Kaplan QBank Questions Flashcards
(384 cards)
The prospectus of the ABC Fund contains the phrase “will have at least one-quarter of common stock investments in the field of business machines.” The ABC Fund is:
A) a growth and income fund.
B) a diversified fund.
C) a specialized fund.
D) a balanced fund.
The correct answer was: a specialized fund.
A fund that, as part of its investment policy, makes a commitment to invest 25% or more of its assets into a particular economic or geographical sector is a specialized fund. A balanced fund invests in a balance of bonds and common and preferred stocks. A diversified fund does not invest more than 5% of the fund’s assets in any one issuer. A growth and income fund may invest in many industries, seeking both dividends and capital gains.
After a company splits its stock 2 for 1, an investor who owns 100 shares receives:
A) notice that the investor’s 100-share certificate now represents 200 shares.
B) notice to send in the current certificate to be replaced by a new certificate for 200 shares.
C) another certificate for 200 shares.
D) another certificate for 100 shares.
The correct answer was: another certificate for 100 shares.
After a 2 for 1 split, the transfer agent will send the investor another certificate for 100 shares. The investor is not required to return the existing stock certificate.
Which of the following is NOT true of the Interbank market?
A) It deals in currencies.
B) It is susceptible to central bank intervention.
C) It is unregulated.
D) It is based in London.
The correct answer was: It is based in London.
The interbank market deals primarily in currencies and is unregulated. It is an over-the-counter market whose participants are major currency dealers, such as banks. Central banks, such as the Federal Reserve, use the market to try to influence exchange rates.
If the Swiss franc is trading at .69, and a customer buys 1 Sep SF 70 put and writes 1 Sep SF 65 put, this position is a:
A) diagonal spread.
B) bull spread.
C) calendar spread.
D) bear spread.
The correct answer was: bear spread.
The 70 put is dominant because it will have a higher premium than the 65 put. Buying puts is bearish; this is a debit put spread.
A fundamental analyst would be interested in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) innovations within the automotive industry.
B) corporate annual reports.
C) daily trading volumes on the NYSE.
D) statistics of the U.S. Department of Commerce on disposable income.
The correct answer was: daily trading volumes on the NYSE.
Trading volume interests the technical analyst, who looks at fluctuations in the market, not at fundamental economic values.
The real value of property within the city limits is $100 million. The city uses a 50% assessment rate. A 10 mill tax rate will provide tax revenues of:
A) $1 million.
B) 50000.
C) 5000.
D) 500000.
The correct answer was: 500000.
1 mill = $.001. 10 mills = .01 (10 X .001). $100 million × 50% assessment rate = $50 million. $50,000,000 X .01 = $500,000.
All open orders must be confirmed to the order book:
A) every 6 months after the order has been entered.
B) April 1 and October 1.
C) the last business days of April and October.
D) once a year on the anniversary of the order.
The correct answer was: the last business days of April and October.
All open orders must be confirmed the last business day of April and the last business day of October.
Your customer has a Coverdell Education Savings Account for each of four preteen daughters. What is the maximum amount of pretax contributions that he can make to each ESA?
A) 500.
B) 8000.
C) 2000.
D) 0.
The correct answer was: 0.
Pretax contributions cannot be made to Coverdell ESAs. The customer is allowed to make a $2,000 after-tax contribution annually for each student until their 18th birthday.
Which of the following statements regarding U.S. government agency obligations are TRUE?
They are direct obligations of the U.S. government.
They generally have higher yields than direct U.S. obligations.
The Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) is a publicly traded corporation.
Securities issued by the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA) trade on the NYSE floor.
A) I and II.
B) I and III.
C) II and III.
D) II and IV.
The correct answer was: II and III.
U.S. government agency debt is an obligation of the issuing agency. This obligation causes agency debt to trade at slightly higher yields that reflect this greater risk. FNMA securities and GNMA pass-through certificates trade OTC. GNMA is the only agency whose securities are direct U.S. government obligations.
If two brothers open a joint account tenants in common, at year’s end, the member firm carrying the account will send Form 1099 to:
A) either of the brothers.
B) the brother with the largest percentage interest in the account.
C) the brother whose Social Security number is on the account.
D) both of the brothers.
The correct answer was: the brother whose Social Security number is on the account.
All accounts, joint or otherwise, have a primary Social Security number. The holder of this number receives the year-end statement (Form 1099).
Which of the following mutual fund portfolio allocations would probably be most suitable for a 40-year-old professional who states that he is an aggressive investor?
A) 50% corporate bonds, 50% municipal bonds.
B) 5% small-cap stocks, 5% international stocks, 90% large-cap stocks.
C) 50% small-cap stocks, 50% U.S. government securities.
D) 50% small-cap stocks, 25% international stocks and 25% large-cap stocks.
The correct answer was: 50% small-cap stocks, 25% international stocks and 25% large-cap stocks.
A portfolio of small-cap stocks as well as one with international stock is generally considered to be one with the higher risk levels associated with an aggressive investor. Comparatively, the remaining choices would be too conservative for an aggressive investor.
A registered representative explaining variable annuities to a customer would be CORRECT in stating that:
a variable annuity guarantees an earnings rate of return.
a variable annuity does not guarantee an earnings rate of return.
a variable annuity guarantees payments for life.
a variable annuity does not guarantee payments for life.
A) I and III.
B) II and III.
C) I and IV.
D) II and IV.
The correct answer was: II and III.
A variable annuity does not guarantee an earnings rate because earnings will depend on the performance of the separate account. However, it does guarantee payments for life (mortality).
A due diligence meeting occurs between:
A) the FINRA member firm and FINRA’s Corporate Finance Department to discuss the fairness of the underwriting spread on a pending public offering.
B) the issuing corporation and the underwriters to review and reexamine the full details of the pending underwriting and negotiate final terms to be included in the formal underwriting contract.
C) All of these.
D) the underwriter and the SEC before the issuance of a final prospectus to insert the public offering price and make any last minute changes at the SEC’s request.
The correct answer was: the issuing corporation and the underwriters to review and reexamine the full details of the pending underwriting and negotiate final terms to be included in the formal underwriting contract.
A due diligence meeting is held between the issuer and the underwriter before the effective date and is one of the final meetings held before the sale of the security so that each party may review all aspects of the issue.
A respected analyst reports that last week’s T-bill rate at 6% is lower than the rate for the preceding week and lower than the average for the past month. Which of the following is TRUE?
A) The general level of interest rates is increasing.
B) Prices are descending.
C) Investors are paying less for T-bills.
D) Investors are paying more for T-bills.
The correct answer was: Investors are paying more for T-bills.
When the rate is lower, the price has gone up; this means investors are paying more as interest rates are going down.
All of the following statements regarding a qualified pension plan are true EXCEPT
A) it must cover all of its eligible employees
B) growth in the account is tax-free
C) it requires advance approval from the IRS
D) it must comply with nondiscrimination rules
The correct answer was: growth in the account is tax-free
Growth in qualified pension plans, as well as other qualified plans, is tax deferred, not tax-free. All growth is taxable at the time of distribution.
Which economic theory states that a reduced tax rate will result in a healthy economy that will in turn generate more taxes?
A) The Demand Side Economic Theory.
B) The Supply Side Economic Theory.
C) The Monetarist Economic Theory.
D) The Keynesian Economic Theory.
The correct answer was: The Supply Side Economic Theory.
The Supply Side Economic Theory (Reaganomics) is that reduced tax rates will result in a healthier economy, which will generate more taxes to compensate for the reduced rates.
An investor has an established margin account with a short market value of $8,000 and a credit balance of $13,000, with Regulation T at 50%. A maintenance call would be triggered if the short market value increased above:
A) 8000.
B) 9000.
C) 13000.
D) 10000.
The correct answer was: 10000.
To find short market value at maintenance, divide the credit balance of $13,000 by 1.3 ($10,000).
Two customers in their twenties, married only a few years, should select which investment for their IRAs?
A) Growth-oriented mutual funds.
B) High-tech funds.
C) Oil and gas exploration limited partnerships.
D) High yield bond funds.
The correct answer was: Growth-oriented mutual funds.
A growth mutual fund may be appropriate for a young couple’s IRA account; all other selections incur high risk that is not appropriate for a retirement account.
A customer buys a new issue municipal bond at a discount. If held to maturity, the amount of the discount is:
A) accreted and is not taxed.
B) accreted and taxed as ordinary income.
C) taxed as a long-term capital gain.
D) taxed as a short-term capital gain.
The correct answer was: accreted and is not taxed.
Original issue discounts are accreted, which allows for a step-up in cost basis. Accretion on original issue discount municipal bonds is not taxed.
New issues of municipal bonds are exempt from each of the following EXCEPT:
A) Securities Exchange Act of 1934 antifraud provisions.
B) U.S.A. state registration requirements.
C) Securities Act of 1933 registration requirements.
D) Securities and Futures Authority (SFA) requirements.
The correct answer was: Securities Exchange Act of 1934 antifraud provisions.
Municipal securities are exempt from federal and state registration. However, no security is exempt from the antifraud provisions of federal securities law, including the 1934 Act. The Securities and Futures Authority is a UK regulator and has no application in the United States.
At a social gathering, an officer of a publicly traded company confides to his neighbor, a registered representative, that his company will announce a major acquisition in the coming week. Which of the following statements regarding the SEC’s insider trading rules is TRUE?
A) Neither the officer nor the registered representative is in violation.
B) The registered representative is in violation.
C) The officer is in violation.
D) Both the officer and the registered representative are in violation.
The correct answer was: Neither the officer nor the registered representative is in violation.
Simply giving someone material, nonpublic information (while imprudent) is not a violation. However, if the information is used to trade for profit or to avoid a loss, both the tipper and the tippee would have violated the law.
GC, Inc., is proposing an additional public offering of common stock. It conducts a rights offering to its current shareholders at $55 per share, plus 5 rights. If the market price of GCI is $70 after the ex-rights date passes, what is the value of 1 right?
A) 2.5.
B) 3.
C) 5.
D) 15.
The correct answer was: 3.
Since the stock is selling ex (after ex-rights), the formula is ($70 − $55) / 5. ($70 − $55 = $15) ($15 / 5 = $3).
Reggie owns a convertible bond that converts into 20 shares of common stock. The current market value of the bond was 118-½ at the close on Friday, April 1. A 30-day call is announced prior to the opening on Monday, April 4, at a price of $102. The stock is trading at $57.75. What should Reggie do?
A) Convert the bond into the stock.
B) Hold the bond to maturity.
C) Redeem the bond at the call price.
D) Sell the bond.
The correct answer was: Convert the bond into the stock.
Reggie will not be allowed to hold the bond to maturity because it is being called. The real question is whether he should sell the bond, allow it to be called, or convert it to the underlying stock. Now that the call has been announced, the market value of the bond will fall to meet the call price. This occurs as a result of declining demand. (Who wants to buy a bond that is about to be called at a lower price?) Thus, redeeming the bond at the call price and selling the bond would both yield the same results: $1,000 × 102% = $1,020. If he converts the bond, he will get the following results: 20 shares × $57.75 = $1,155. Therefore, it makes the best sense to convert the bond.
Which of the following customer accounts is NOT SIPC-insured?
A) TIC account with business partner.
B) TIC commodities account with son.
C) Customer margin account.
D) JTWROS account with spouse.
The correct answer was: TIC commodities account with son.
SIPC coverage only applies to accounts holding securities; commodities accounts are not covered.