute Pyeonephritis.
Urine Culture
33
Unable to pass flatus (gas) + _____ bowel sounds are associated with Paralytic ileus.
absent bowel sounds.
34
Unable to pass flatus (gas) + _____ bowel sounds are associated with intestinal obstruction.
hyperactive bowel sounds.
35
Heart Failure medications include ____ and Beta-blockers.
ACE-inhibitors.
36
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP), rheumatoid factor, CRP, ESR are checked in _________.
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
37
Autosomal _______ inheritance pattern for Neurofibromatosis.
dominant.
38
Megaloblastic Anaemia (raised MCV) include Cobalamin (B12) and ________.
Folic Acid (B9).
39
Recently becoming vegan is susceptible to ______ anaemia.
B12 anaemia.
40
________, family history and peripheral blindness are signs of Retinitis Pigmentosa.
Night blindness.
41
Drug user bites should be advised to _______ prophylaxis. Recheck serology in 3 months.
post-exposure
42
_______ study is we study if patient with disease already have been EXPOSED or not.
Case-controlled study.
43
______ study is when we expose patients and check if they have disease.
Cohort study.
44
First generation anti-histamines are ______, include Chlorphenirame and _______.
drowsy, and diphenhydramine (benadryl).
45
Second generation anti-histamine are ______, include Cetirizine and Loratidine.
non-drowsy
46
In order to give patient comfort when he dies, 10mg subcut _______ and 10mg subcut ___________.
morphine and midazolam.
47
Which is the more potent steroid? Mometasone or Clobetasone?
Mometasone. | Clobetasone is moderate steroid
48
Shiny, red nodule which is slow growing, central depression is ______ ________ carcinoma.
Basal Cell Carcinoma.
49
If ph > 5.5 in NG tube aspirate, we do the definitive test __________ to check placement of NG tube.
Chest X-ray.
50
Long term management of TIA in patient with A fib include _________ and atorvastatin,
Warfarin.
51
Which is the more potent steroid? Hydrocortisone butyrate or hydrocortisone acetate?
hydrocortisone BUTyrate.
52
Cafe-au-lait, frecking armpit, tumours of peripheral nerves are the autosomal dominant condition _______________ type 1.
Neurofibromatosis Type 1.
53
Acoustic Neuroma, Tumours of schwann cells are the autosomal dominant condition Neurofibromatosis type ____.
Neurofibromatosis Type 2.
54
What type of epithelial metaplasia is associated with Barret's oesophagus?
Squamous to columnar.
55
Laxative to use with Impacted stool is ________ enema.
Phosphate enema
56
Laxative to use with _______ stool is stool softeners eg: docusate.
Hard stool.
57
In constipation with soft stools, 1st line laxative to use is a stimulant called __________
Senna.
58
2nd line laxative to use in constipation of soft stools is _________ or Macrogol.
Lactulose.
59
In pregnancy, Lactulose should be treated _____ line for constipation.
1st line.
60
PC-DL When to test _______:Cyclosporin - Digoxin:Lithium Prior to next dose - 6 hours:12 hours post dose
Phenytoin.
61
PC-DL When to test Phenytoin:Cyclosporin - Digoxin:Lithium Prior to next dose - _______:12 hours post dose
6 hours post dose.
62
PC-DL When to test Phenytoin:Cyclosporin - Digoxin:Lithium Prior to next dose - 6 hours:_______ post dose
12 hours post dose.
63
Hyperkalaemia, Hypotension, Hyponatremia are signs of __________ disease.
Addison's disease.
64
___________, Hypotension, Hyponatremia, are signs of Addison's disease.
Hyperkalaemia.
65
Hypertension and Hypokalaemia are signs of ________ syndrome.
Conn's syndrome.
66
Dark pigmentation on neck and severe acne are signs of _________ syndrome.
``` Cushing's syndrome. Dark pigmentation (acathosis nigrans) ```
67
Medications to treat menopausal symptoms in previous breast cancer patient include SNRI such as _________.
Venlafaxine | hormones contraindicated in breast cancer history!
68
Meningitis prophylaxis for close contacts include 1st line oral ___________. 2nd line Rifampicin.
1st line Ciprofloxacin.
69
Codeine, Furosemide, Spironolactone and Fluoxetine all causes side effect of _________ dysfunction.
Erectile dysfunction.
70
Oligospermia is the side effect of 5' ASA eg ___________.
Sulfasalazine.
71
Post-myocardial infarction pericarditis occurs within a few ________.
days. (1-3 days)
72
Post-MI ______ ________ aneurysm occurs 4-6 weeks.
Left Ventricular aneurysm.
73
Central (eg brain tumour) cause hiccups 1st line is _________ and 2nd line is haloperidol.
Chlorpromazine.
74
Phrenic nerve irritation causing hiccups we give __________.
Metoclopramide.
75
Prolonged bleeding time and aPTT, reduced Factor VIII levels is associated with ______ _______ disease.
von Willebrand disease.
76
Treatment of Lyme disease in normal patient is the antibiotic _______.
Doxycycline.
77
In pregnancy Lyme disease is treated with _________.
Amoxicillin.
78
Next line investigation if anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies is inconclusive for Coeliac disease is ______ __________ antibodies.
anti-endomysial antibodies.
79
Bilateral serous otitis media (glue ear) is _________ hearing loss.
Conductive hearing loss. (CHL).
80
L3,L4 ______ jerk.
knee jerk.
81
S1, S2 _______ jerk.
ankle jerk.
82
Relief for cluster headache is nasal _________.
nasal sumatriptan.
83
Prevent ongoing episodes of cluster headaches is _________.
Topiramate.
84
Low ADAMTS13 level, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, uraemia is related to _______ ________ purpura.
thrombotic thrombocytic purpura TTP.
85
S3, S4 is ________ sphincter.
anal sphincter.
86
Faecal calprotectin is ________ in Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and ________ in Irritatable Bowel syndrome.
positive in IBD and negative in IBS.
87
Most common area of occlusion in TIA is _______ artery.
carotid artery.
88
sensitivity = True pos / (true pos + ______)
true pos / (true pos + false neg)
89
No bleeding and INR > 8, we would give oral _________ __.
oral Vitamin K.
90
We give __________ acid in gum bleeds.
Tranexamic acid.
91
Enzyme inducers of cytochrome P450 ________ INR.
decreases INR. (low INR clots fast)
92
Enzyme inhibitors of cytochrome P450 ________ INR.
increases INR. (high INR clots slow-blood thin)
93
Glucagon is given in __________ toxicity.
Bisoprolol.

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