KC135 EP Closed Book (rev 22.0)_15 Mar 18

Question 1

There are four escape ropes: two are above the pilot’s seat, one above the copilots’ seat and one over the _______

Answer 1

Aft emergency exit hatch

Question 2

Fire fighter equipment containers are located in the control cabin _______ and in the cargo compartment ________

Answer 2

Above the main entrance hatch; aft of the emergency exit hatch

Question 3

Proper adjustment of the seat and the rudder pedals is especially critical for takeoff, approach and landing where _________ may be required for safe operation of the airplane

Answer 3

Full deflection of the control surfaces

Question 4

If a hot start, torch (tail pipe fire), hung start or sub-idle start stall condition occurs:

Answer 4

set the throttle to cutoff and continue to motor the engine

Question 5

Under all conditions, if the throttle is inadvertently retarded to CUTOFF position there will be an _________. Do not reopen the throttle. Introducing unburned fuel into the tailpipe area can create a ____ hazard.

Answer 5

Immediate flameout; fire

Question 6

If any engine does not reach the ______ setting between _____ and _____ kts, the takeoff shall be aborted

Answer 6

charted N1; 40; 80

Question 7

For dry runway conditions, the most effective nose wheel steering occurs at about ____ to ____ degrees of steering wheel turn

Answer 7

12; 15

Question 8

During ground run (3pt attitude), do not allow the airplane to bank beyond ___ degrees due to the possibility of dragging a nacelle

Answer 8

4

Question 9

Rotation should never be initiated prior to rotate speed. It is highly advantageous to _______ and ________

Answer 9

delay rotation when runway and obstacle clearance permit

Question 10

Premature retraction of the landing gear with its momentary drag increase could cause the airplane to ________ unless adequate climb margin has been established.

Answer 10

settle

Question 11

External power must be turned off at the external power cart __________

Answer 11

before plug is removed from the airplane’s external power receptacle

Question 12

The over wing hatches are opened from the interior by grasping a fixed handle on the upper center of the hatch and pulling _______ on the lock handle on the right side

Answer 12

downward

Question 13

The hatch (located forward of boom operator compartment) is opened from the interior by grasping the fixed handle near the upper center and ______ a lock handle near it.

Answer 13

rotating

Question 14

The emergency signal to prepare to abandon the airplane on the ground is _________ of the alarm bell

Answer 14

three short rings

Question 15

The emergency signal to abandon the airplane on the ground is _______ of the alarm bell

Answer 15

one long sustained ring

Question 16

The BOLDFACE for ABORT:

Answer 16

Throttles - Idle (P,CP)
Brakes - Apply (P,CP)
Speed Brakes - 60 Degrees (P,CP)

Question 17

Whenever excessive braking has been used during an abort, consider _________

Answer 17

abandoning the airplane

Question 18

If during an abort, a safe stop appears improbable, retard the throttles to _____

Answer 18

Cutoff

Question 19

If collision with an obstruction is probable during an abort, a _______ should be attempted, terrain permitting, or attempt to ______

Answer 19

ground loop; retract the landing gear

Question 20

With a large number of passengers on board, deployment of the emergency escape slide will be necessary. However, do not deploy the escape slide if ______ or other conditions would be detrimental to safe deployment

Answer 20

excessive wind

Question 21

The only indication to the pilots of an APU fire is illumination of the _______ fire light.

Answer 21

APU

Question 22

Automatic stopping of the APU may indicate _____________

Answer 22

a fire or an overheat condition within the unit

Question 23

(APU Fire) If fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned and ensure the _______ is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to _______. Shut down the APU by setting APU control switch to _____ and/or trip external power. Turn off ________ switches and ________ switch before leaving the airplane.

Answer 23

Parking brake; cutoff; stop; engine starter; battery power

Question 24

If the emergency dictates, and the APU has not shut down automatically, the APU may be shut down by using the _________________

Answer 24

normal procedure

Question 25

Do not reset any of the 115/200v AC fuel ___________ circuit breakers, if they are open, until proper inspections and repairs have been made

Answer 25

boost pump or override pump

Question 26

The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following considerations: a. If any emergency or _________ occurs prior to S1, ______ the takeoff. b. If an emergency occurs after S1 is reached, the takeoff is ________

Answer 26

loss of thrust; abort; committed

Question 27

The takeoff will not be aborted after _____ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the airplane __________ (loss of thrust exceeds the equivalent of loss of one engine).

Answer 27

S1; incapable of flight

Question 28

In those cases where the pilot attempts to abort after S1, be aware that the airplane will probably ______ within the confines of the runway when S1 is at or near refusal speed

Answer 28

fail to stop

Question 29

The BOLDFACE for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND (Nacelle Fire) is:

Answer 29

THROTTLE - CUT-OFF (P,CP)
FIRE SWITCH - PULL (P,CP)
EXTINGUISHER SWITCH - PRESS, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)

Question 30

A nacelle fire is indicated by a _________, _________, or by a ____________ crew observation

Answer 30

Fire warning light; compartment overheat light; ground

Question 31

(Engine Fire on Ground) If the fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned. Ensure the parking brake is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to ____. Shutdown APU by setting APU control switches to _____ and/or tripping external power. Turn off the engine starter switches and _______ before leaving the airplane.

Answer 31

Cutoff; stop; Battery power switch

Question 32

Do not reengage the starter until below _______ rpm. ______ can occur if reengaged above _______ rpm

Answer 32

25% N2; Starter damage; 25% N2

Question 33

(Manual Start) If N2 rotation does not occur within 2-3 seconds of opening the bleed valve, ________immediately

Answer 33

close the engine bleed valve

Question 34

Use extreme caution during taxi operations if nose gear steering is inoperative. The airplane should only be taxied ________

Answer 34

as necessary to clear the active runway

Question 35

After a high energy refused takeoff or braked landing, the peak temperatures are reached in the brake housing approximately _____ min after braking

Answer 35

30

Question 36

Snow and ice accumulation in any significant degree must be removed from the airplane prior to flight. Snow or ice accumulation can increase ______ and adversely affect climb out performance, stalling speed, and handling characteristics. Inflight _______ can result from vibrations induced by unremoved accumulations.

Answer 36

takeoff distances; structural damage

Question 37

Ice, frost or snow on top of de-icing or anti-icing fluids _____________

Answer 37

must be considered as adhering to the airplane; takeoff should not be attempted

Question 38

Do not attempt takeoff when slush and water puddles on the runway exceed _______ in depth. When slush or puddles are less then ______ in depth, takeoff distances may increase up to ______

Answer 38

1/2 inch; 1/2 inch; 25%

Question 39

Adjust the seat and rudder pedals so that the knee can be ______ at full pedal travel with allowance for compression of clothing and seat back cushion.

Answer 39

Locked

Question 40

If the flight director command bars fail during or immediately after takeoff, climb out at recommended ______ climbout airspeed (3 engines) or recommended three engine climb out airspeed plus _____ knots (4 engines) with the takeoff flap setting.

Answer 40

three engine; 10

Question 41

A bank angle of 30 degrees at climb out speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability as much as _______fpm

Answer 41

400

Question 42

If an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climb out speed, on a max mode takeoff, continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of _________

Answer 42

engine failure

Question 43

Any unusual rolling moment encountered during flap operation could indicate an _________ main or fillet flap condition for which corrective action must be taken immediately

Answer 43

asymmetrical

Question 44

The alarm bell signal to prepare for ditching or crash landing is ______

Answer 44

six short rings

Question 45

The alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing is ______

Answer 45

one long sustained ring

Question 46

The alarm bell signal for ______ or ________ immediately after takeoff is one long sustained ring

Answer 46

Ditching; Crash landing

Question 47

When an airborne emergency occurs, the following rules apply:

Answer 47

Fly the airplane; Stop, think, collect your wits

Question 48

The BOLDFACE for CRASH LANDING OR DITCHING IMMEDIATELY AFTER TAKEOFF is:

Answer 48

FLAPS - 50 DEGREES (P,CP)
GEAR - DOWN, UNLESS OVER WATER (P,CP)
THROTTLES - CUT-OFF AFTER TOUCHDOWN (P,CP)

Question 49

The copilot gives the “brace for crash landing” warning over the ______ position of the interphone and one long ring on the alarm bell at the direction of the pilot.

Answer 49

call

Question 50

(Crash Landing) Crewmembers unsnap parachute harnesses, tighten shoulder harness and safety belts and _____________

Answer 50

lock inertial reels

Question 51

Pilot maintains the ______ approach speed and lands straight ahead, changing directions only enough to miss obstacles. Make contact with the ground in the normal __________

Answer 51

appropriate; landing attitude

Question 52

(Crash Landing) Extension of the gear for impact is considered beneficial from the stand point of lessening the severity of impact, but not to the extent that an excessive _________ or uncontrollable situation is created. Delay extension If necessary to _________. Prudent judgment must be exercised in determining action to be taken.

Answer 52

rate of descent; clear obstructions

Question 53

The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertial reel is locked. Therefore all switches not readily accessible should be ________ prior to locking the shoulder harness.

Answer 53

set as desired

Question 54

(Crash Landing) Do not cut the engines prior to ______. This would result in a loss, after a few seconds, of all _________ and all _________ except that still remaining in the accumulators. Loss of hydraulic power will cause the spoilers to blow down after only a few seconds of operation on accumulator pressure. Electrical control of the stabilizer trim will be lost, leaving only manual trim.

Answer 54

touchdown; primary electrical power; hydraulic pressure

Question 55

A complete separation of the nose radome from the aircraft will result in inaccurate indications of _______, _______, ________, and __________

Answer 55

airspeed; Mach no.; altitude; vertical velocity

Question 56

With _______ inoperative, VMCG can increase by as much as ______kts

Answer 56

EFAS; 25

Question 57

While still on the rwy, do not advance the throttle on the asymmetric engine beyond the ________ since added thrust can cause loss of control.

Answer 57

T/O setting

Question 58

Be ____________ for engine failure

Answer 58

mentally prepared

Question 59

Airspeed indicator errors exist during sideslip. An actual airspeed _________ kts lower than indicated will exist at ______ degrees of sideslip

Answer 59

7; 10

Question 60

During rotation to takeoff attitude, do not allow the airplane to bank beyond _____ degrees due to the possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.

Answer 60

8

Question 61

Failure of an outboard engine necessitates _______ pilot response to prevent deviations from the takeoff path

Answer 61

immediate

Question 62

On wet and icy runways, even with optimum technique, deviations up to ____ ft. from the takeoff path can be expected.

Answer 62

30

Question 63

Charted ground min control speeds for a dry runway are based on the immediate use of _____ and corresponding _______

Answer 63

rudder; NWS

Question 64

During actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ______ degrees until as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached.

Answer 64

15

Question 65

If a catastrophic engine failure occurs accompanied by a fire, take prompt action to pull fire switch and discharge extinguishing agent. Failure to accomplish these actions promptly can result in loss of _______ controls due to burned electrical wiring bundle

Answer 65

Fire Switch

Question 66

Throttle reduction in response to a failed engine/engine flameout during takeoff or initial climb out after takeoff should not be made prior to ______________

Answer 66

landing gear retraction

Question 67

Takeoff should not be attempted if the oil pressure is more than ______ psi. Bearing failure die to plugged oil jets can result

Answer 67

92

Question 68

If the flap indicators or visual inspection reflect an asymmetric main flap condition and a rolling moment is present, the flap lever should be set to the ____________

Answer 68

Asymmetric flap position indication

Question 69

If all means of flap synchronization fail and conditions permit, institute ________(if required) and land as soon as possible.

Answer 69

fuel dumping

Question 70

When the main flaps are retracted and one or both leading edge flaps remain extended, the airplane should be flown with caution at load factors in excess of 1.5 g’s in the speed range between ____ and _____ kts.

Answer 70

215;305

Question 71

Do not operate the forward A/R pumps and the ________ simultaneously. Slow operation of the ______ with reduced climb performance will result.

Answer 71

Landing gear; gear

Question 72

Do not operate the aft A/R pumps and the ______ simultaneously. Slow operation of the powered rudder with reduced rudder effectiveness will result.

Answer 72

wing flaps

Question 73

If the leading edge flaps fail to retract when the outboard flaps are raised above the 6 deg position and the outboard spoiler switch is in NORMAL, you should ___________

Answer 73

place the outboard spoiler to CUT-OFF

Question 74

If a stabilizer trim runaway occurs at or below S1, simultaneously, the pilot flying will ______ and the pilot monitoring will ____________

Answer 74

abort the takeoff; set the stabilizer trim cutout switch to CUTOUT

Question 75

For nose up trim, set the inboard spoiler switch to CUTOFF and raise the speed brakes. This configuration provides approx. ______ of equivalent trim in takeoff configuration

Answer 75

2-3 units

Question 76

If there is a disparity between airspeed indicators, the ____________ may be used to determine which indicators are most accurate

Answer 76

speed deviation indicators

Question 77

To determine which airspeed indicator is most accurate, the aircraft should be flown with wings level so that the speed deviation pointer indicates _______ (0.6 AOA) and the airspeed reading at 0.6 AOA should compare with the corresponding airspeed, for the aircraft weight and configuration obtained from the 1-1.

Answer 77

“On speed”

Question 78

If during a climb all airspeed indicators are determined to be inaccurate, continue max climb thrust and maintain ____ deg of pitch on the ADI for gross weights up to 225K. Maintain ____ deg pitch for gross weights greater than 225K.

Answer 78

8; 6

Question 79

Opening of the cargo door during or after takeoff will be noted by illumination of the _________ and will probably cause ________ airplane _______.

Answer 79

Door Warning Light; severe; buffeting

Question 80

(Cargo door opening after Takeoff) If conditions permit, maintain a flap setting of ______deg, this will retain the use of outboard ailerons for roll control

Answer 80

20 deg

Question 81

If the airplane fails to pressurize, ensure the cabin test valve handle is in the ______ position.

Answer 81

Normal

Question 82

During operation at low gross weight, and particularly at low ambient temperature, the airplane accelerates very rapidly; therefore, care should be taken to not exceed the ______ during flap retraction

Answer 82

flap placard speeds

Question 83

Since low outside air temperature causes a considerable increase in thrust, the ________________ limitations may be reached with somewhat lower throttle settings.

Answer 83

airplane operating

Question 84

Pilots shall be prepared to immediately disengage the autopilot, should any unscheduled ________ be evident. An autopilot lateral malfunction can result in bank angles of _____ deg within ____ sec even though recovery is started approximately ____ sec after the malfunction occurs. A pitch up malfunction could cause a stall within ___ seconds and is therefor considered the most serious autopilot malfunction.

Answer 84

control movement; 55; 5; 3; 3

Question 85

When the receiver is in or near the contact position, the pilot should consider initiating a ______ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction, including an inadvertent autopilot disconnect if accompanied by out of trim forces

Answer 85

breakaway

Question 86

Do not operate the alternate pressurization system and/or cargo compartment temp control in ______ for an extended period of time

Answer 86

full INCREASE or MANUAL-WARMER (full hot) mode

Question 87

Main tank boost pumps should not be run dry. If boost pumps operate dry for a period exceeding ____min, damage to the pump may result.

Answer 87

2

Question 88

If center wing tank override pumps operate dry for a period exceeding ____ min, damage to the pumps may result.

Answer 88

5

Question 89

Emergency exit hatches should not be removed unless absolutely necessary. Reduce airspeed as low as practical, preferably below ________, before opening either of the over wing hatches or the aft emergency hatch. If both the over wing hatches and the emergency aft hatch are to be opened, the aft emergency hatch should be opened _____ to minimize the forces acting to push the hatch inward. All hatches may be expected to open with considerable inward force if the crew entry door has been jettisoned and the emergency exit spoiler extended.

Answer 89

150kts; first

Question 90

When checking, removing, or re-installing hatches in flight, the crewmembers must ensure that a _________, life preserver and seat kit (if available) are on and properly adjusted prior to accomplishing this task.

Answer 90

parachute or restraint harness with a safety strap (if installed), helmet (if available)

Question 91

Ditching should always be accomplished with the landing gear ________

Answer 91

retracted

Question 92

(Ditching Operations) Hold the wings level. With wind speed in excess of 30 kts and sea conditions greater than 20ft, it is recommended that ditching be made into the _____. Wind speeds in excess of 30kts are generally indicated by extensive _______ and blowing spray.

Answer 92

wind; white caps

Question 93

Under no circumstances should the airplane be ______. The resulting ________ and leaks would greatly reduce the safety of the ditching operation.

Answer 93

stalled in; structural damage

Question 94

Night ditching must be conducted with the aid of _______ to establish the proper attitude of the airplane. Hold the wings level to avoid dragging a wing into the sea and cartwheeling the airplane.

Answer 94

instruments

Question 95

Because of the lack of outside references over water, it will be difficult to determine when to start the flare. This is especially true at night. The flare should be accomplished so as to level off approximately _____ft. above the crest of the swell. Slowly retard the throttles and permit water contact in a slightly higher than normal attitude. Contact the water at a low rate of sink and slow, controllable forward speed.

Answer 95

10

Question 96

When a complete thrust loss is experienced, flap extension should be initiated with sufficient altitude to allow for the increased flap extension time with wind milling engines. For example at an approach speed of 160kts, it take approx. _____sec or flaps to reach 20 deg with the engines wind milling.

Answer 96

65

Question 97

Removal of emergency exit hatches in preparation for possible crash landing or ditching is _______

Answer 97

not recommended

Question 98

(Ditching) Extra crewmembers or passengers will occupy the passenger seats or the _______

Answer 98

troop seats

Question 99

Do not inflate life rafts in the _______. They will not pass through the exits when inflated

Answer 99

Airplane

Question 100

During ditching, it is recommended that personnel not be positioned aft of the right aft ________ since extensive fuselage damage including fuselage separation may occur in the area aft of that point

Answer 100

escape hatch

Question 101

(Ditching) The ___________ may be used in determining absolute altitude below 2500ft

Answer 101

radio altimeter

Question 102

Inflight installation of the emergency hatches is not normally ___________. Should it become absolutely necessary to install them, _______ crewmembers are required.

Answer 102

recommended; 2

Question 103

Installation of the emergency hatches becomes extremely dangerous above _______kts.

Answer 103

150kts

Question 104

________, do not engage or disengage the autopilot (including altitude hold) while the receiver is in the contact position, as unscheduled attitude changes can occur about all axes

Answer 104

Except in an emergency

Question 105

Portable ________ may have to be used by crewmembers engaged in fire fighting procedures

Answer 105

O2 bottles

Question 106

_____ or ______ will inform the crew “fuselage fire” on CALL position of the interphone

Answer 106

Pilot or Copilot

Question 107

All fires will create toxic combustion products. Adequate respiratory and eye protection should be sought as soon as the primary fire emergency will permit. Breathing __________ will provide respiratory protection.

Answer 107

100% O2

Question 108

(Fuselage Fire) If passengers are aboard and __________ is a problem, consideration should be given to initiating an ___________

Answer 108

O2 Duration; Emergency Descent

Question 109

If the fire becomes uncontrollable, the pilot should ________ immediately

Answer 109

land

Question 110

The _________ hand held fire extinguished should be held upright to fight the fire

Answer 110

Halon 1211

Question 111

(Fuselage Fire) Boom operator and or navigator shall institute firefighting procedures. One crewmember shall keep the ______ informed of the fire condition until it is extinguished or determined to be uncontrollable.

Answer 111

Pilot

Question 112

If a rapid decompression occurs, the pilot will immediately direct the crew to go on _______, initiate a ________ and try to determine the cause of the trouble

Answer 112

100% O2; Descent

Question 113

Never allow the speed (during a controllability check) to decrease to the point at which __________ deflection is required about any axis since there may be no recovery capability beyond this point

Answer 113

full control

Question 114

A controllability check is conducted to determine the min safe _________ to maintain during approach and landing following inflight structural damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed readings. Ordinarily, the check should be conducted in the landing configuration at approx. _______ft. AGL.

Answer 114

airspeed; 10,000ft

Question 115

Large amplitude Dutch roll oscillations coupled with improper control inputs can cause ____________ due to excessive roll rates.

Answer 115

engine separation

Question 116

To prevent further damage to the boom in case of a retraction mechanism failure, the receiver pilot will not under any circumstances _____________

Answer 116

try and push the boom in.

Question 117

(Autopilot Trim Malfunction) If the electrical stabilizer trim does not operate normally, check the operation of the ______________

Answer 117

manual trim wheel

Question 118

The sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections due to improper rudder application or abrupt release, ___________________

Answer 118

can result in overstressing the vertical fin

Question 119

Compliance with an RA is required unless in the opinion of the AC, ____________

Answer 119

so doing would compromise safe operation of the airplane

Question 120

If the emergency requires shutting down the electrical system, set the __________ to their desired positions before shutdown

Answer 120

fuel valves

Question 121

If the IDG fails to disconnect (DISC caution light is out but tests good, with CB in), the affected engine will be shut down using the _______________ checklist

Answer 121

Engine Fire/Failure During Flight

Question 122

Tripping the GCB switch with the corresponding BTB CIRCUIT Open light on causes loss of power to the generator bus until the ________

Answer 122

BTB is closed

Question 123

If a circuit breaker trips open ______ times, do not attempt any further use of the affected equipment.

Answer 123

3

Question 124

Prior to checking or changing fuse(s), _______________, then open the applicable CB’s

Answer 124

turn off affected equipment

Question 125

An engine air start after an emergency shutdown should not be attempted unless it is ascertained that it is reasonably ________________. A recurrence of the emergency could be more serious than the first occurrence. If an engine air start is attempted and not completed, observe a ______ sec waiting period (if possible) before attempting subsequent starts. This is to allow fuel drainage from the rear nacelle thus preventing a possible nacelle fire.

Answer 125

safe to do so; 30 sec

Question 126

Unless the engine is urgently needed, do not attempt an air start until it can be positively determined that the flameout was not caused by a ruptured _______ or similar circumstance which might result in a fire. Do not attempt air starts without starter assist if the N2 is below ______. If an air start, without starter assist, is attempted under marginal windmill air start conditions (N2 below 15%), ___________ can occur.

Answer 126

fuel line; 15%; a hung start or hot start

Question 127

Engine failure in flight may be indicated either from the associated _______, ________ lateral control requirements to keep wings level, or ___________

Answer 127

yaw; excessive; engine instruments

Question 128

After an engine failure, the rudder may be trimmed without _________ the autopilot or yaw damper.

Answer 128

disengaging

Question 129

When the landing gear and flaps have been retracted and a safe altitude has been reached, retard the throttle for the engine on fire to IDLE. Regardless of the duration of the light, place the throttle __________when thrust requirements permit. The source of the heat can cause _______________to the engine or its accessories even though the temperature has been reduced sufficiently for the light to go out.

Answer 129

to cutoff; additional damage

Question 130

If the engine seizes (0% N2) or if the fire warning light remains on, the copilot will pull the ________ upon direction of the pilot. The engine should be visually checked for evidence of fire. While a crew member is scanning the engine from the cargo compartment, maintain _______ with the pilot.

Answer 130

fire switch; liaison

Question 131

The BOLDFACE for ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT is:

Answer 131

THROTTLE - CUT-OFF, UNLESS NEEDED (P,CP)
FIRE SWITCH - PULL, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)
EXTINGUISHER SWITCH - PRESS, IF REQUIRED (P,CP)

Question 132

If the engine fire cannot be controlled, immediately increase airspeed to the max allowable indicated airspeed or mach number and initiate a________________ if conditions permit. Descending allows increased acceleration to max speed with resultant decrease in ________. This helps keep the fire away from the wing until the fire is extinguished or controlled.

Answer 132

shallow descent; AOA

Question 133

If the fire appears to be burning into the wing, ____________

Answer 133

Abandon the airplane or land as soon as possible

Question 134

Check to see if the generator breaker ___________ caution light comes on after engine shutdown. In any case trip the __________ to disengage the exciter field of the IDG

Answer 134

circuit open; gen breaker switch

Question 135

If the oil pressure gauge reads or fluctuates below _____psi, immediately _______ using the Engine Fire/Failure During Flight Checklist, unless thrust is necessary to maintain flight.

Answer 135

11; shut down the engine

Question 136

A good possibility exists that bearing failure can occur as quickly as _____sec after oil starvation is experienced.

Answer 136

30sec

Question 137

If an airplane nose down stabilizer trim malfunction is encountered during approach, a ______________

Answer 137

Go-Around should be immediately initiated

Question 138

For nose up trim, set the _______ switch to CUT-OFF and raise the speed brakes

Answer 138

Inboard Spoiler

Question 139

The BOLDFACE for UNCOMMANDED RUDDER, YAW, OR ROLL is:

Answer 139

RUDDER POWER - OFF (P,CP)

Question 140

(Runaway Stabilizer Trim During Takeoff) If above S1, the _____ will set the stab trim cutout switch to ________

Answer 140

Pilot Monitoring; CUTOUT

Question 141

When the rudder power switch is turned off, check rudder pressure ____________ and observe _______.

Answer 141

drops to 0-200 psi; rudder pedal action

Question 142

If inadvertent or incorrect stabilizer trimming occurs during flight, the runaway is most apt to be caused by an electrical malfunction and can best be stopped by setting the tab trim cutout switch to CUTOUT. If the trim wheel continues to rotate after the stab trim switch is set to CUTOUT, the aircrew should _______________________

Answer 142

attempt to grab and hold the manual trim wheel to stop stabilizer movement.

Question 143

A creeping stabilizer is a stabilizer that does not remain in a ________ and may be caused by partial loss of the stabilizer jackscrew braking. Trim position should be monitored at all times and the _________ should be held as required to maintain trim position. Under this condition, the airplane should be ________ as soon as practicable

Answer 143

stabilized trimmed position; trim wheel; landed

Question 144

To ____________________, any repositioning of the crossover valve should be done smoothly and rapidly

Answer 144

prevent possible pressurization and resultant rupture of return lines

Question 145

A broken and/or jammed drive chain in the forward stabilizer trim mechanism can prevent __________ or ________________ trimming

Answer 145

electrical; manual

Question 146

indications of possible fuel leakage include:

Answer 146

a. Excessive FUEL FLOWMETER reading
b. inadequete FUEL FLOWMETER reading
c. fuel LOW PRESSURE warning indication
d. FUEL QTY INDICATION rapidly decreasing
e. fuel line leak in STRUT OR NACELLE area
f. body tank FUEL QTY INDICATION increasing

Question 147

Discontinue emergency tank emptying procedure before the fuel quantity indication reaches the ____ marking on the fuel quantity gauge.

Answer 147

0

Question 148

Since the possibility exists that a main tank leak is caused by a skin crack rather than fuel line failure, it is mandatory to ______________ to reduce the possibility of further structural failure

Answer 148

reduce airspeed and restrict flap operation

Question 149

To prevent excessive fuel pressure surges at completion of fuel dumping, set the ______ pump switches to ______ prior to setting the fuel dump switches to OFF

Answer 149

A/R; Off

Question 150

If a hydraulic system fails completely or an uncontrollable leak occurs, the airplane should be _______________

Answer 150

landed as soon as practicable

Question 151

Given: the number four hydraulic pump inoperative light comes on with no indications of fluid loss and remains on after the right hydraulic system is depressurized and repressurized. Set the _________ pump supply switch to closed.

Answer 151

4

Question 152

Given: the number three hydraulic pump inoperative light comes on with loss of fluid. Immediately move the number three _____________ to closed.

Answer 152

pump supply switch

Question 153

Given: a loss of hydraulic quantity with no other indications. Immediately _______ the affected system.

Answer 153

depressurize

Question 154

Given: Loss of quantity in the right system with no other indications. Depressurizing the right hydraulic system does not stop the fluid leak. The next step is to close the __________ for the ______ pump.

Answer 154

supply switch; inboard

Question 155

Given: A loss of quantity in the left hydraulic system with no other indications. You have followed the procedure through closing the supply switch for the outboard pump, but there is still a fluid loss. You would now try to isolate the leak by placing __________ to cutoff.

Answer 155

inboard spoiler switch

Question 156

Given: Loss of fluid in the right hydraulic system with no other indications, immediately ______ the ________ system.

Answer 156

depressurize; Right

Question 157

Given: the right hydraulic system pressure gauge indicates a sustained pressure of 3,550 psi with no indication of fluid loss or overheat. Immediately __________ the ______ system.

Answer 157

depressurize; right

Question 158

Given: the left hydraulic pressure gauge indicates 1,800 psi with no other indications. You have determined that the accumulator preload is low and have repressurized the system. To check the actual system pressure, read the ____________ gauge by cycling the pilot’s brakes

Answer 158

reserve brake

Question 159

It is safe to use the crossover valve after loss of fluid from either hydraulic system, provided pressure can be ________ and ________ in the affected system with the appropriate hydraulic pressure and aux pump switches on. When the LH system is affected, set the inboard spoiler switch to cut-off. When the RH system is affected set the CIPS generator switch to EMER and turn the rudder power switch to OFF

Answer 159

built up; maintained

Question 160

If the source of the leakage in the system cannot be determined, the hydraulic fluid quantity gauge for the affected system should be monitored during and after actuation of the crossover valve lever. If a fluid loss of the unaffected system is observed, return the _______ to _________

Answer 160

lever; normal

Question 161

Application of hydraulic pressure to the main gear during manual extension may result in ___________

Answer 161

injury to operator

Question 162

Failure to close the engine bleed valves on the ___________ side of the manifold could cause damage to the airplane wing components due to escaping bleed air

Answer 162

malfunctioning

Question 163

Too rapid rotation of the cabin manual pressure knob toward the _________ position during repressurization can cause a pressurization jolt that can be harmful or uncomfortable to the ears of all persons aboard.

Answer 163

increase/off

Question 164

The max speed for emergency gear extension, retraction, or gear down is _______________

Answer 164

the same as clean configuration

Question 165

During the recovery from a high speed unusual attitude, if the landing gear is lowered, a ___________ condition results. If the pilot is already applying a positive load factor by trying to pull out of a dive, the additional pitch up caused by the gear lowering may be enough to exceed _______

Answer 165

pitch up; acceleration limits

Question 166

(Unplanned Penetration of Severe Turbulence) Establish an airspeed of approx. _____ or cruise Mach _____ to _____ whichever is lower. Maintain wings level and smoothly control pitch attitude. After establishing the trim setting for penetration speed, do not change the stab trim setting. Change ______ only in cases of extreme _____ variation. Do not chase _______, and _______ the autopilot. Yaw damper will be _____. Do not lower the _____ or flaps.

Answer 166

280 KIAS; .77;.80; thrust; airspeed; Altitude; disengage; on; landing gear

Question 167

Complete loss of airspeed indications will generally occur by the time that approximately _______ of ice has accumulated on the nose of the fuselage. Every effort should be made to change altitude or course to get out of the icing conditions before a layer of ice ______ has accumulated.

Answer 167

2 inches; 2 inches thick

Question 168

Static port icing will affect all pitot and static instruments, while pitot tube icing will only affect ______, ______, _______ and the AAU-19A altimeter (servo mode only).

Answer 168

IAS; TAS; Mach no.

Question 169

If Q-inlet icing occurs during rudder power on operation, rudder pedal feel forces are reduced for all rudder deflections and may result in a tendency to ____________

Answer 169

overcontrol

Question 170

The BOLDFACE for SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION (ELECT FIR ISOLATION/BLEED AIR SYSTEM ISOLATION) is:

Answer 170

OXYGEN - ON/100% (ALL)

Question 171

During an EGPWS warning (aural PULL UP is heard) do not change ________ or _______ until the airplane is out of the warning condition and stabilized.

Answer 171

wing flap; landing gear configuration

Question 172

Weather conditions are a primary consideration, and selection of a landing field should be made before ______.

Answer 172

reducing gross weight beyond diversion capability

Question 173

Assess condition of aircraft equipment (electrics, hydraulics, and flight controls) which may be affected by engines out. Two engines out on the same wing always means ______ and _______ should be considered.

Answer 173

one hydraulic system will not have normal pressure; crossover

Question 174

Use care not to ________, since doing so may invalidate Vmca.

Answer 174

exceed asymmetric or outboard Go-Around N1 power

Question 175

When landing with inop engines, using symmetric throttles will minimize _______.

Answer 175

the requirement for rudder directional control, thrust changes, and trim changes

Question 176

With an outboard engine inop, Vmca is less than or equal to _____.

Answer 176

VTD

Question 177

With 2 engines inop on the same wing, Vmca is less than or equal to _____.

Answer 177

Vapp

Question 178

With an inboard engine inop, the aircraft is easily controlled with rudder while all other engines are operating _________.

Answer 178

at the full symmetric engine Go-Around N1 power settings

Question 179

With 1 engine inop (rudder power operative or inop) or 2 engines inop on the same wing (rudder power operative or inop), remove ______ prior to landing

Answer 179

rudder trim

Question 180

With 1 eng inop (rudder power operative or inop) or 2 engines inop on the same wing (rudder power operative or inop), time permitting, recommend reducing gross weight to that which achieves the CRN (climb gradient) of ______.

Answer 180

2.8% or greater

Question 181

When flying the Final Approach Segment with 2 engines inop on the same wing, ________ weather conditions are preferred.

Answer 181

VMC

Question 182

Inflight min control speed (Vmca) is defined as the min airborne speed at which engine failure(s) can occur with the remaining engines ______ and ______ maintained using _____ rudder and: 1–not more than ______ bank when one outboard engine fails (rudder boost on or off) or when two engines fail on one wing (rudder boost on); 2–not more than _______ bank when two engines fail on one wing (rudder boost off).

Answer 182

at the appropriate go-around thrust setting; a straight path; maximum available; 5 degrees of; 8 degrees of

Question 183

When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, immediately advance ______ to the ______ power setting.

Answer 183

symmetric engines; symmetric Go-Around N1

Question 184

When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, after advancing the symmetric engines, apply ______ thrust as required, coordinated with rudder, not to exceed ________ for the outboard engine.

Answer 184

asymmetric; the asymmetric Go-Around N1 power setting

Question 185

When executing a go-around with 1 inboard engine inop, ________ power may be used ______.

Answer 185

symmetric Go-Around N1; on all operating engines

Question 186

When executing a go-around with 1 engine inop, _______ as airspeed is increased above VTD, not to exceed symmetric N1 power setting.

Answer 186

additional asymmetric power may be used

Question 187

When executing a go-around with 2 engines inop on the same side, rudder power inop, if full rudder deflection is required, the _____ should be in the full vertical position, or the pilot will ______ when heavy rudder pressure is applied.

Answer 187

seat back; slide up the seat back

Question 188

(For 2 engine operation) If thrust settings do not exceed the charted go-around N1 settings, Vmca will be less than or equal to _______.

Answer 188

Approach Speed

Question 189

The _____ to go-around is extremely important with 2 engines inop due to the controllability-induced thrust limitations and increased yawing moment. The _____ should be moved forward slowly until the pilot determines his capabilities for handling such an emergency.

Answer 189

early decision; outboard throttle

Question 190

(Jammed Stabilizer) When landing with a differential flap configuration, use the pattern, approach, and ___________ speeds for the min flap setting. If the leading edge flaps are not extended add _____kts to approach and threshold speeds. If the min flap setting is zero, approach and threshold speeds should not be increased as this correction is included in the chart.

Answer 190

threshold; 6

Question 191

When landing with less than 20 flap, approach and threshold speeds will not be less than the approach and threshold speeds associated with the _______ degree flap setting. The airplane should be flown and flared in a normal manner.

Answer 191

zero

Question 192

If lower approach and threshold speeds are used (landing with less than 20 flap), airplane attitude becomes abnormally nose high and the ________ might contact the runway

Answer 192

tail section

Question 193

(Landing with partial aileron control) A minimum approach and threshold speed of _____kts should be maintained to assure an available roll rate of at least 10 deg per second from the remaining aileron control

Answer 193

150

Question 194

If rudder hydraulic pressure is less than high range (2800 psi min), an undeterminable malfunction has occurred which would cause _______.

Answer 194

complete loss of rudder hydraulic pressure

Question 195

If leading edge flaps fail to extend, add 6 kts to the ________speeds

Answer 195

approach and threshold

Question 196

(Leading edge flaps fail to extend) Check the right system hydraulic fluid quantity gauge. If a fluid leak is indicated as the cause of the malfunction, set ________ spoiler switch to cutoff.

Answer 196

outboard

Question 197

When landing with only manual control of the flaps, it is necessary to start lowering the flaps well before the final approach is reached. Stopping distance, go around capability, and _____________ involved should be considered in determining the degrees of flaps to lower.

Answer 197

Time element

Question 198

With all spoilers inoperative, extend the main flaps, if possible to at least 23 degrees to assure full outboard _________ at speeds below 220 kts

Answer 198

Ailerons

Question 199

If an ______________ tire is determined to be flat and the airplane gross weight is above 250K avoid turns away from that tire if possible

Answer 199

aft outboard

Question 200

(Landing with gear failure) Landing with as much of the gear extended as possible provides the max protection for personnel and for ______________

Answer 200

airplane structure

Question 201

(Landing with gear failure) All ____________ should be dumped prior to landing

Answer 201

excess fuel

Question 202

(Prep for Gear Up Landing, All Configurations) Before jettisoning, __________ flaps and reduce airspeed to ______________speed.

Answer 202

lower full; slowest practical

Question 203

((Landing with Nose Gear Retracted) Both Main Gear Extended and [also landing] with Main Gear Extended, One Main Gear and Nose Gear Retracted)) When landing is accomplished with the right hydraulic system depressurized or inoperative, withhold speed brake actuation. The airplane will pitch ________ with only _________ spoilers raised.

Answer 203

down; inboard

Question 204

Do not _____________ during recovery from inadvertent windshear encounters.

Answer 204

follow command bars

Question 205

If moderate icing conditions are penetrated do not retract the flaps to less than ______ unless absolutely necessary. Ice formations of the flap leading edge will cause flap damage when flaps are retracted.

Answer 205

20 degrees