K 101 Final Exam Flashcards
(222 cards)
1
Q
In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by..
A
polar covalent bonds
2
Q
Stanley Miller’s 1953 experiments demonstrated conclusively that
A
organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early earth
3
Q
What do the four “elements of life” (C,O,H,N) have in common
A
they all have unpaired electrons in their valence shell
4
Q
Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because
A
the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds
5
Q
What modification of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures
A
adding hydrogens to the fatty acids
6
Q
A comparison of saturated and naturally occuring unsaturated fats reveals that the unsaturated fats are _____ at room temperature and have ______.
A
liquids, cis double bonds
7
Q
A molecule with four joined rings that is the precursor of vertebrate sex horomones (shown in an image) and is also found in the vertebrate phospholipid bilayer is:
A
cholesterol
8
Q
A molecule with C18H36O2 is probably a ___, where one with the formula C6H12O6 is probably a ____
A
fatty acid and monosaccharide
9
Q
A bond that forms by joining monomers (such as nucleotides or amino acids) into polymers (such as DNA or insulin) is a(n):
A
covalent bond
10
Q
Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they
A
are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions
11
Q
site of transcription of mRNA and tRNA for protein synthesis
A
Nucleus
12
Q
synthesis of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation
A
Mitochondria
13
Q
site of RNA for protein synthesis
A
Nucleolis
14
Q
synthesis of the insulin receptor, a transmembrane glycoprotein
A
Rough ER
15
Q
sorting of proteins targeted for extracellular secretion
A
Golgi Appartus
16
Q
intercelluar digestion
A
Lysosome
17
Q
synthesis of the steroid horomone testosterone
A
Smooth ER
18
Q
site of cell to cell adhesion and cell recognition
A
Extracellular Matrix
19
Q
Proteins that are manufactured for secretion (export from the cell):
A
are made in the rough ER and packaged in transport vesicles
20
Q
Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15M NaCl. Seawater contains the eq. of 0.45M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater?
A
water will leave the cells and they will shrivel and collapse
21
Q
All of the floowing are functions of intergral membrane proteins except…
A
synthesis of horomones
22
Q
Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism ?
A
it provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions
23
Q
Increasing substrate concentration in a reaction could overcome…
A
competitive inhibition
24
Q
The primary way that cells do work is called energy coupling, using ATP. Which statements below accurately defines energy coupling?
A
exergonic reactions drive endergonic reactions
ATP hydrolysis releases free energy that can be coupled to an endergonic reaction via the formation of a phosphorylated intermediate
25
The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is...
protein kinase
26
In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the areas of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve?
it increases the surface area for oxidative phosphorylation
27
Why is the Calvin Cycle dependent on the light reactions?
the light reactions produce the ATP energy and NADPH for sugar production in the Calvin Cycle
28
One function of alcohol and lactic acid fermentation is to....
oxidize NADH to NAD+
29
When skeletal muscle undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused by..
pyruvate kinase, phosphoglycerokinase
30
Kreb's Cycle- location
mitochondrial matrix
31
Calvin Cycle- location
chloroplast stroma
32
Light Reactions- location
thylakoid membrane
33
Proton gradient in aeroic respiration
mitochondrial inner membrane space
34
Proton gradient in light reactions
thylakoid lumen
35
Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approx. what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis?
100%
36
A C4 plant initially fixes CO2 into ___ where a C3 plant fixes CO2 into ___.
oxaloacetic acid using PEP carboxylase, PGA using rubisco
37
Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction ?
6 CO2 +6 H2O + Energy > C6H12O6 + 6O2
CO2 is reduced and H2O is oxidized
38
The oxygen consumed during aerobic cellular respiration is involved directly with which process ?
accepting electrons at the end of the electron chain
39
Which of the following is NOT true about Rubisco ?
it is a kinase
40
Up to 60% of all medicines used today influence what structures in cell membranes ?
G protein linked receptors
41
How does adenylyl cyclase help transmit signals within a cell ?
it converts the ATP to CAMP, which then amplifies the signal throughout the cell
42
Epinephrine
ligand
43
Integral Membrane Protein Receptor
GPCR
44
Intergral Membrane Protein Enzyme
adenylyl cyclase
45
Peripheral membrane protein that binds GTP
G- Protein
46
Second messenger generated from ATP
CAMP
47
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases are found in high levels on cancer cells. Herceptin has been found to bind an RTK known as HER-2 if which of the following is true ?
if the genome codes for the HER2 receptor
48
What does Adenylyl Cyclase do ?
converts ATP to CAMP after G-protein signaling
49
What does Phosphodiesterase do ?
converts CAMP to AMP, inhibitied by caffeine
50
What does Phospholipase C do ?
converts membrane lipids to IP3 and DAG
51
What do RTK'S do?
they phosphorylate relay molecules after activation and dimerization
52
If the DNA content of a diploid cell in G1 phase of the cell cycle is X. What would it be at metaphase of meiosis 1.
2x
53
If the cell whose nuclear material (almost into metaphase/anaphase) which of the following events would occur?
formation of telophase nuclei
54
Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells:
all of the above
55
Which of the following occur in meiosis, but not mitosis?
homologus chromosomes seperate
56
In a plant with a diploid number of 2n=46, how many pairs of homologus chromosomes are present in a cell that has just entered meiosis II?
0
57
Using a microscope to examine skin from a female, it shows two barr bodies. What is the the chromosomal condition?
47 XXX
58
At what stage of meosis do cells become haploid ?
telophase 1
59
After telophase 1 of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is:
haploid, and the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids
60
Homologus chromosomes synapse or pair during
prophase I
61
Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis?
alignment of tetrads at the eqautor in metaphase
62
In a population with two alleles for CF, C and c, the frequency for the recessive allele is 0.6. What percent of the pop. would be heterozygous carriers for CF ?
48%
63
Black fur is dominant to brown fur. Short tails are dominant to long tails. What fraction of the progeny BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
1/2
64
What are the probabilties for blood types in the offspring of indiviuals who both have type AB blood?
type a and b = 25%
type ab = 50%
65
BbEe x bbEe. With a litter of 16 how many will be black, chocolate or yellow?
9 Black, 3 Chocolate, 4 Yellow
66
Hemophilia is an X-linked, recessive trait. XFXf x XfY. Select all that apply:
there is a 50% chance that their sons and daughters will have it
there is a 50% chance that the daughters will be carriers
67
What are the autosomal dominant conditions ?
Marfan's, Polydactyly and Achondroplasia
68
What are the autosomal recessive conditions ?
Tay Sachs and Cystic Fibrosis
69
What are X-linked conditions ?
Hemophilia
70
What are multifactoral condtions?
Schizophrenia
71
If a tall plant (HH or Hh) is mated with a short plant (hh) as a Test Cross, which outcome would indicate that the tall plant was heterozygous?
the ratio of tall offspring to short offspring is 1:1
72
Which of the following terms decribes where a disease affects multiple different systems and parts of the body ?
pleiotrophy
73
A scientist removed the AAC nucleotides at the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid meth. Which of the following describes the most likely result?
the amino acid meth. will not be able to bind to the tRNA
74
mRNA transcription initiates at ___, the messenger RNA transcript in the figure is labeled ____, and the template strand is labeled ___.
E, D, C
75
The component labeled B in the figure is:
RNA Polymerase
76
What type of mutation does the deletion of a single codon cause ?
frameshift
77
When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are brought to the ER membrane by...
a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane
78
What is a missense mutation ?
when one base pair is deleted or changed and it changes the attached protein (sickle cell anemia)
79
What is a nonsense mutation ?
premature stop codon (PKU)
80
What is a silent mutation ?
when one base pair is changed, but it doesn't affect the protein that is made (SNP)
81
The 5' end of DNA has a free___, while the 3' has a free ____.
phosphate, hydroxyl
82
Why are certain genes only expressed in certain parts of the part? Such as crystalline in the lens of the eye.
activator proteins that bind to regulatory regions of the gene are only found in the lens
the specific gene has a promoter and enhancer that bind to only the lens specific specific activators
83
What is the attachment site for RNA Polymerase ?
the TATA box
84
Upstream promoter elements in eukaryotes are...
nulceotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation
85
Which is most likely to be tagged for ubiquitin?
a cyclin that usally acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2
86
Alternative RNA Splicing is:
can allow the production of protiens of different sizes from a single mRNA
87
In eukaryotes, histone methylation ____, while histone acetylation _____.
represses transcription, promotes transcription
88
In females one X chromosome is inactivated and turned into a Barr Body. What form is this DNA in ?
heterochromatin
89
MiRNA's and siRNA's both function to silence genes by,
binding to complementary RNA sequences to prevent translation
90
Which occurs in eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, gene expression ?
3' Poly A Tail and a 5' Cap
91
Muscle cells differ from nerve cells because
express different genes
92
The function of enhancers is to....
Transcriptional control of gene expression
93
Viruses that attack bacteria are called:
phages
94
In the bacteriophage, the functions of 2 and 3 are,
2- protection of the genetic material
3- attachment to the host cell
95
Retroviruses differ from other viruses because
they use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy RNA to DNA
96
All of the following are DNA viruses except,
the influenza virus that causes the flu
97
During the lytic cycle of phages what occurs ?
the host cell often dies, releasing many new copies of the virus
98
Filovirus
Ebola and other hemorrhagic fevers
99
Picornaviruses
Polio and Hepatitis A
100
Flavivirus
West Nile and Hepatitis C
101
Paramyxoviruses
Measles and Mumps
102
The Prion Hypothesis is,
transmissible spongiform encephalopathies result from the conversion of normal PRP-C to abnormally folded PRP-C
103
Human Prion Diseases are,
Kuru and vCJD
104
Which of the following characteristics are common to bacteria, viruses and prions?
proteins
105
Which of the recombinant drugs is incorrectly matched:
Neupogen (Amgen)
106
Ian Wilmut
cloning of dolly the sheep
107
Jennifer Dounda
CRISPR CAS-9
108
W. French Anderson
first human gene therapy
109
Shinya Yamanaka
induced pleuripotent stem cells
110
Stanley Cohen
isolation of bacterial plasmids
111
Kary Mullis
polymerase chain reaction
112
Herb Boyer
isolation of restriction enzymes, founder of genetech
113
James Thompson
deviation of human embryonic stem cells
114
Fred Sanger
Dideoxy DNA Sequencing
115
Craig Venter
whole genome shotgun sequencing
116
In the PCR technique, how many cycles would it take for the DNA to be amplified 1 billion times?
30
117
Gene therapy treatments with Kymriah and Yescarta are:
the first FDA approved drugs for personalizied immunotherapy to treat leukemias
involve the use of genetically engineered chimeric antigen receptor T-cell to recognize proteins
118
Herceptin
Her 2 + Breast Cancer
119
Rituxin
CD20+
120
Enbrel
T cell
121
Synagis
RSV
122
Avastin
Cancer
123
In the PGLO lab, how could you tell that the bla gene was being expressed?
it would only grow on amp plates
124
Why are the cells grown in LB broth for 20 minutes ?
there is a phenotypic lag
125
When Arabinose is present
a and b
126
PAM
a 3-6 nucleotide DNA sequence
127
CAS 9
an endonuclease that creates double strand breaks in the DNA
128
sgRNA
an RNA molecule engineered to be complementary to the target to be edited
129
Which of these statements are not true regarding the procedure for making cloned animals
the donor nucleus is from a haploid, quiescent cell
130
Idaho Gem
first cloned mule
131
Dolly
first cloned mammal
132
Prometia
first cloned animal that was born from its genetic twin
133
Zhong Zhong
first cloned macaqur for neuroscience research
134
CC
first cloned housecat
135
Joy
first cloned piglet
136
HES cells and HIPS may be useful in transplantation medicine because the cells are
all of the above
137
What concern has limited the potential of Pleuripotent Stem Cells as human therapeutics
the gene c-myc is an oncogene that causes a cancer phenotype in 25% of cell cultures
138
HES cells derived from blastocysts donated after IVF have been successfully used to
Creat new mesodermal, ectodermal and endodermal cells
139
The bacteria Bacillus thurengiensis,
naturally makes a crystal protein and is the active ingredient in Dipel q
140
In the crop, Golden Rice, this GMO:
all of the above
141
Crops that are round up ready:
are genetically modified
contain mutant form of the enzyme EPSP
142
A dideoxy nucleotide used in dna sequencing differs from deoxynucleotide as:
it has a -H at the 3C and -H at the 2C
143
Some bacteria avoid a host's immune system by means of:
cloaking the cell with a watery capsule
144
How can bacteria still perform the functions of various organelles ?
by using the infoldings of the plasma membrane
145
Circles of DNA in bacteria are called ____ often carry genes involved in ____.
plasmids, antibiotic resistance
146
How are Gram (+) bacteria able to survive harsh conditions? How do they protect their DNA ?
in an endospore
147
What produces large quantites of oxygen gas ?
cyanobacteria
148
What are the prokaryotes in the Great Salt Lake called ?
extreme halophiles
149
Structure C is ___, structure I is ____
C- the capsule
I- the flagella
150
What is the function of structure B (hair like things on the outside of the bacteria)
everything except to prevent phagocytosis by a white blood cell of the host
151
The ___ archaebacteria like extreme heat, the ____ archaebacteria are found in swamps lacking oxygen.
extreme thermophile, methanogenic
152
What organisms share the most DNA to mitochondria and chloroplasts ?
mitochondria- proteobacteria
chloroplasts- cyanobacteria
153
What makes RNA a good evolutionary chronometer ?
all of the above
154
What is the most significant difference between archea and eubacteria?
the small subunit (16 S) rRNA sequence
155
The first indication of the difference between archea and eubacteria
the absence of peptidoglycans
156
Why do bacterial cells not burst in a hypotonic environment ?
cell wall
157
Gram (+) bacteria stain ___, because a thick layer of ___ in the cell wall
purple, peptidoglycan
158
What group of prokaryotes contains Clostridium and are responsible for tetanus ?
Gram Positive Eubacteria
159
What group of bacteria causes E. coli ?
Proteobacteria
160
What prokaryotes are found in the Great Salt Lake, The Red Sea and the Dead Sea, but not necessarily in the ocean ?
extreme halophiles
161
Which of the following structures are shared by bacteria, archaea and eukaryotes?
plasma membrane
162
Cyanobacteria
closely related to sunflower chloroplasts
163
Halophiles
thrive in the Great Salt Lake and salt evaporation ponds
164
Gram (-) Proteobacteria
closely related to human mitochondria
165
Thermophiles
extreme heat
166
Clostridium tetani
tetanus
167
Clostridium botulinum
botulism
168
Helicobacter pylori
stomach ulcers
169
Bacillus anthraxis
anthrax
170
Tremonema pallidum
syphilis
171
Which image is responsible for anthrax ?
purple worms
172
The colorful organisms in this photo are:
halophillic, extremophiic archaea
173
What is Spirogyra a member of ?
superclade III: archaeplastida
174
What types of protists have formed massive deposits of chalk ?
cercozoans (forams)
175
Why are pseudopods used for by the clade amoebozoa ?
movement
176
What is true about Radiolarans ?
they capture prey through thread like pseudopods
177
What clade is entamoeba histolytica a part of ?
amoebozoa
178
Which protists' silica shells are used in filters, polishs and toothpaste ?
diatoms
179
What protists represent an intermeadite stage in eukaryotic evolution ?
giardia
180
What organism serves as the vector for malaria?
mosquitos
181
What superclade are trypanocomes in ?
Excavata
182
What organisms produce red tides ?
dinoflagellates
183
Mitochondria of eukaryotic cells most likely arose from
Rickettsia
184
What are the short hairlike things that cover the surface in paramecium and stentors ?
cilia
185
What bacteria are highly similar to chloroplasts ?
cyanobacteria
186
Euglena and Dinoflagellaes show secondary endosymbiosis in...
they have three lipid bilayers around their chloroplasts
187
What parasitic protist has 2 haploid nuclei and 2 pairs of flagella, etc.
giaridia
188
Evidence for the endosymbiotic theory includes...
all of the above
189
What evidence shows that chara is the direct ancestor of all land plants?
cell wall and homologus chromosomes
190
What is the dead frog disease ?
a chytridomycete fungus
191
Sac fungi are characterized by sexual rep. ____ and asexual rep.____
asci, and conidia
192
What is a precursor of LSD ?
an ergot
193
What is the genus of the inhibition RNA polymerase mushrooms ?
amanita
194
How do mycorrhizal fungi benefit plants,
increse surface area
195
Sexual spores producec by black mold
zygospores
196
Lichens reproduce primarily asexually by ___.
soredia
197
DNA and RRna analysis indicate that modern fungi descended from...
colonial, flagellated protists similar to choanoflagellates
198
Puffballs and shelf fungi are closely related,
the common edible mushroom
199
Which of the following choices are mismatched ?
Amanita mushrooms and corn smut
200
First flowering plants
130 million
201
First seed plants
360 million
202
First pteridphytes (ferns)
410 million
203
First land plants
440 million
204
First animals
700 million
205
First fungi
1.3 billion
206
First eukaryotes
1.5 billion
207
First photosynthetic bacteria
3.2 billion
208
First bacterial life
3.8 billion
209
When you see green moss, what generation are you looking at?
haploid gametophyte
210
The leafy fern that you might have as a houseplant is the...
diploid sporophyte
211
Fertilization in moss occurs when sperm swim ___ and down the neck of ___.
antheridium, sporangium
212
In mosses, what do the antheridia produce ?
sperm
213
Following double fertilization in angiosperms, the triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the...
endosperm
214
The eggs of gymnosperms have ovules that develop into ___ after fertilization
seeds
215
In angiosperms, double fertilization produces...
the 2n embryo and the 3n endosperm
216
Following fertilization, an unequal division of the cytoplasm occurs to split the embryo into two cells. What is true?
The upper, terminal cell becomes the embryo
The lower, basal cell becomes the suspensor
217
Seeds have advantages over spores. For example,
everything but seeds are single cells
218
Pollen is ___, and contains ___
haploid... sperm nuclei
219
What portion fo the flower recieves the pollen ?
stigma
220
The triploid nucleus of the embryo sac develops into the
endosperm
221
A pea pod is formed from ____. A pea inside the pod is formed from ___.
ovary, ovule
222
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dicots ?
veins in leaves usually parallel
