KC-46 Pilot MQF (CAO 20230501) Flashcards
(149 cards)
1
Q
What is the maximum operating altitude of the KC-46A?
A. 50,000 feet PA
B. 45,100 feet PA
C. 40,100 feet PA
D. 41,100 feet PA
A
C
2
Q
What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?
A. 8,500 feet PA
B. 9,500 feet PA
C. 8,000 feet PA
D. 9,100 feet PA
A
B
3
Q
What is the maximum taxi weight?
A. 415,000 pounds
B. 414,000 pounds
C. 416,000 pounds
D. 416,100 pounds
A
C
4
Q
What is the maximum takeoff weight?
A. 415,000 pounds
B. 415,100 pounds
C. 416,000 pounds
D. 415,500 pounds
A
A
5
Q
What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
A. 275,000 pounds
B. 274,000 pounds
C. 273,000 pounds
D. 273,100 pounds
A
C
6
Q
What is the basic crew of a KC-46A?
A. 1x AC, 1x Pilot, and 1x Boom Operator
B. 1x Pilot and 1x Boom Operator
C. 1x AC, 1x Pilot, and 2x Boom Operators
D. 1x AC, 2x Pilots, and 2x Boom Operators
A
A
7
Q
Add _______ additional crew member(s) certified in passenger handling to the mission when passengers (Space-A/Duty Pax) are carried on _______ leg. Add another additional crew member certified in passenger handling (two total) to the mission when over _______ passengers are carried on any leg.
A. 2; return; 50
B. 1; any; 42
C. 2; any; 50
D. 1; return; 42
A
B
8
Q
_______ boom operator(s) is/are required on missions with planned cargo or AE. An FB monitored by an IB is equivalent to _______ MB(s).
A. Two; two
B. Two; one
C. One; one
D. One; two
A
B
9
Q
The maximum FDP for a basic crew is _______ hours (_______ hours when automation cannot be fully utilized). All AAR and tactical events will be accomplished within the first _______ hours of the FDP.
A. 18; 16; 14
B. 14; 12; 12
C. 16; 10; 12
D. 16; 12; 12
A
D
10
Q
Minimum runway length is _______ feet. Minimum runway width is _______ feet. Minimum taxiway width is _______ feet.
A. 7,000; 147; 74
B. 7,000; 150; 75
C. 7,000; 145; 70
D. 7,000; 147; 70
A
A
11
Q
A crewmember who is non-current in takeoff (AT59YM), instrument approach (AP15YM), or landing (AL01YM) will ______________.
A. Ensure they log this event on the next flight
B. Accomplish as soon as possible
C. Be supervised on all sorties until currency is regained
D. Accomplish only in the WST
A
C
12
Q
When lowering forward entry door, stand clear of the door _______, as the _______ may move as the door is lowered.
A. Latch; latch
B. Handle; handle
C. Guide; actuator
D. Motor; motor mounts
A
B
13
Q
Although the main cargo door structure will withstand gusts up to _______ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding _______ knots.
A. 45, 45
B. 50, 60
C. 65, 40
D. 30, 20
A
C
14
Q
When operating with less than nominal external power delay _______ until after engines are started.
A. Activation of remaining hydraulic and fuel pumps
B. Setting trim
C. Checking flight controls
D. All of the above
A
D
15
Q
During the Electrical Power Up procedure, after selecting Battery switch to ON and Standby Power selector to AUTO, verify _______ and _______ lights illuminate and _______ light(s) extinguish(es).
A. APU RUN and APU GEN ON; standby bus OFF
B. MAIN BAT DISCH and APU BAT DISC; standby bus OFF
C. L BUS OFF and R BUS OFF; BUS TIE ISLN lights
D. L BUS OFF and R BUS OFF; standby bus OFF
A
B
16
Q
Do not transmit on any HF radios during/when ______________.
A. Ground refueling operations
B. Transmitting on another radio
C. Any personnel are within 30 feet of the aircraft hull, using headsets connected to the exterior of the airplane, or in proximity to an open aircraft door
D. Both A and C
A
D
17
Q
During the Preliminary Preflight Procedure, prior to moving the IRS Mode Selectors from OFF to NAV, how many seconds must you wait?
A. 5 sec
B. 15 sec
C. 10 sec
D. 8 sec
A
C
18
Q
During the Preliminary Preflight Procedure, when checking the status display, what must you verify are sufficient for flight?
A. Oxygen pressure, hydraulic pressure, and engine oil pressure
B. Oxygen pressure, hydraulic quantity, and engine oil quantity
C. Oxygen pressure, hydraulic pressure, and engine oil pressure
D. Oxygen pressure, hydraulic quantity, and engine oil temperature
A
B
19
Q
The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of _______ consecutive starts or attempts within a _______ minute period.
A. 2, 30
B. 4, 20
C. 3, 60
D. 6, 60
A
C
20
Q
Coordination with ground crew is required prior to which of the following items?
A. Airplane movement
B. Air refueling system operation
C. Hydraulic system pressurization/flight control movement
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above
A
E
21
Q
Avoid weather radar operation ______________.
A. In a hangar
B. Within 50 feet of fueling operations or a fuel spill
C. When personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above
A
D
22
Q
T/F: The parking brake must be set in order to check the brake wear indicators during the exterior inspection.
A
True
23
Q
Approximately how many brake applications are possible with a fully charged brake accumulator?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
A
C
24
Q
What must be accomplished before the flight instrument check during the Preflight Procedure?
A. Initial data and navigation data entries
B. Air refueling data
C. Performance data
D. Navigation data and air refueling data entries
A
A
25
The maximum allowable on-the-ground differences between Captain or First Officer altitude displays and the field elevation for RVSM operation at sea level is _______ feet, at 5,000 feet is _______ feet and at 10,000 feet is _______ feet.
A. 40; 45; 50
B. 75; 75; 75
C. 70; 75; 70
D. 75; 75; 70
B
26
T/F: Standby altimeters do not meet accuracy requirements of Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums (RVSM).
True
27
T/F: MIL GPS is not authorized for RNP operations.
True
28
In order for LAIRCM initialization to complete _______ must be loaded.
A. MIL GPS keys
B. SECURE keys
C. HAVE QUICK keys
D. None of the above
A
29
Do not set LAIRCM mode to _______ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM _______ can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.
A. OPR; turrets
B. INH; laser
C. CODE; turrets
D. BIT; turrets
A
30
Do not push the _______ switch on the ground. The switch causes ______________.
A. RAM AIR TURBINE; deployment of the ram air turbine
B. JETTISON ARM; fuel jettison valves to open
C. AURAL CANCEL; all aural warnings to be silenced until gear is lowered
D. CHEMTRAIL; chemtrails to be mistaken for contrails at high altitude
A
31
Do not put objects between the _______ and the _______. Injury can occur when the _______ is adjusted.
A. Seat; aisle stand; seat
B. Control column; seat; seat
C. Thrust levers; fuel control switches; thrust lever
A
32
T/F: Start the Before Start Procedure after the required papers are on board, and all landing gear pins are verified removed and stowed.
True
33
What is the ARO coordination in the pilot Before Start Procedure?
A. Confirm ARO checklist is complete
B. Confirm ARO is at crew position
C. Taxi and takeoff briefings complete
D. Both B and C
D
34
T/F: If the tow bar is connected, do not pressurize the hydraulic systems until the nose gear steering is locked out.
True
35
Maximum motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than _______% in approximately _______ seconds.
A. 2, 4
B. 1, 5
C. 1, 3
D. 2, 3
B
36
During engine start in sandy or dusty environments, allow maximum motoring for _______ minute(s) to help remove contaminants.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 1
A
37
When operating in sandy or dusty environments, run the APU for _______ full minute(s) before using it as a bleed air source.
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
A
38
Do not increase thrust above that required to taxi until the oil temperature is a minimum of _______ degrees C.
A. 30
B. 15
C. 40
D. 50
D
39
Do the Aborted Engine Start checklist for one or more of the following abort start conditions:
A. EGT does not increase by 20 seconds after fuel control switch is moved to RUN or EGT quickly nears or exceeds start limit
B. No N1 rotation by 40% N2
C. N2 is not at idle by 2 minutes after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN
D. Oil pressure indication is not normal by the time the engine is stabilized at idle
E. All of the above
E
40
Stabilized fuel flow indications in excess of _______ within a few seconds after setting the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN can be an indication of an _______.
A. 1300 pph; impending hot start
B. 1200 pph; impending hot start
C. 500 pph; impending hung start
D. 1000 pph; impending tailpipe fire
B
41
Do not use engine anti-ice on the ground when OAT is above _______ degrees C.
A. 10
B. 17
C. 20
D. 25
A
42
Personnel should plan taxi and towing operations so that no part of an aircraft is within _______ horizontal feet of any obstruction without wing walkers. Do not operate aircraft within _______ horizontal feet of any obstruction.
A. 20; 10
B. 30; 15
C. 25; 15
D. 25; 10
D
43
T/F: During taxi out in cold weather operations, differential thrust may be used to help maintain airplane momentum during turns.
True
44
During the Before Taxi Procedure, after the LEFT and RIGHT ISOLATION switches are switched, what must you verify?
A. ENG BLEED OFF messages not shown
B. Engine bleed air OFF lights are extinguished
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
C
45
What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?
A. 15 knots
B. 10 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 12 knots
B
46
What is the runway slope limit?
A. +/- 3 percent
B. +/- 1.5 percent
C. +/- 2 percent
D. +/- 2.5 percent
C
47
T/F: If windshear is suspected, takeoff with full rated takeoff thrust is recommended, unless the use of a fixed derate is required to meet a dispatch performance requirement.
True
48
If windshear is suspected during takeoff, ______________.
A. Use Flaps 20 for optimum takeoff performance unless limited by obstacle clearance and/or climb gradient
B. Consider using Vr speed to the performance limited gross weight rotation speed, not to exceed actual gross weight Vr+20 knots
C. Use the flight director after takeoff
D. All of the above
D
49
T/F: Takeoffs are not recommended when wet snow depth is more than 1/2 inch or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches.
True
50
During LNAV and VNAV operations, verify all changes to the airplane’s:
A. Course
B. Vertical path
C. Thrust
D. Speed
E. All of the above
E
51
T/F: Before takeoff, the engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band.
True
52
Which of the following is not one of the engine warm up recommendations when the engines have been shut down for more than 2 hours (there is no need to delay the takeoff for these recommendations)?
A. Run the engines for 5 minutes
B. Engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band before takeoff
C. When the taxi time is expected to be less than 5 minutes start the engines as early as feasibly possible
D. Use a thrust setting normally used for taxi operations
B
53
Takeoff into headwinds of _______ or greater may result in _____ before the auto throttle can make final thrust adjustment. If the thrust levers do not advance to the planned takeoff thrust, manually advance the thrust levers before _______.
A. 25 knots; THR HOLD; 100 knots
B. 15 knots; THR HOLD; 80 knots
C. 30 knots; THR HOLD; 100 knots
D. 20 knots; THR HOLD; 80 knots
D
54
Do not use _______ without verifying that runway length and obstacles do not limit takeoff performance.
A. FMC generated critical field length
B. APT for TOLD calculation
C. FMC generated V speeds
D. FMC generated climb gradient
C
55
What is V1 defined as?
A. The maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speedbrakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance
B. The minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of an engine at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance
C. The speed if a takeoff is rejected the airplane cannot stop before reaching the end of the runway
D. Both A and B
D
56
Takeoff performance assumes the engine failure or event occurs _______ second(s) before V1. In a runway limited situation, this means the airplane reaches a height of _______ feet over the end of the runway if the decision is to continue the takeoff.
A. 3; 50
B. 1; 35
C. 3; 35
D. 1; 50
B
57
After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below _______ feet AGL.
A. 300
B. 250
C. 200
D. 150
C
58
With all engines operating, what are the general pilot “Q” tolerances for heading, airspeed, and altitude?
A. Heading: +/- 4 degrees; Airspeed: +/- 5 knots; Altitude: +/- 75 feet
B. Heading: +/- 10 degrees; Airspeed: + 10/- 5 knots; Altitude: +/- 150 feet
C. Heading: +/- 5 degrees; Airspeed: + 10/- 5 knots; Altitude: +/- 100 feet
D. Heading: +/- 6 degrees; Airspeed: +/- 5 knots; Altitude: +/- 100 feet
C
59
Do not use engine or wing anti-ice when TAT (in-flight) is above _______ degrees C.
A. 0
B. 10
C. -10
D. 5
B
60
Do not rely on _______ before activating engine anti-ice.
A. Temperature criteria
B. Visible moisture criteria
C. Icing forecasts
D. Airframe visual icing cues
D
61
T/F: Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.
True
62
The minimum altitude for flap retraction is _______ feet.
A. 1,000
B. 400
C. 800
D. 200
B
63
The first step in the ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is:
A. A/T ARM switch……….OFF
B. Thrust lever (affected side)…..Confirm…..Idle
C. FUEL CONTROL switch…..Confirm…..CUTOFF
D. Engine fire switch…..Confirm…..Pull
A
64
The ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist directs that for an engine-out landing, use flaps _______ for landing and flaps _______ for go-around.
A. 30; 20
B. 5; 1
C. 20; 30
D. 20; 5
D
65
The severe turbulent air penetration speed is:
A. 280 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
B. 290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
C. 300 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
D. 280 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower
B
66
The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operation is _______ feet.
A. 100
B. 75
C. 200
D. 150
C
67
Use of APU bleed air above _______ feet pressure altitude is prohibited.
A. 17,500
B. 17,000
C. 18,000
D. 18,500
B
68
The maximum altitude with flaps extended is _______ feet pressure altitude.
A. 20,000
B. 20,100
C. 20,500
D. 19,500
A
69
T/F: Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.
True
70
Do not use _______ or Tactical Situational Awareness System (TSAS) display for navigation.
A. Terrain display
B. FMC
C. Mini map
D. IRSs
A
71
T/F: The autothrottle should be off in severe turbulence.
True
72
During flight in IMC, avoid flying directly over significant amber or red radar returns, ______________.
A. Even if there are no returns at airplane altitude
B. Unless the radar picture is clear at airplane altitude
C. Unless PIREPs indicate an absence of turbulence or icing
D. Unless engine and wing ANTI-ICE switches are ON
A
73
Dry contacts are prohibited within _______ NM of weather that is known or suspected to be producing lightning.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 25
D. 35
C
74
Start the Rendezvous Procedure no later than _______ minutes prior to first planned ARCT. Complete the Rendezvous Procedure prior to receiver(s) reaching _______ NM in trail.
A. 25; 1
B. 30; 2
C. 30; 1
D. 20; 0.5
C
75
When completing the Rendezvous Procedure, on the TACAN page (NAV RAD 2/2) enter the proper channel and mode settings. To enable both bearing and range information, set MODE to _______ and BRG MODE to _______.
A. A/A; INV
B. BCN; INV
C. BCN; LDR
D. A/A; LDR
B
76
For onloads, verify/enter the onload quantity on the ONLD CTRL page. The onload value cannot be entered or modified while the AERIAL REFUELING selector is set to _______.
A. OFFLOAD
B. OFF
C. ONLOAD
D. ON
C
77
When either tanker or receiver, start the Prep for Contact Procedure when _______ is established between the receiver and tanker aircraft.
A. Visual contact
B. Radio contact
C. 1,000 feet vertical separation
D. TCAS identification
E. A or B
E
78
As the tanker, set the TCAS MODE to _______, or as the receiver set the XPDR MODE to _______.
A. STBY; TA
B. TA; STBY
C. RA; NORM
D. TA; NORM
B
79
Do not transmit on HF radios ______________.
A. During air refueling operations within 30 feet of another aircraft
B. When talking on the radio with the receiver
C. With the receiver(s) within 1 NM
D. None of the above
A
80
The speed operational envelope for deploying the boom, stowing the boom, and operating with the boom down is _______. However, operation above _______ knots with the boom deployed is limited to the extent required to perform the breakaway maneuver or the required emergency.
A. 180 - 325 KCAS; 325 KCAS or 0.84 Mach
B. 190 - 335 KCAS; 350 KCAS or 0.86 Mach
C. 170 - 335 KCAS; 350 KCAS or 0.86 Mach
D. 180 - 350 KCAS; 365 KCAS or 0.88 Mach
A
81
During cases of emergency or urgent operational need, WARP drogues can be safely retracted up to _______. The left WARP coupler shroud will likely be dented/damaged by contact with the WARP exit tunnel upon retraction faster than _______.
A. 315 KCAS/0.84 Mach; 280 KCAS
B. 325 KCAS/0.84 Mach; 275 KCAS
C. 300 KCAS/0.83 Mach; 270 KCAS
D. 330 KCAS/0.84 Mach; 280 KCAS
B
82
Fuel offload via the WARPs with the wing vent valves failed closed _______.
A. Could rupture the fuel tanks
B. Is allowed
C. Could cause severe structural damage
D. Both A and C
D
83
Start the Post-Air Refueling Procedure when _______ and the tanker and receiver aircraft are _______. Complete the Post-Air Refueling Procedure prior to _______.
A. Refueling operations are terminated; 0.5 NM apart; the Descent Procedure
B. Refueling operations are terminated; 1 NM apart; the Descent Procedure
C. After ATC receives the post AR request; 0.5 NM apart; the Descent Procedure
D. Refueling operations are terminated; separated from each other; the Descent Procedure
D
84
Coordinate with the ARO to ensure the Boom or CDS Fill procedure is complete, if applicable, before moving the _______ selector out of _______.
A. AERIAL REFUELING; OFFLOAD
B. AERIAL REFUELING; ONLOAD
C. AERIAL REFUELING; OFF
D. AROS POWER; ON
A
85
Start the Descent Procedure before the airplane descends below _______.
A. 18,000 feet MSL
B. The cruise altitude for arrival at destination
C. The highest cruise altitude for your flight
D. Transition level
B
86
Complete the Descent Procedure by _______ feet MSL.
A. 18,000
B. 12,000
C. 10,000
D. FAF altitude
C
87
The Approach Procedure is normally started at _______.
A. The reception of current airfield weather
B. The coordination of the Pilot Flying and ARO
C. Transition level
D. The check-in with Approach Control
C
88
Complete the Approach Procedure before:
A. The initial approach fix
B. The start of radar vectors to the final approach course
C. The start of a visual approach
D. Any one of the above
D
89
Do not use FLCH on final approach below _______ feet AFE.
A. 1,000
B. 800
C. 1,500
D. 500
A
90
For an instrument approach using IAN, select the G/S prompt OFF _______.
A. If flying an ILS approach where the G/S transmitter is inoperative
B. When the G/S data is unreliable
C. If flying an ILS approach where the G/S transmitter is operative
D. Both A and B
D
91
The final approach deviation scales are proportional to RNP. They _______ become more sensitive as ILS/GLS scales do.
A. Will
B. Do not
C. Should
D. May
B
92
When using _______ to intercept the localizer, _______ might parallel the localizer without capturing it. The airplane can then descend on the VNAV path with the localizer not captured.
A. APP, APP
B. VNAV, VNAV
C. LNAV, LNAV
D. HDG SEL, HDG SEL
C
93
Do not use the autopilot below _______ feet radio altitude at airports with field elevations above 6,200 feet.
A. 100
B. 200
C. 150
D. 50
A
94
Automatic approaches must be terminated at no less than _______ feet AGL for airport field elevations between 6,200 feet and 9,500 feet.
A. 200
B. 150
C. 400
D. 100
D
95
From _______ feet HAT to the runway, if the stabilized approach criteria are exceeded, the _______ will announce _______ and the PF will _______.
A. 500; PM or other crewmember; Go-around; execute a go-around
B. 800; PM; continue; continue
C. 1000; PM or other crewmember; the correction needed; make the correction
D. 500; PM; Go-around; try to correct the minor deviation
A
96
When performing a missed approach from an ILS or GLS with the autopilot engaged and _______ inoperative, the autopilot releases all _______ inputs immediately after reversion to single channel operation. This can occur as early as the initiation of the go-around/missed approach when above _______ feet AGL. The pilot flying must anticipate this transition and _______ as needed to maintain coordinated flight.
A. One engine; aileron inputs; 400; manually aileron and pitch control
B. One engine; rudder inputs; 200; manually apply rudder
C. Rudder; aileron inputs; 500; manually apply rudder
D. One engine; rudder inputs; 100; manually aileron control
B
97
According to the ENG FAIL or Engine Shutdown checklist, one engine inoperative landing flap position for landing is flaps _______ and speed _______.
A. 20; VREF 80
B. 20; VREF 20
C. 25; VREF 25
D. 25; VREF 20
B
98
What is the maximum landing weight?
A. 310,000 pounds
B. 310,100 pounds
C. 314,000 pounds
D. 315,000 pounds
A
99
With all engines operating, what are the “Q” landing tolerances for airspeed, touchdown zone, and centerline?
A. Airspeed: + 5/- 5 KIAS with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 1,000 - 3,000 feet; Centerline: +/- 15 feet left or right
B. Airspeed: +10/- 5 KIAS with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 1,000 - 3,000 feet; Centerline: +/- 15 feet left or right
C. Airspeed: + 5/- 0 KIAS with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 1,000 - 3,000 feet; Centerline: +/- 20 feet left or right
D. Airspeed: + 10/- 5 KIAS with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 500 - 3,000 feet; Centerline: +/- 25 feet left or right
B
100
Touch-and-go landings with passengers or cargo on board are _______. For local training sorties, the _______ may waive this restriction on a case-by-case basis.
A. Prohibited; Sq/CC
B. Prohibited; OG/CC
C. Authorized; Sq/DO
D. Prohibited; Sq/DO
B
101
Landing with fuel in the body tanks is _______.
A. Allowed at all conditions, provided touchdown sinkrate limits are observed
B. Prohibited under non-failure conditions
C. Allowed at body tank fuel weights of less than 5,000 pounds
D. Prohibited under any circumstances
B
102
Autoland is limited to what flap setting(s)?
A. 25
B. 20
C. 30
D. Both A and C
D
103
The maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations are _______ knots headwind, _______ knots crosswind, and _______ knots tailwind.
A. 25; 25; 10
B. 25; 15; 10
C. 25; 25; 5
D. 25; 10; 5
A
104
During the Landing Roll Procedure, when must you disconnect the autopilot?
A. Before taxi speed
B. Before disarming the autobrakes
C. Before turning off the runway
D. Before the speedbrakes are down
C
105
During the Landing Roll Procedure, when must you disarm the autobrakes and use manual brakes as needed?
A. Before turning off the runway
B. Before taxi speed
C. When the speed brakes are down
D. As required
B
106
Start the After Landing Procedure when ______________.
A. In communication with ground control
B. Clear of the active runway
C. The pilot calls for the checklist
D. At safe taxi speeds
B
107
What is (are) the engine cool down recommendation(s)?
A. Run the engines for at least 5 minutes
B. Do not exceed 1.0 EPR within 2 minutes of shutdown
C. Use a thrust setting no higher than that normally used for all engine taxi operations
D. Both A and C
D
108
During the Shutdown Procedure, depressurize the _______ hydraulic system last to prevent fluid transfer between systems.
A. Left
B. Right
C. Center
D. Auxiliary
B
109
T/F: Do not power the LAIRCM off while SYSTEM BUSY is shown on the CIU display. Doing so can corrupt engagement data being written to the HCC.
True
110
Do not use the Flight Management Computer (FMC) generated V speeds without verifying that _______ and _______ do not limit takeoff performance.
A. Runway length; obstacles
B. Obstacles; weather
C. Runway length; Accelerate/Stop Distance Required (ASDR)
D. Special Departure Procedure; Performance Engineering Tool (PET)
A
111
Do not set Large Aircraft Infrared Countermeasures (LAIRCM) mode to _______ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM turrets can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.
A. Operate (OPR)
B. Standby (STBY)
C. Active (ACT)
D. Off (OFF)
A
112
Do not select Emission Control (EMCON) 4 to ON until at least _______ above ground level after takeoff. If EMCON 4 is set to ON below _______ above ground level, control column forces during approach to stall may be lighter than normal. Elevator feel returns to normal once a valid radio altitude is received.
A. 100 feet
B. 200 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 400 feet
D
113
Do not use Emission Control (EMCON) 4 below _______ above field elevation during approach.
A. 500 feet
B. 1000 feet
C. 1500 feet
D. 2000 feet
B
114
With Emission Control (EMCON) 4 set to ON, the following alerts will be disabled:
A. TOO LOW FLAPS, TOO LOW GEAR, DON’T SINK, SINK RATE, GLIDESLOPE, TERRAIN
B. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) traffic alerts and resolution advisories
C. Predictive and reactive windshear alerts
D. All of the above
D
115
T/F: Severe windshear may exceed the performance capability of the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS). The pilot flying must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle and fly manually.
True
116
Although the door structure will withstand gusts up to _______ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding _______ knots. Should it become necessary to lower the door in high winds, the airplane should be positioned with the door opening on the downwind side.
A. 65; 40
B. 40; 65
C. 40; 20
D. 25; 15
A
117
T/F: Do not use windshield wipers on a dry window.
True
118
When flying an approach with vertical speed, if required to remain at or above the Minimum Descent Altitude (Height) (MDA[H]) during the missed approach, missed approach must be initiated at least _______ feet above MDA(H).
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
B
119
Do not use Flight Level Change (FLCH) on final approach below _______ feet Above Field Elevation (AFE).
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 1,500
D. 2,000
B
120
Do not operate an aircraft within _______ feet of any obstruction without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not operate closer than _______ feet to any obstruction.
A. 10, 25
B. 25, 10
C. 10, 10
D. 25, 25
B
121
T/F: Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). The PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continue a touch-and-go when LAHSO is in effect.
True
122
When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?
A. At the pilot’s discretion
B. From sunset to sunrise
C. From just prior to engine start until after engine shutdown
D. At all times when electrical power is available to operate anti-collision lights
C
123
You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?
A. Keep moving in the direction intended. You have the right-of-way and the other aircraft will move.
B. Alter course to the left to remain well-clear, or stop
C. Alter the course to the right to remain well-clear, or stop
D. Execute a 180 degree turn and return to parking
C
124
T/F: No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR when possible.
True
125
For all _______ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within 1/2 NM; this includes datalink.
A. USAF
B. USN
C. USAF & USN
D. Foreign aircraft
D
126
The position approximately 50 feet behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called:
A. Astern
B. Pre-contact
C. Stabilized
D. Either A or B
D
127
Tanker responsibilities during a Rendezvous Delta is (are) to:
A. Be at the base AAR altitude
B. Enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction
C. Attempt to arrive at least 10 minutes before the ARCT and, normally, established a left-hand holding pattern using the ARCP as an anchor point
D. All of the above
D
128
When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G, a common track length equivalent to _______ minutes flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
C
129
Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of _______ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. When not operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews _______ to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.
A. QFE, are required
B. 29.92, are required
C. 29.92, are not required
D. QNH, are not required
B
130
T/F: Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end aerial refueling altitude requests at least 5 minutes prior to AREX.
True
131
Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle 60 NM long and 25 NM wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:
A. Are automatically cleared down to the IP, if needed for rendezvous
B. Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired
C. Can change direction of turn, if they wish
D. Must notify ATC if shortening leg lengths
B
132
T/F: Routing and altitude(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV should not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO 7610.4V.
True
133
To avoid a datalink initiation failure, the flight crew ensures that the flight-specific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed _______.
A. On the Form F
B. In the Aircrew Briefing Guide
C. By the Copilot
D. In the flight plan
D
134
After obtaining and reading back the clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by _______ minutes or more, unless providing position reports via _______, the pilot must pass a revised estimate to ATC.
A. 1; SATCOM
B. 2; ADS-C
C. 3; ADS-C
D. 3; SATCOM
C
135
If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV ______________.
A. Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule
B. Is at the discretion of the mission commander
C. Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF
D. All of the above
E. A or C
E
136
If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to ______________.
A. Call Command Post to verify aircraft registration
B. Transmit AFN logon, then re-transmit with correct identification
C. Omit AFN logon from checklist
D. Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request
D
137
Approximately _______ minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 45
A
138
Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT MNPS Airspace occur as a result of crews programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. There are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originate from:
A. Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the ATC cleared route
B. Failure to load waypoint information carefully
C. Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems
D. Any combination of the above
D
139
If OAT is above _______, leave the LAIRCM power off until within _______ minutes before takeoff.
A. 45 degrees C/113 degrees F, 25
B. 38 degrees C/100 degrees F, 5
C. 45 degrees C/113 degrees F, 5
D. 38 degrees C/100 degrees F, 25
D
140
If OAT is above _______, set the LAIRCM power to off within _______ minutes after landing.
A. 38 degrees C/100 degrees F, 25
B. 38 degrees C/100 degrees F, 5
C. 45 degrees C/113 degrees F, 25
D. 45 degrees C/113 degrees F, 5
A
141
For takeoff, EMCON 4 must remain _______ until climbing through 400 feet AGL. For landing, EMCON 4 must remain _______ below 1000 feet above field elevation during approach and landing.
A. OFF
B. STBY
C. ON
D. Aligned
A
142
The _______ mode does not provide automatic low speed protection and permits flight away from selected altitude. For level-off protection, always select new level-off altitude prior to engaging vertical speed mode.
A. FLCH
B. Vertical speed
C. VNAV
D. LNAV
B
143
Protection against vapor ignition in the aerial refueling boom and aerial manifold is _______ with the boom isolation valve in the closed position. Therefore, the boom should be powered off when not in use.
A. Reduced
B. Maximized
C. Not Available
D. Not Recommended
B
144
Once an AR pump message displays, fuel for approximately _______ minutes of engine operation remains in the center tank. This may not be sufficient to reach a suitable landing surface.
A. 30
B. 60
C. 15
D. 75
C
145
The classified _______ and/or unclassified _______ Data Transfer Devices (DTD) may be inserted by aircrew during the Preliminary Preflight Procedure.
A. 2A; 2B
B. 2A; 4A
C. 1A; 2A
D. 2B; 4B
B
146
What is the required mid field Runway Visual Range (RVR) for a CAT III Fail Operational (FO) ILS approach?
A. 300’
B. 600’
C. 700’
D. 1000’
B
147
During Low Visibility approaches, what 2 EICAS alerts must not be shown when planning an AUTOLAND?
A. RUDDER RATIO
B. DATALINK LOST
C. ELEVATOR FEEL
D. YAW DAMPER
E. A and C
F. A and D
E
148
With Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS) indications above _______, fire and ramp personnel should be alerted.
A. 5.0
B. 6.5
C. 7.0
D. 9.0
C
149
When may the Pattern Checklist be used?
A. Subsequent approaches to the same airfield
B. Anytime
C. Only in the VFR pattern
D. In lieu of the Landing Checklist
A
