Kaplan Content Review - Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Blood should be infused within ____ hrs for each unit. How frequently during this time should vital signs be obtained?

What should you change for each unit of blood?

A

2hrs

Every our until complete and then hourly for 3 hrs

Entire IV line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should you do if a blood transfusion reaction is suspected? (6)

A

Stop blood

Restart NS

Save blood container and tubing and return to blood bank

Draw blood sample for plasma, hgb, culture, retyping

Collect urine sample + send to lab for hgb determination

Monitor urine symptoms for hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an allergic reaction/hypersensitivity to blood transfusion?

When does it occur?

A

Hypersensitivity to antibodies in donor’s blood

Immediate or w/n 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an acute intravascular hemolytic blood transfusion reaction?

When does it occur?

What are the s/s?

A

Incompatability with donated blood

Within mins to 24 hrs

N/V
Fever
Low back pain
Tachy
Decreased UOP
Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would a blood transfusion circulatory overload look like?

A

Dyspnea
Crackles
Tachypnea
Tachy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Isotonic fluids have the same concentration as _____

Hypertonic solution have a concentration greater than the _____

A

ECF

ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Isotonic fluids: 3 types

Main function:

A

NS
LR
D5W

Maintain / restore F + E balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypotonic solution
Hypertonic solution

A

0.45% NS

3% NS
Sodium Bicarb 5%
10-15% dextrose in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You are giving IV fluids to a pt and they have suspected circulatory overload. What would you observe? What are the 4 nursing care steps to address this?

A

Crackles
Dyspnea
Confusion
Seizures

  1. Reduce IV rate
  2. Asses VS
  3. Asses lab values
  4. Notify HCP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You suspect infiltration / extravasation. What s/s would you see? Nursing care steps? (4)

A

Edema
Pain
Coolness in area
Decrease in flow rate

  1. D/c IV
  2. Apply warm compress to site
  3. Sterile dressing
  4. Elevate arm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are s/s of phlebitis? What should you do? (3)

A

Redded, warm area at IV site
Tenderness
Swelling

  1. D/c IV
  2. Apply warm, moist compress
  3. Restart IV at new site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What would you see with an IV line hematoma? What would you do as the nurse? (3)

A

Eccymosis
Immediate swelling
leaking of blood at site

  1. D/c
  2. Apply pressure with sterile dressing
  3. Apply cool compress/ice intermittently for 24 hrs, followed by warm compresses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should you do if a clot forms in your IV line?

A

d/c it! DON’T milk, irregate, aspirate or up the flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should you do for a hemolytic blood transfusion reaction?

A
  1. Stop transfusion
  2. Maintain IV access by restarting NS
  3. Notify HCP
  4. Supportive care (oxygen, diphenhydramine, airway management)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is the tip of the catheter for a PICC?

What should you NOT do if your pt has a PICC line?

A

SVC or Brachiocephalic vein

No BP or blood draws from that extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difference between a tunneled central catheter and a non-tunnled percutaneous central cath? How frequently do you change dressings?

A

Tunnled = long term use (yrs)

Non-tunnled: short term IV therapy

2-3 x /week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Norephinephrine ADRs

A

HA
Palpittaions
Angina
HTN

TISSUE NECROSIS with extravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is norephinephrine used for?

What should you monitor for?

What should it be infused with (and what should it NOT be)?

A

Vasoconstriction to increase BP and CO

UOP + BP

Dextrose yes, NS no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dopamine, at a high dose, can be used for what?

What is an early sign of drug excess?

What should always be used with it?

A

Vasoconstriction, increased nyocardial oxygen consumption

HA

Infusion pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Isoproterenol is used for…(4)

Isoproterenol should not be given when?

A

Heart block

Ventricular arrythmyia

Bradycardia

Bronchodilation for asthma and brochospasms

Do not give at bedtime, it interrupts sleep patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Phenylephrine is used to treat

A

Hypotension (alpha 1 agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dobutamine Hydrochlorie is a _____ stimulator

How is it administered?

What should be monitored when giving this med?

A

Beta 1

Through central venous cath or large peripheral vein with infusion pump

Monitor EKG
I/O
Serum K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dobutamine Hydrochlorie is a _____ stimulator

How is it administered?

What should be monitored when giving this med?

A

Beta 1

Through central venous cath or large peripheral vein with infusion pump

Monitor EKG
I/O
Serum K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is milrinone used to treat?

A

Smooth muscle relaxant for severe HF

It’s a positive inotrope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nitroprusside is used for (3)

ADR

A

Dilation of cardiac veins and arteries

Decreases pre-load and afterload

Increases myocardial perfusion

HYPOTENSION + IICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does diphenhydramine do?

A

Blocks effects of histamine on bronchioles, GI tract, blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

-sone drugs (ex: Cortisone, Dexamethasone, Prednisone) are generally, what class of medications? What are they treating?

A

Adrenalcorticoid: Glucocorticoid meds

Use:
- prevention / supression of cell-mediated immune reactors
- addrenal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Glucocorticoid drugs (-sone):
- Overdosing these meds could lead to _____
- Abrupt withdrawal could lead to _____
- When should these meds be given? + administered with what?
- Stress/surgery means what for these meds?
- What should be consistently checked in adults and then especially in kids?

A

Cushings sundrome

Addisonian crisis (HA, N/V, papilledema)

Morning, before 9am + antacid

Increase need for steroid doses in times of stress

BP, I/O, weight
Growth in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Glucocorticoid drugs increases a pt susceptibility to ______.

What electrolyte imbalances can occur?

What about glucose levels?

A

Infection / slow or poor wound healing + osteoporosis (pathologic fractures) + psychosis

Hypokalemia / Hypocalcemia

Hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Fludrocortisone given for?

How should it be given?

Class of drug?

What should you watch for as ADRs?

Diet recommendation?

What are nursing considerations?

A

Adrenal insufficiency

PO with food

Sodium + water retention

Low-sodium, high protein, high-K+ diet

Monitor BP
Monitor serum electrolytes
Daily weight + report of sudden changes to provider
Used with cortisone or hydrocortisone for adrenal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Atropine uses

Pt ed

A

Bradycardia / Mydriasis for ophthalmic exam

Anticholinergic effects
Avoid heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Scopolamine is used for

How is it given?

ADRs

A

motion sickness / vertigo

transdermal patch

Anticholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Heparin: normal PTT times

How should heparin be administered and how NOT?

Antidote?

A

20-40 sec (1.5-2.5 x the control without signs of hemorrhage)

IV with pump
SQ
NEVER IM (danger of hematoma)

Protamine sulfate within 30min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Low molecular weight heparin is aka _____

How is it administered?

What is the advantage of this med?

A

Enoxaparin

SQ - NEVER IV or IM

Does not require lab test monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Warfarin, monitor what? / whats nml?

Antidote?

A

PT: 9.5-12
INR: 2-3

Vit K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dabigatran is used to treat

MOA

A

Stroke
DVT
PE prophylaxis without A Fib

Directly inhibits thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What meds inhibit the synthesis of clotting factors? (4)

A

Heparin

Enoxaparin

Wafarin

Fondaparinux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Heparin is used to treat….

Warfarin to treat…

A

Prophylaxis and treatment of thromboemolic disorders

pulmonary emboli
VTE
MI
Atrial dysrrhythmias
Post cardiac valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A client on anticoag meds should avoid (3)

They should do

A

IM injections

ASA-containing products

NSAIDs

Soft toothbrush, electric razor, report bleeding gums / petechiae / bruising / epistaxis etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_______ is the med of choice for seizures in young children

What should it be taken with?

What should be monitored

A

Valproic acid

Food

Monitor PLTs, bleeding time, liver fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

With gabapentin, what should you monitor for?

A

Weight + mood changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lamotrigine and Topiramate are drugs used for

A

Anticonvulsants for seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Phenelzine sulfate
Isocarboxacid
Tranylcypromine

are what types of drugs?

ADRs?

A

MAOIs

HTN crisis when taken with tyramine foods: aged cheese, salami, figs, bananas, raisins, beer, red wine)
OR
ephedrine meds (OTCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Citalopram are what type of drugs?

A

SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which type of anti-depressants have anticholinergic effects?

A

Tricyclics (Amitriptyline, Imipramine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

OPD: Lispro

A

O: 15-30 min

P: 0.5 - 1.5 hrs

D: 3-5 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

OPD: Aspart

When is the time of adverse reaction?

A

O: 15-30 min

P: 1-3 h

D: 3-5 h

mid-morning: trembling / weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

OPD: Regular Insulin

When is the time of adverse reaction?

A

O: 30-60 min

P: 1-5 h

D: 6 - 10 h

Mid-morning / mid-afternoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Isophane NPH OPD

When is the time of adverse reaction?

A

O: 1-2 h

P: 4-12 h

D: 16 h

Early evening (weakness, fatigue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

For rapid acting insulin (Aspart, Lispro, Gluisine), when should the client eat after injection?

A

5-15 min after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

For regular insulin, when should it be given before meals?

A

20-30min prior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of insulin can be given after meals?

A

NPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Examples of sulfonylurea drugs: (3)

When are they used?

A

Glimepride
Glipizide
Glyburide

Used if there is some pancreas beta-cell fx, to stimulate release of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Metformin is a ____ type of drug.

How does it work?

When is it NOT given?

What can it lead to adversely?

A

Biguanide

Decreased glucose production by liver (DOES NOT effect the pacreas)

NOT for renal impairment pts

Avoid alcohol / can lead to lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How to alpha glucosidase inhibitors work?

Names of drugs?

When are these meds taken?

A

Delay digestion of carbs

Acarbose
Miglitol

Taken immediately before a meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Within ____ min you can repeat a dose of glucagon for a hypoglycemic pt.

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Propranolol is a _____ type of drug.

What should you monitor and asses for?

A

Beta blocker

Apical HR
Cardiac rhythm
BP

Asses: SOB and wheezing
- fatigue / sleep disturbance
- Apical rate for 1 min prior to administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ADRs of BBs like Propranolol (4)

A

Bradycardia
Hypotension
Fatigue/sleep distrubances
BRONCHOSPASM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Amiodarone ADR (6)

A

Hypotension

Bradycardia./ AV block

Msk weakness

tremors

Photosensitivity / photophobia

Liver tox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Verapamil and Diltiazem are _____ types of drugs.

What should you watch for as a nurse?

A

CCBs

Apical HR + BP

Orthostatic precautions

Instruct clients to report s/s of HF to PCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ondansetron is a ______ type of med.

ADRs?

A

antiemetic

HA
Sedation
Diarrhea / Constipation
Transient elevation in liver enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Metoclopramide is a ____ type of med.

What should the pt avoid when taking this med?
When should they take it?

ADRS

A

Antemetic

Avoid actvities that require mental alertness

Take before meals
Take 30 min prior to chemo
Use with tube feeding to decrease risk of aspiration

Anxiety / drowsy
EPS
Dystonic reactions

62
Q

Promethazine is a _____ type of drug. What is it used to treat? What should be avoided when taking it?

A

Anti emetic

Motion sickness

Avoid:
- alterness activitive
- alcohol
- other CNS depressants

63
Q

Amphotericin ADRs

A

GI upset

Hypokalemia (induced msk pain)

CNS disturbances in sight and sound

Seizures

Skin irriation / thrombosis if IV infiltrates

64
Q

When a pt is taking amphoterecin, what as the nurse should you be monitoring for? (3)

A

Hypokalemia

Injection sight (irritation / thrombosis)

Report fever / nervous system dysfunction

65
Q

Antifungal meds (4)

A

Amphoterecin

Nystatin

Fluconazole

Ketoconazole

66
Q

What nursing considerations for anti-fungals? (3)

A

Administer with food to decrease GI upset

Small, freq meals

Check hepatic fx

67
Q

3 anti-gout meds

A

Colchicine

Probenecid

Allopurinol

68
Q

What are the ADRs for anti-gout meds (4)

A

Aplastic anemia

Agranulocytosis

Renal calculi

GI irritation (GIVE WITH MEALS)

69
Q

Antihistamine drug names (4)

A

Chlorpheniramine

Diphenhydramine

Promethazine

Loratidine / Certirizine / Fexofenadine

70
Q

ADRs of antihistamines (generally) (6)

A

Depression

Nightmares

Sedation

Drymouth

GI upset

Bronchospasm

71
Q

How should antihistamines be taken?

What other nursing advice?

A

Take with food

Good oral care (dry mouth)

Caution with alert tasks

Avoid alocohol

72
Q

Aminoglucoside meds (3 names) - action?

A

Gentamicin
Tobramycin
Amikacin

Bacteriocidal (gram neg)

73
Q

ADRs and nursing considerations for Aminoglycosides

A

Ototoxicity
Nephortoxicity
Anorexia / N/V / Diarrhea

Check 8th cranial nerve (hearing)
Check BUN / Cr
Encourage fluids + sm freq meals

74
Q

________ drug has a cross allergy with PCN.
What should you monitor for in a pt taking this med?

A

Cephalosphorins (Cefoxitin, ceftriaxon, cefepime,fosamil)

Renal / hepatic function

Thrombophlebitis

75
Q

2 fluoroquinolones drug names

What do they do?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Levofloxacin

Bacteriocidal (gram neg)

76
Q

Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin: prior to giving these to a pt you should do _______.

What should you encourage of pts on these drugs?
When should they take them?

A

Culture + sensitivity

fluids

Take 1 hr before or 2hr after meals with a glass of water

77
Q

What are the ADRs of Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin

A

Elevated BUN / Cr
Elevated AST/ ALT / Alkaline phosphatase

Decreased WBC and hematocrit

Rash

Photosensitivity

Achilles tendon rupture

78
Q

Which type of drug can lead to achilles tendon rupture?

A

Fluoroquinoles (Cipro and Levo)

79
Q

What drug is used for resistant staph infections and enterocoloitis due to C/diff?

A

Vancomycin

80
Q

ADRs Vanco (3)

A

Nephrotoxicity

Ototoxicity

Thrombophlebitis

81
Q

How should Vanco be administered?

What ADRs to watch for?

A

IV

Extravization

Red man syndrome

Superinfections: sore throat, fever, fatigue

** Nephrotoxicity
*** Ototoxicity

82
Q

Why is Clindamycin used? (2)

What should be monitored?

A

Staph / Strep

Persistant vomiting
Diarrhea
Abd cramping
Superinfections

83
Q

Erythromycin and Azithromycin should be taken via what route and with or without meals?

What should be monitored?

A

Oral

1 hr before or 2-3 hrs after meals with full glass of water

Liver function

84
Q

PCN drugs are effective at fighting…

A

gram positive orgs

syphilis

Lyme

85
Q

Sulfa drugs (Sulfasalazine) are used to treat (8)

A

Ulcerative colitis

Chrons

Ottitis media

Conjunctivitis

Meningitis

Toxoplasmosis

UTIs

RA

86
Q

When taking sulfa drugs what should you advise pts to do?

A

Take with water

Protect from exposure to sun light

Good mouth care

87
Q

Tetracycline drug names (3)

A

Doxycycline

Minocycline

Tetracycline

88
Q

Tetracycline drugs should not be taken with…

Monitor for _________

Advise them to use ______

Not safe in ______

A

Antacids, milk, iron preparations

(Also take 1h prior to meals or 2-3 hrs after meals)

Renal fx

Extra contraceptive methods (danger to fetal teeth dev)

Pregnancy

89
Q

ARB drug names

A
  • sartans

Losartan

Valsartan

90
Q

ACE-i drug names

Indications? (2)

A

-pril

Lisinopril

Captopril

Enalapril

HTN
CHF

91
Q

How should ACE-i be taken?

A

1 hr prior to meals or 2-3 hrs after meals

92
Q

Which type of med would give a pt a persistant dry non-productive cough?

A

ACE-i (ex: Lisinopril)

93
Q

Alpha-1 adrenergic blocker drug names.

What do they treat?

When should they be administered?

A
  • zosin
    Doxazosin
    Terazosin

HTN
BPH
Raynaud’s

Administer at bedtime to avoid fainting

94
Q

BBs are used to treat (7)

A

HTN (with diuretics)

Angina

SVT

Recurrant MI

Propanolol: migranes and stage fright

HF

95
Q

Nursing considerations for BBs

A

DO NOT d/c abruptly, taper over 2 weeks

Take with meals

FOR DIABETICs: masks s/s of hypoglycemia so monitor BG levels closely

96
Q

Names of CCBs (4)

A

Nifedipine

Verapamil

Diltiazem

Amlodipine

97
Q

What type of anti-HTN is contraindicated in pts with heart blocks?

A

CCBs

98
Q

Pt is on a CCB. What should they avoid? What should you monitor for?

A

Grapefruit juice

s/s of HF and if BP is less than 90/60

99
Q

Clonidine and Methyldopa are used to treat what?

What should you monitor for?

A

HTN

Fluid retention and ortho hypo

** also don’t d/c abruptly

100
Q

Where should a clonidine patch be applied?

A

Upper outer arm / anterior chest (nonhairy areas)

101
Q

When should methyldopa be taken?

A

Bedtime to minimize daytime drowsiness

102
Q

If the apical pulse of a pt on atenalol is less than ____ hold the drug and call the HCP. What will this drug mask the s/s of ?

A

60

Hypoglycemia

103
Q

What are bile acid sequestriant drug names?

What are they treating and how?

When should they be administered?

What should a pt report immediately when on these meds?

A

Cholestyramine
Colestipol
HMG-COA reductase inhibitors
Folic acid dervitiates
Nicotinic acid

Decreases cholesterole by increasing the loss of bile acid through feces

Admiister 1 h before or 4-6 hrs after other meds

Report constipation

104
Q

What do statin drugs do?

When should they be taken?

What should be reported immediately to a care provider?

What should pts avoid on this med?

A

Decrease LDL cholesterol levels

Take with food and at night

Muscle pain w/ fever and malaise

No grapefruit juice

105
Q

Niacin drug does what?

What ADRs could it cause?

A

Decreases total cholesterol

Flushing for first 2 weeks
HyperG
Liver damage

106
Q

Methotrexate can be used to treat (4)

A

ALL
RA
Colon, breast, stomach, pancreas cancers
SCA

107
Q

When giving bone marrow suppression meds what should you monitor for?

What should be avoided?

What should you do at venipuncture sites?

A

Bleeding gums, bruising, dark stools, etc

IM injections and rectal temps

Pressure

108
Q

Anti-Parkinson drug names (5)

A

Trihexyphenidyl

Levodopa

Bromocriptine

Carbidopa - Levodopa

Amantadine

109
Q

What are the nursing considerations for parkinson’s meds? (monitor for ____, don’t take _____, avoid ______)

A

Monitor: urinary retention

Don’t take a lot of B6

Avoid CNS depressants

110
Q

Ticlopidine and Clopidogrel both do what?

A

Prevent platelet aggregation

111
Q

Abciximab is what type of med?

A

Anti-PLT

112
Q

ASA is a ______ type of drug.

You should watch for …..

Give with …..

Contraindications (3)

A

anti- PLT (also anti-inflammatory, analgesic and antipyretic) - salicylate

Bleeding gums, black stools, bruising

Milk, water, food

GI disorders
Severe anemia
Vit K deficiency

113
Q

When are anti-PLT meds given?

A

Venous thrombosis
PE
CVA
Post - cardiac surgery
ACS

114
Q

Chlorpromazine is what type of drug? What should pts be aware of with this med?

A

Typical antipsychotic

Photosensitivity
Hypotension
Sedation

115
Q

Which has less EPS: Haldol or Risperidone?

A

Risperidone

116
Q

What types of antipsychotic meds can lead to QT prolongation?

A

Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Ziprasidone

117
Q

Define:
Akathisia
Dyskinesia
Dystonia
Tardive dyskinesia

A

Akathisia: motor restlessness (foot tapping, pacing)

Dyskinesia: abnormal voluntary movements

Dystonia: abnormal muscle tone–> spasm in face and neck and tongue

Tardive dyskinesia: involuntary movement of mouth, tongue, extremities, chewing motions, sucking, tongue thrust

118
Q

Early signs of EPS to watch for in pts on anti-psychotic meds

A

tight jaw

Stiff neck

Swollen tongue

119
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome and what is it associated with? What should you do if your pt develops this?

A

Rigidity
Fever
autonomic dysfunction
seizures/coma

ADR of antipsychotic meds

Immediately withdraw anti-psychotics
Control hypertheermia
Dantroline
Bromocriptine

120
Q

ASA is contraindicated in what pt population and why?

A

<21 yrs old d/t risk of Reyes syndrome

Also contraindicated in pts with bleeding disorders d/t anticlotting activity

121
Q

Hyperthyroidism med names

A

Methimazole

Potassium or radioactive iodine

122
Q

Hypothyroidism meds

A

Levothyroxine

Liothyronine

123
Q

ADR Isoniazid

A

Hepatitis

Peripheral neuritis

Rash

Fever

124
Q

Ethambutol ADR

A

Optic neuritis

125
Q

Rifampin ADR

A

Hepatitis
Fever

126
Q

Streptomycin ADR (also what does it treat?)

A

Nephrotoxicity
VIII nerve damage (hearing)

TB

127
Q

Overall, with TB meds, what is it important to watch for?

A

Liver damage / Hepatitis

128
Q

When a TB pt is on meds, how long do they need to wear a mask when in crowds?

A

Until 3 sputum cultures are negative (which means they are no longer infective)

129
Q

Anti-tussive and Expectorant drug names

A

Dextromethorphan

Guifenesin

130
Q

Zidovudine and Didanosine are used to treat ______

A

HIV

131
Q

-clovir meds treat ….

A

HSV

132
Q

What meds treat Influenza A or B

A

Amantadine

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

133
Q

What should be monitored in children taking ADHD meds like: Methylphenidate?

A

Growth rate

134
Q

3 bipolar drug names

A

Lithium

Carbamazepine

Divalproex

135
Q

s/s of lithium intoxication

A

vomiting

diarrhea

ataxia

msk weakness

136
Q

What is the initial blood target level for lithium?

Maintenance level?

A

1-1.5

0.8 - 1.2

137
Q

Do bipolar meds treat the depressive episodes?

What are the general ADRs of these meds?

A

No just manic

Tremors
Polyuria
Polydipsia

138
Q

What drugs help to treat postmenopausal osteoporosis?

A

Alendronate
Risendronate
Ibandronate

  • DRONATE
139
Q

Digoxin is used to treat _______

How does it work?

A

HF
Dysrrhythmias

Increases the force of myocardial contraction and slows the. HR by stimulating the vagus nerve and blocking the AV node

140
Q

What food should you advice pts on digoxin to take?

A

Potassium foods

141
Q

Sucralfate can help treat….

A

Duodenal ulcer

142
Q

Thiazide diuretic drug names

What should you encourage of pts on these meds?

What electrolyte should you monitor closely?

What should you do daily with this pt?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

Chlorothiazide

Eat potassium rich foods

K+

Daily weights

143
Q

Furosemide is a ____ type of drug.

Over ____ mins you should give this drug via IV

Encourage what type of foods?

A

Loop diuretic

1-2 min

Potassium rich

144
Q

Mannitol is a _____ type of drug

A

Osmotic diuretic

145
Q

Drug names to treat duodenal ulcers

A

Cimetidine

Ranitidine

Famotidine

-IDINE

146
Q

_____ drug prevents rejection of transplanted organs

A

Cyclosporin

147
Q

A SL dose of nitroglycerin can be repeated every ____ mins for a total of ____ doses.

A

5 min 3x

148
Q

Indomethacin
Naproxen
Celecoxib
Ketorolac

Are all what type of med?

A

NSAID

149
Q

Thrombolytic med names, what are they used for?

A

Reteplase

Alteplase

Tenectaplase

MI w/n first 6 hrs of symptoms, or thrombolic strokes or PE (alteplase)

150
Q

Meds to AVOID with grapefruit juice

A

Buspirone
Midazolam

Amiodarone

Carmazepine

CCBs

Sildenafil

Cyclosporine

SSRIs

Satins

Dextromethorphan

151
Q

Terazosin can be used to treat

When should it be given?

A

urinary urgency, hestitancy and noturia

Night time to decrease risk of ortho hypo

152
Q

If anaphylaxis occurs, what med do you want to give? How soon after the first dose can you do a repeat done?

A

Epinephrine

15-20 min after

153
Q

SJS s/s

A

Dark red papules that dont itch or hurt