KC135 EOC Test Questions Flashcards
(186 cards)
1
Q
Do not operate the ________ and the _______ simultaneously. Slow operation of the gear with reduced climbout performance will result.
A
forward A/R pumps; landing gear
2
Q
In the AUTO position, an AUX HYD pump will automatically go off when system pressure reaches _______, and comes on when the pressure drops between _______ psi below this value and _______ psi.
A
2900+/- 150; 200 psi; 2400 psi
3
Q
In the AUTO position, an aux HYD pump will automatically turn on when system pressure reaches approx. _________.
A
2400 psi
4
Q
Normal reserve brake pressure is________.
A
1300-3050 psi
5
Q
Normally the aux pumps are off during flight because…?
A
they draw fluid from the main system return lines.
6
Q
When using the left aux pump to recharge the reserve brake system, the HYD fluid supply is drawn directly from where?
A
main system return lines
7
Q
HYD pump isolation in excess of ________ can result in self-destruction of the pump.
A
5 minutes
8
Q
When using the autopilot pitch knob, the pilot can select from _______ pitch nose up to _______ pitch nose down.
A
20 degrees; 20 degrees
9
Q
When flying an autopilot ILS approach, disengage the autopilot at an altitude not lower than the ________________ because of the larger control forces required to overcome the autopilot.
A
published minimums
10
Q
An autopilot pitchup malfunction could cause a stall within _______________ and is therefore considered the most serious autopilot malfunction.
A
3 seconds
11
Q
When the autopilot turn knob is out of the detent position, the __________________ switches cannot be engaged.
A
ROLL engage and HDG SEL mode
12
Q
Once the aircraft is airborne, before engaging the autopilot, you must verify the ___________________.
A
the turn knob is in the detent position
13
Q
To prevent damage to distribution ducts, do not operate the alternate pressurization system in ____________ mode for and extended period of time.
A
full increase
14
Q
The APU HYD accumulators are pressurized by _________________.
A
the right hydraulic system (left, if crossover used)
15
Q
If the APU surge bleed pulsing occurs after the RDY light comes on, ________________.
A
shut down the APUs
16
Q
Bleed air for the APU cannot reach the air conditioning pack if the __________ is not open.
A
A/C crossover valve switch
17
Q
Ensure the ram air inlet scoop and outlet ducts are open and clear before __________ the airplane with the APUs.
A
heating
18
Q
Once EWO mode is selected, the APUs have to be ________________ to return to any other operational mode.
A
shut down and restarted
19
Q
The basic AC electrical system is powered by ___ engine-driven ____________ generators.
A
three; integrated drive
20
Q
TR Bus #1 supplies power to the switched DC bus when the battery switch is in the ___________ position.
A
NORMAL
21
Q
If the copilots instrument power off light comes on or the copilots instruments are operating erratically, set the copilots instrument power switch to ____________.
A
EMERGENCY
22
Q
When generators are paralleled, a difference in __________ readings may indicate a generator malfunction.
A
ammeter
23
Q
With engines running, an IDG failure light comes on. A possible cause is _________________________.
A
IDG oil temp is too high (400 +/- 10F) or the oil press is too low (drops below 100 psi)
24
Q
Do not reset any ____________________________________. if open, until proper inspection and repairs have been made.
A
115/200 volt AC fuel boost pumps or fuel override pump C/B
25
Never attempt to work on equipment using AC power. Touching any one wire while in contact with the aircraft can _______________.
be deadly
26
You've just disconnected an IDG, but the DISC caution light failed to illuminate. What should you do next?
Test the light, check C/B (close if open), then shutdown engine using the engine fire/failure during flight checklist
27
After starting, the starter switch should be moved from start to _________ when the outside air temperature is ________________.
ignition; 0C (32F) or below
28
Damage to the starter and accessory drive can occur if starter is engaged with the engine at or above _________.
63% N2
29
_____________ is the engine parameter that indicates thrust.
N1 RPM
30
If an engine starter valve open light remains on when the starter switch is set to OFF on engine start, or comes on during ground operations, immediately place the throttle for the affected engine to CUTOFF and ___________________.
close the affected engine bleed valve
31
Starter damage can occur if starter is reengaged ___________.
above 25% N2
32
If any engine remains in flight idle after touchdown, the __________________ should be shut down as soon as practicable.
outboard engines
33
During engine start, at temperatures at or below 0 degrees C, set applicable starter switch to ________ at 50% N2 RPM.
IGNITION
34
Except during EWO, use the _________________ procedure when taking off with an inoperative PMC
static takeoff
35
The EGT caution light comes on when the temperature increases above _____________.
870 C (+/- 2C)
36
The airplane altitude/differential pressure scale on the cabin pressure controller shows the ________________________________________________________.
maximum actual airplane altitude for the command cabin altitudes selected by the dial pointer at an 8.6 psi pressure differential
37
The cabin manual pressure control knob can be used to depressurize the aircraft by rotating ___________ to the ______________ position.
counterclockwise; full decrease
38
The recommended maximum cabin altitude to maintain conditions for efficient crew operations is _____________ for day and ___________ for night.
8,000 ft; 5,000 ft
39
The _________ position of the cabin pressure test valve handle locks out the cabin pressure controller so all control of the cabin pressure is through the manual pressure controller.
CLOSED
40
When operating for extended periods at altitudes of 20,000 feet or below, the recommended cabin altitude for normal climb and cruise is ________________.
field PA plus 500 ft
41
It is important not to operate the air conditioning system with right alternate pressure switch in ___________ for extended periods of time. Distribution ducts will be exposed to high temperature bleed air and ___________.
full increase; overheat
42
The cabin pressure controller is used in conduction with the ______________ to automatically control the cabin pressure.
outflow valves
43
The CBN PRS warning light illuminates if the cabin altitude is approximately ____________; it goes out when cabin altitude descends to __________.q
12,000ft (+/- 1,000ft); 9,500ft
44
For takeoffs, approaches, and landings with fuel in any main tanks below ___________, fuel should be present in all main tanks, all 8 boost pumps must be ON and all tank to engine manifold valves must be open.
10,500 lbs
45
The _________ hydraulic system operated the forward air refueling pumps, and the __________ hydraulic system operates the aft refueling pumps.
left; right
46
Do not operate ______________ and _______________ simultaneously when feeding the engine from the body tanks.
A/R pumps; override pumps
47
Fuel valves require ___________ to operate normally.
DC power
48
Boost pumps are operated ___________, air refueling pumps are operated __________, and override pumps are operated ____________.
electrically; hydraulically; electrically
49
The engine can be fed directly from any fuel tank or tanks in the airplane except the ____________________.
reserve tanks and upper deck tank
50
If positive boost pump pressure is not available to supply fuel to the engines during flight ___________________.
engine flameout can occur
51
Override pumps will not be operated dry for a period exceeding _________.
5 minutes
52
When burning fuel from the center wing tank, operate with _____________________ when the fuel level in the tanks falls below ______________. (Above 35,000')
2 override pumps; 10,500 lbs
53
If you deviate from your target altitude by 220' or more, which aural alert will you receive from the altitude alerter?
"Altitude"
54
In RVSM airspace, the aircraft should not be allowed to overshoot or undershoot the cleared FL by more than _______.
150 ft
55
____________ are prohibited below 1,000ft AGL.
Speed brakes
56
What can you select at the IACP if you want to talk to NAV but don't want to disturb the others?
LCL ICS
57
Do not use the speed brakes below what altitude on approach?
1,000ft AGL
58
What sources can the bearing pointer point to?
VOR1, VOR2, TACAN, FMS
59
When capturing a VOR, TACAN, FMS course when will the flight director capture?
5 degrees (inner dot)
60
When capturing an ILS, when will the flight director capture?
outer reference dot (1.5-3 degrees)
61
What radios are not Datalink capable?
UHF radios
62
____________ by rough air or lateral directional control inputs.
Dutch roll is usually induced (With SYD not available)
63
The rudder goes from high to low pressure when the ___________________.
flaps are set to the up position
64
If only the outboard flaps are lowered, ______________________________.
the aircraft will pitch down slightly
65
________ cannot be tuned by the CDU
Com 1
66
If looking at the fuel limits page, you see CW [1], when will the fuel low light illuminate?
1,000lbs
67
When will the INS ALTN insert key do?
It will insert the alternate flight plan into the active flight plan. (It won't replace the current flight plan)
68
When will you get a containment warning flag?
when ANP exceeds RNP.
69
What is RNP?
Defined parameters for lateral and longitudinal accuracy.
70
With rudder power off, what is the max deflection?
| With rudder power on, what is the max deflection?
13 degrees = rudder power off
| 25 degrees = rudder power on
71
During preflight, how many units of trim does the stabilizer need?
6-11 units nose up
72
IMFD question asking what is the highlighted message?
UTC/ANNUN
73
At high gross weights with flaps up, full stall occurs __________ below initial buffet speed and approximately ______________ below this speed for flaps down.
15-20 knots; 10 knots
74
The pilot and copilot AOA indicators ________________ and indicate different readings when the airflow around the AOA probes varies, as in a sideslip.
operate independently
75
If the leading edge flaps fail to retract, move the _________________ to let the flaps depressurize.
outboard spoilers to cutoff
76
Why must you power down the EGI's?
they will deplete the battery if they are not properly turned off.
77
What are the proper steps to recover from a high bounce on a landing?
Maintain the landing attitude and add power.
78
If you use the ____________ the _________ will still work.
crossover lever; FCAS
79
*With the __________________, the system will scan the frequencies but will not reply.
SILENT MODE ON
80
What will the EGI's do if not properly powered down?
Deplete the battery
81
*With _________________, the ALE function will scan the receive channels but _______________ to ALE calls or transmit auto sounding.
SILENT ON; will not respond
82
Snubbers prevent damage from wind speeds up to ___________?
65 knots
83
The HSI comms data line provide ___________________________?
frequency and call sign that is active
84
Do not set the __________________________ while accelerating, decelerating, or turning the airplane.
FD mode selector switches to RGA position
85
The __________ provides a command bar for intercepting and tracking the ________________________
APPR AUTO mode; localizer and GS path
86
Selecting ___________ when the aircraft is outside the capture range of the localizer causes the command bars to ___________________________.
APPR MAN; direct a 30 degree localizer intercept
87
If the # 3 throttle is near full open, what causes the warning horn to sound?
Flaps 40 degrees ( 0, 40 or 50 degrees the horn will sound); speed brakes more than 2 degrees
88
If the airplane is to be left unattended for extended periods of under snow or icing conditions, the stabilizer trim will be set to ________________.
2.5 units nose down
89
You have really messed up the approach. Just as the aircraft was about to touch down, you relaxed back pressure on the yoke, the nose started down, the aircraft dropped onto the runway and bounced back into the air. You're about 20' above the runway. What should you do?
Increase thrust, hold the landing attitude, and either fly away from the runway or land, if the situation is safe.
90
The safest and best response to a bounce is to do what with your pitch?
Maintain the landing attitude.
91
*You are above Vmca and experience an outboard engine failure. Which control forces do you use to control the aircraft?
Rudder and aileron
92
If the rudder hydraulic pressure does not fall into the lower range when the flaps are raised either stay below __________ or __________________________________.
stay below 230 KIAS or turn the rudder power off prior to 230 KIAS. (Return rudder power switch to ON when below 220 KIAS)
93
When in flight, if the primary system (oxygen) shows a pressure below 100 psi, you must _____________________________.
open the auxiliary system shutoff valve
94
Oxygen pressure on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle should not be permitted to ______________.
drop below 50 psi
95
If the primary system pressure (oxygen) falls below ________, open the auxiliary system shutoff valve for continued operation.
below 100 psi
96
The _______________________ permits localized intercom communications between stations within a group.
Local Interphone Control System (LCL ICS)
97
To accurately check the elevator travel during the interior inspection, the stabilizer must be positioned _____________________.
6-11 units nose up trim
98
The _________________ determines the deflection of the leading edge flaps.
outboard flaps
99
The warning horn sounds if the #3 throttle is near open and the flap lever is near the _____________________.
0, 40, 50 detent
100
If EFAS is inoperative, Vmcg can increase by as much as __________.
25 KIAS
101
Which are valid ways to exit a holding pattern?
1. Press EXIT HOLD on the CDU hold flpn page
| 2. Initiate a direct to (DIR) to a waypoint other than the holding fix
102
Which HF has datalink?
HF1
103
*With ___________, the automatic link establishment (ALE) function _________ scan the receive channels but ________ respond to ALE calls or transmit automatic soundings.
SILENT: ON; will; will not
104
You glance at your HSI COMM line before you make a radio call. What information does it provide for you?
The status of your squelch control, the frequency and call sign that you have selected as your active frequency
105
Which key would you use to access pages containing information related to lateral or vertical steering and timing?
STR
106
How can you delete something in the CDU?
Enter a dash (-) then press the appropriate LSK
107
Which button and knob are used to toggle between primary and secondary sources and set the desired secondary source on the HSI?
CRS 1/2 button and SOURCE knob
108
ADS reports are initiated...
automatically without pilot interaction.
109
What modes can you have terrain overlay on?
HSI ARC, MAP ARC, WXR/TERR with terrain on
110
*TRT min climb gradient is?
2.8% Engine out
111
If the FMAC is unable to successfully calculate a takeoff solution, you will receive a __________
T/O NOGO
112
You hear TERRAIN AHEAD, PULL UP from the EGPWS, how much prior to conflict are you issued a warning?
30 seconds
113
Where do you find information about inflight training?
11-2kc-135
114
Where is the MEL located?
11-2kc-135 V3
115
Red 080 on the peak mode is telling you what?
8,000 ft MSL
116
"GLIDESLOPE GLIDESLOPE" (full volume) is heard when?
2 dots or more below the glide slope
| low volume alert = 1.3 dots or below GS
117
*Min recommended climb gradient on a go-around is?
2.8%
118
OFF is displayed on the radar display.
The RCP is in the OFF position
119
Select __________ when operating below 2500' AGL within 15nm or an airfield not in the terrain database.
TERR INH
120
Receiver calls for breakaway is found in what document?
ATP-56B
121
WXR in blocked letters on a red background indicates?
The radar has failed
122
What is true about the Radars CLTR feature?
reduces ground clutter (all of the above)
123
Which document contains your MARSA procedures?
11-2kc-135
124
Which key will access FSAS and performance functions?
MSN (Like T/O, LDG, WT & BAL)
125
If neither pilot has a terrain overlay on HSI, when a terrain awareness is displayed?
The pop up feature displays terrain on both pilot and copilots HSIs.
126
Total Landing Distance is?
flare plus landing ground roll (distance from 50ft above runway level to full stop on the runway)
127
When is MARSA terminated?
MARSA ends between the tanker and receiver when the tanker advises ATC the tanker and receiver aircraft are vertically positioned within the air refueling airspace and ATC advises MARSA is terminated
128
When is MARSA gained?
MARSA begins between tanker and receiver when tanker advises ATC it is accepting MARSA.
129
What document would you find the PIC authorities?
AFI 11-202 V3
130
What document would you find receiver pilot procedures?
ATP-56B
131
Which publication would you reference for maintaining formation?
11-2kc-135
132
What is the minimum climb gradient (in the event of a go around) required at touch down speed?
There is no single solution ( 2.8% for 3 engine c/o is recommended)
133
EGPWS provides what type of windshear alerting?
Reactive windshear alerting
134
What aural warning will you hear if a predictive windshear is encountered on approach?
"GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD"
135
When do you hear the warning "GLIDE SLOPE, GLIDE SLOPE"
When 2 dots or more below glide slope (deviations from ILS/MLS EGPWS)
136
When is it appropriate to use the terrain inhibit (TERR INH) switch?
(GOUGE)When landing at an airfield not in the EGPWS database to prevent terrain alerts when penetrating the 700 ' terrain clearance floor.
(BOOK) When operating below 2500 ft AGL within 15nm of an airfield not in the terrain data base. Selecting TERR INH disables the terrain awareness display and associated messages, but does not affect the terrain clearance floor or other EGPWS alert functions.
137
Why would you want to override the speed brakes (pressing the S/B OVRD switch)?
If the stabilizer is inoperative (jammed)
138
Can the radar detect clear air turbulence?
No
139
When the radar is in ground map mode, low reflectivity targets such as ________ display as _________.
calm water; black
140
HSI ARC can display radar info. T/F
True
141
What is the function of the radar control panel CLTR feature?
Reduces intensity of ground returns while viewing weather displays ( reduces ground clutter)
142
Can the ATSU control you without a AFN?
NO
143
Which of the following is true regarding the use of the Radar CLTR function?
All of the above
- CLTR eliminates approximately 85% of the ground returns that clutter targets which appear in WX mode.
- CLTR should only be used to momentarily suppress ground targets. In CLTR stationary weather targets may be incorrectly identified as ground targets and eliminated from the screen.
- Continuous operation of CLTR can result in reduced intensity of some precipitation returns.
144
Who is responsible for initiating ADS position reports?
Nobody, they transmit automatically
145
Prior to (AFN) log in ensure ___________ is correct
mission ID is correct
146
Unless a lower setting is required for Vmcg/Vmca considerations, which N1 setting is recommended for critical takeoffs?
TRT/MCL N1 unless lower Vmcg/Vmca
147
Which types of FSAS message advises you of a critical takeoff situation?
CAUT- ( not NOGO or TO NOGO- those are generally advising you of invalid or missing data, though not always.)
148
If FMAC is unable to successfully calculate a takeoff solution _____________________________________ and the output displays continue to show dashes.
A TO NOGO message appears on line four of the first four takeoff pages
149
What does a CAUT message indicate when displayed other on the FSAS calculator or on the CDU in the jet? Can the takeoff be attempted?
The takeoff data has been computed, but a unique condition exists that requires your attention. Yes the takeoff can be attempted.
150
If Vrot increases, Vco increases an _______.
equal amount
151
Stopping distance is defined as.....
The flare distance plus the corrected landing ground roll distance (which may include DBF)
152
The loss shear climb out performance _______________________________________
will not provide charted obstacle clearance performance
153
If the autopilot disengages during a breakaway, __________________________________________.
maintain firm manual control of the aircraft since abrupt changes about all axes can occur
154
Use autopilot ALT HOLD and roll knob during air refueling. Do not use ___________________________.
HDG SEL, NAV LOC, or MACH HOLD
155
How is a Rendezvous Alpha (Anchor) established?
ATC vectors to create a rendezvous
156
Enroute formation is normally ____________________________ between airplanes.
in trail, stacked up at 500' intervals , 1 NM seperation
157
A rendezvous overrun is when ________________________________________________.
the receiver goes in front of the tanker during or before the tanker's turn onto the IP to CP line
158
Boom must inform the receiver if any axis of the autopilot ___________________.
will not be used during air refueling
159
Prior to actual accomplishment of a ________________ coordination between the tanker pilot, boom, and receiver pilot is ___________.
practice emergency separation; mandatory
160
The receiver will stabilize in _______________ and attain a zero rate of closure. ________________________, or it becomes apparent that a closure overrun will occur, _______________________________. Failure to do so can result in a midair collision.
the astern position; If the receiver fails to attain stabilized position; breakaway (closure overrun is an emergency) will be initiated.
161
The receiver stays __________ the tanker altitude until______________________________________________________.
1,000' below; this level off altitude will be maintained until the tanker and visual contact has been established.
162
When do you make the end of A/R request?
5 mins prior to the end of A/R
163
_____________________ is not safe
Close vertical proximity
164
Do not engage or disengage any axis of the autopilot when __________________________________
the receiver is in the contact position
165
Failure to close gravity feed lines can result in _________________.
an excessive CG condition
166
_______ is accomplished at the _______ (RVCT @ RVIP is only for enroute rendezvous)
ARCT; ARCP
167
When taking off, you should consider aborting (below S1) if windshear appears in __________ at the top of the MFD.
steady red
168
After ___ dry contacts you must __________ the boom.
5; wet down
169
When air refueling in level flight with the autopilot elevator (pitch) engaged, ________ should also be used.
ALT HOLD
170
The copilots first action during a breakaway is to _______________________________.
return the strobe lights to BOTH ON and NAV lights to BRIGHT
171
Indications of a condition that requires immediate application of recovery procedures are?
- A rapid decrease in airspeed below approach or climb out speed
(-A rapids decrease in climb rate during takeoff or go-around
- A rapids increase in sink rate during approach
- An increase in AOA indication approaching buffet/stall zone)
172
Low pressure draws aircraft together; __________________________________________________________.
the strength of that effect is inversely proportional to the distance between aircraft
173
The planned time the receiver and tanker arrive over the CP is?
The Control time
174
When is a tanker responsible for navigation for the receiver?
After rendezvous until the end of AR
175
Delayed braking factor is normally .8, what publication allows you to increase the DBF to .9 and who is allowed to authorize it?
2kc-135 V3; OG/CC or equivalent
176
Actions taken by tanker/receiver during breakaway is located in what publication?
ATP 3.3.4.2
177
What publication has fuel planning and conservation?
11-2kc-135
178
Which display displays predictive windshear?
MFD radar control display (HSI)
179
On takeoff, windshear is inhibited from?
100 knots ground speed to 50 AGL
180
If off speed more than 5 knots within 1 NM _____________________________.
Inform the receiver pilot before any power changes
181
What is prohibited when PMC is inop?
T&Gs, 3 eng practice approaches
182
What will disconnect the generator from the bus?
GCB
183
Outboard spoilers will be fully effective when outboard flaps are at ____
23 degrees
184
Losing an outboard engine before Vmcg and continuing takeoff will cause
Loss of directional control
185
The ELT is located
Aft of the left emergency hatch
186
What do dashes on the status page next to IFF mean?
Status of the system is unknown
