Key Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Trophoblast become in the week of 2s?

A

Syncitiotrophoblast, Cytotrophoblast

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2
Q

What does the embryoblast becomes?

A

Hypoblast and epiblast

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3
Q

What does the hypoblast form?

A

Yolk sac and chorionic cavity

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4
Q

What week does gastrulation occur in?

A

Week 3

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5
Q

What week does neurulation occur in?

A

Week 4

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6
Q

What does the epiblast form?

A

Ecto, Meso, Endoderms

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7
Q

Describe the layout of the testes

A

Seminiferous tubules lead to epididymis via rete testis, which leads to vas deferens
Surrounded by tunica vaginalis, which has a viseral and parietal pleura

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8
Q

What happens in the Seminiferous tubules?

A

Spermatogenesis

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9
Q

How should you test if a testicular lump is a hydrocoele?

A

Water fills the tunica vaginalis

Transilluminates

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10
Q

What is the role of Sertoli cells?

A

Spermatogenesis support

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11
Q

What is the role of Leydig cells?

A

Produce testosterone

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12
Q

Where does the testicular artery come from?

A

Branch of Internal Iliac from Common Iliac

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13
Q

Where does the testicular vein drain into?

A
Renal vein (left)
IVC (right)
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14
Q

What do the testicular arteries and veins form?

A

Pampiniform plexus - allows for counter-current exchange for temperature purposes

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15
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the testes?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

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16
Q

Describe testicular torsion

A

Tunica vaginalis + testis twist around eachother in a bell-clapper deformity, which cuts off venous drainage
Eventually ischaemia and compartment syndrome

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17
Q

Name 3 causes of scrotal swelling

A

Varicocoele
Hydrocoele
Testicular cancer

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18
Q

What is a varicocoele?

A

Pampiniform plexus swelling - most likely to occur on left side as drains into the renal vein

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19
Q

What does the ureter pass under in men and women?

A

Men: Vas deferens
Women: Uterine artery

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20
Q

What are the 3 layers of the spermatic cord?

A

External spermatic fascia - external oblique
Cremasteric muscle - internal oblique
Internal spermatic fascia - transversalis fascia

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21
Q

What are the contents of the spermatic cord?

A

3 nerves - testicular, nerve to vas, nerve to cremasteric nerve
3 arteries - testicular, artery to vas, cremasteric artery
3 veins - testicular, vein to vas, cremasteric vein
3 fascial layers - external spermatic fascia, cremasteric muscle, internal spermatic fascia
3 random - vas deferens, cremasteric muscle, iliolingual nerve

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22
Q

Name the accessory glands and what they contribute to sperm

A

Seminiferous tubules (maybe not) - make sperm
Seminal vesicles - nutrition - fructose, high pH to neutralise acid
Prostate - proteolytic enzymes
Bulbourethral glands - reduce friction

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23
Q

Name the prostate zones from top to bottom and the disease associated with each

A

Central
Transitional - BPH
Peripheral - Prostate cancer

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24
Q

Name the symptoms of BPH

A

Frequency
Weak stream
Dribbling

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25
Q

Which out of BPH and Prostate cancer prevents full emptying?

A

Prostate cancer causes incomplete voiding

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26
Q

What is the role of the tunica albuginea?

A

Helps penis maintain its shape

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27
Q

What is the role of the corpus cavernosum? (the eyes)

A

Fills with blood

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28
Q

What is the role of the corpus spongiosum?

A

Stops urethral occlusion

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29
Q

How is an erection formed?

A

Point and shoot
Parasympathetics cause vasodilation of arteries and constriction of veins
Sympathetics cause ejaculation

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30
Q

What does the ovarian artery travel through?

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

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31
Q

How does the ovarian artery drain?

A

Same as the testicular artery

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32
Q

What is the top of the uterus called?

A

The fundus

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33
Q

What is the zone between the internal and external cervical os called?

A

Transformation zone (NOT TRANSITION)

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34
Q

What are the 3 sections of the fallopian tubes from fimbriae to uterus?

A

Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus

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35
Q

Name 2 ectopic pregnancy sites

A

Ampulla, peritoneum

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36
Q

Why is pain felt in the pelvis in ectopic pregnancy?

A

Flows down paracolic gutters, irritates phrenic nerve, which has roots 3, 4, 5 - this transmits to C3, 4, 5 dermatomal regions

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37
Q

Name the ligaments of the uterus

A
  • Suspensory ligament
  • Broad ligament
  • Round ligament - to labia majora
  • Ovarian ligament - to round ligament
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38
Q

What does the uterine artery travel through?

A

Mesovarium

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39
Q

What is the standard uterine position?

A

Anteverted anteflexed

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40
Q

Describe the cellular make up of the vagina

A

Stratified squamous epithelia with glucose pouches for lactobacilli - if killed, leads to thrush (candida albicans invasion)

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41
Q

What embryological origin do the reproductive tracts form from?

A

Intermediate mesoderm

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42
Q

What is the male genotype?

A

XY

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43
Q

What gene is activated in male children?

A

SRY

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44
Q

What are the two duct types?

A

Paramesonephric - women

Mesonephric - men

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45
Q

What do the testes produce and what does it inhibit?

A

Mullerian inhibiting hormone - destroys paramesonephric ducts

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46
Q

What is produced to maintain the mesonephric ducts?

A

Testosterone

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47
Q

What does exogenous androgens lead to?

A

In women: Both develop

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48
Q

What does AIS lead to?

A

In men: no genitals

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49
Q

What does the genital tubercle become in men and women?

A

Spongy urethra

Clitoris

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50
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome?

A

45X - short stature, non-functioning ovaries, amenorrhoea

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51
Q

What is Klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

47XXY - males with small testes, reduced libido, infertility, enlarged breast tissue

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52
Q

What hormones mediate somatic growth in puberty?

A

GH, IGFs

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53
Q

Describe the order of secondary sex characteristics in females

A

Breast (thenarche), pubes, growth, menarche, pubes, breast

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54
Q

Describe the order of secondary sex characteristics in males

A

Genitals, pubes, sperm, growth, genitals, pubes

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55
Q

What are the age ranges for puberty in females and males?

A

9-13

10-14

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56
Q

What is early puberty called?

A

Precocious puberty

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57
Q

What is the puberty weight?

A

47kg

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58
Q

What initiates puberty?

A

GnRH -> FSH + LH

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59
Q

What is the role of Leydig cells and what hormone are they acted on by?

A

LH -> Testosterone

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60
Q

What is the role of Sertoli cells and what hormone are they acted on by?

A

FSH -> Spermatogenesis

Inhibin release

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61
Q

What is the effect of low level Oestrogen on GnRH?

A

Inhibits GnRH

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62
Q

What is the effect of high level Oestrogen on GnRH?

A

Increases GnRH

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63
Q

What does progesterone do at high Oestrogen?

A

Inhibits GnRH - stops LH surge

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64
Q

What does GH do in puberty?

A

Releases TSH, increases metabolic rate and storage for growth

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65
Q

Why are girls shorter with precious puberty?

A

Oestrogen inhibits growth

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66
Q

What is the difference between central and peripheral precocious puberty?

A
Central = due to brain inflammation
Peripheral = due to excess testosterone from a tumour
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67
Q

What happens with the daughter cells in females after meiosis?

A

3 polar bodies, 1 oocyte

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68
Q

Name 3 sources of genetic variation and the phase they occur in

A

Crossing over - Prophase 1
Independent assortment of chromosomes - Metaphase 1
Random segregation

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69
Q

Describe the process of spermatogenesis

A

Spermatogonia -> 2 Spermatocytes via Mitosis, with one replacing original spermatogonia -> secondary spermatocyte via meiosis, ends as a spermatid

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70
Q

What is a germ cell sperm called?

A

Spermatogonia

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71
Q

What is the process of a sperm travelling down the rete testis to the epididymis to become more motile called?

A

Spermiogenesis

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72
Q

What does capacitation of sperm involve?

A

Removal of glycoproteins and cholesterol in the vagina to prepare for acrosome reaction

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73
Q

Describe the process of oogenesis

A

Oogonia -> Proliferate by mitosis -> Enter meiosis 1 to become primary oocytes -> surrounded by primordial follicles -> primordial follicles -> atresia begins

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74
Q

Describe the process of ovulation, naming each stage

A

Pre-antral - Granulosa cells formed from granulosa cells, which form the zona pellucida
Antral - antrum develops, theca externa and interna develop, becomes secondary follicle
Pre-ovulatory - LH surge induced, meiosis 1 is completed, 1 polar body and 1 oocyte

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75
Q

What is formed around the oocyte after ovulation and by what?

A

Theca and Granulosa cells form the corpus luteum

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76
Q

What is the lifespan of the corpus luteum?

A

14 days

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77
Q

What is released by the fertilised embryo to keep the corpus luteum alive? What part of the embryo releases it?

A

B-hCG

Syncitiotrophoblast

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78
Q

What hormone triggers ovulation?

A

LH surge

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79
Q

What hormone causes follicles to grow?

A

FSH

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80
Q

What causes inhibin release and from where?

A

FSH, from the Granulosa cells

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81
Q

What are the two overall phases of the menstrual system?

A

Ovarian and Uterine

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82
Q

What 2 phases is the Ovarian phase of menstruation split into?

A

Follicular and Luteal

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83
Q

What 2 phases is the Uterine phase of menstruation split into?

A

Proliferative and Secretory

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84
Q

Describe the Follicular phase of the Ovarian cycle.

A

FSH stimulates Theca interna, which combined with Granulosa cells in pre-antral phase, lead to Oestrogen production.
Oestrogen promotes thickening of the endometrium and thinning of the mucous.
Oestrogen levels rise slowly.
LH surge begins due to raised oestrogen.

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85
Q

Describe the Luteal phase of the Ovarian cycle.

A

LH surge leads to positive feedback and more oestrogen production.
Corpus luteum is produced, which starts producing Progesterone.
Ovulation occurs.

86
Q

What hormones does the Corpus Luteum produce?

A

Progesterone, Oestrogen, Inhibin

87
Q

Describe the Proliferative phase of the Uterine cycle.

A

Oestrogen released from Granulosa cells causes proliferation of the endometrium.

88
Q

Describe the Secretory phase of the Uterine cycle.

A

Progesterone from corpus luteum leads to secretory gland production.
If corpus luteum stops outputting hormones, then the endometrium will shed.

89
Q

Describe the actions of progesterone on the uterus and mucous

A

Causes secretory proliferation

Causes thickening of cervical mucous

90
Q

Describe the actions of Clomiphene

A

Induces ovulation by masking oestrogen levels to the hypothalamus, causing GnRH release and so FSH/LH release

91
Q

Define Amenorrhoea

A

Absence of menstruation

92
Q

What is the difference between Primary and Secondary amenorrhoea?

A

Primary - never had a period by 16 eg. due to imperforate hymen/ turner’s syndrome
Secondary - cessation of periods for over 6 months after having had periods - usually pregnancy

93
Q

Define Oligomenorrhoea

A

Reduction in frequency of periods

94
Q

What is the most common cause of Oligomenorrhoea?

A

PCOS - causes hormone changes, including less oestrogen release

95
Q

Define Menorrhagia and give a cause

A

Heavy periods - commonly caused by fibroids, polyps and cancer - can lead to anaemia

96
Q

Define Dysmenorrhoea and give a cause

A

Painful periods - commonly endometriosis/PID

97
Q

What happens in Dyfunctional Uterine Bleeding?

A

Period of anovulation followed by heavy bleeding

98
Q

How is an erection started?

A

Arterial dilatation via NO release via parasympathetics

Venous compression by corpus cavernosum filling with blood

99
Q

How does ejaculation occur?

A

Sympathetic induced movement of semen into the prostatic urethra
The smooth muscle of the prostate/vas/seminal vesicles contract

100
Q

What prevents retrograde ejaculation?

A

Internal urethral sphincter

101
Q

What part of the blastocyst interacts with the placenta?

A

Trophoblast

102
Q

What can implantation over the cervix lead to?

A

Placenta praevia

103
Q

What can placenta praevia lead to?

A

Pre-eclampsia

104
Q

What are the clinical signs of pre-eclampsia?

A

Hypertension

Proteinuria

105
Q

What cells prevent deep implantation?

A

Decidual cells

106
Q

Describe the hormonal methods of contraception

A
  • POP - thickens mucous
  • COCP - prevents ovulation + thickens
  • Progesterone depot - prevents ovulation + thickens - every 12 weeks
  • Progesterone implant
  • IUS - progesterone releasing
  • IUD - copper
107
Q

What is the risk with high doses of oestrogen?

A

Endometrial cancer

Oestrogen is thrombogenic, can cause clots

108
Q

Name 2 permanent contraception methods

A

Vasectomy

Tubal ligation

109
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary infertility?

A
Primary = never had a child before
Secondary = dad a child before
110
Q

Give 5 infertility causes for women

A
PID
PCOS
Turner's
Uterine fibroids
Endometriosis -> adhesions and scarring
111
Q

Give 5 infertility causes for men

A
Poor general health
ED
STIs
GnRH deficiency
Klinefelter's
112
Q

What is the outer layer that attaches to the placenta called and what are its attachments called?

A

Chorionic layer

Chorionic villi

113
Q

What takes oxygenated blood from the placenta to the baby?

A

Umbilical vein

2 Umbilical arteries bring it back

114
Q

Describe the effect of progesterone generally on the mother

A

Causes increased appetite

Causes smooth muscle relaxation - KEY

115
Q

Describe the effect of hPL on the mother

A

Increases glucose availability for the baby by causing insulin resistance in the mother

116
Q

Name 3 CVS changes in the mother during pregnancy

A
  • Reduced vascular resistance - progesterone dilates - leads to hypotension
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased plasma volume and haematocrit - but not equally, can get anaemia
117
Q

What happens to blood pressure during pregnancy?

A

Hypotension

118
Q

What is given pre-emptively to women at risk of Pre-eclampsia?

A

Aspirin

119
Q

Name 3 Renal changes in the mother during pregnancy

A
  • GFR - 150%
  • RAAS release
  • Increased EPO production
120
Q

Name 3 GI changes during pregnancy

A
  • Constipation - due to progesterone
  • Haemorrhoids - due to smooth muscle relaxation in rectal arteries
  • Bloating
121
Q

Name 2 Respiratory changes in the mother during pregnancy

A
  • Stable respiratory rate, but 40% increase in minute volume due to tidal volume increase
  • Hyperventilation (deeper breathing)
122
Q

Name 1 haematological change in the mother during pregnancy

A

Oestrogen is pro-thombotic - increased clotting risk

123
Q

Describe the glucose changes in the mother during pregnancy

A
First trimester (12 weeks): Increased fat deposition, progesterone increases appetite, B cell hyperplasia
Second and third trimester: hPL maternal insulin resistance
124
Q

Why does gestational diabetes occur?

A

When B cell hyperplasia is not enough to keep up with insulin resistance from hPL

125
Q

What does gestational diabetes lead to in the baby and why?

A

Macrosomia + Hypoglycaemia
Permanent high glucose levels - baby has to undergo b cell hyperplasia
Will have hypoglycaemia on birth, since too much insulin being produced

126
Q

Name one complication of gestational diabetes other than macrosomia

A

PPH

127
Q

How is gas exchange at the placenta increased? (4)

A
  • Increased 2,3-BPG production in mother red blood cells
  • Low foetal pO2
  • Foetal haemoglobin
  • Double bohr effect
128
Q

Name the 3 foetal shunts and what they shunt over

A

Ductus venosus - Liver
Foramen ovale - shunts right to left heart
Ductus arteriosus - from pulmonary artery to aorta

129
Q

Describe the foetal response to hypoxia and what this is called

A

Heart rate slows to reduce heart oxygen supply
HbF concentration increased
“Foetal distress syndrome”

130
Q

What are the symptoms of foetal distress syndrome?

A

Reduced movement, vaginal bleeding, abnormal amniotic fluid level

131
Q

What is the primary growth factor in trimester 1?

A

IGF 2

132
Q

Name the dominant type of cell growth is Semesters 1 and 2

A

1: Hyperplasia
2: Hypertrophy

133
Q

Name 3 ways of measuring growth in the foetus

A
  • Crown rump length
  • Symphysis-fundal height
  • USS - main, at 20 weeks
  • Femur length
134
Q

What is a bimanual exam and what can you feel?

A

Uterus

External Os of the cervix

135
Q

What is the normal birth weight?

A

3.5kg

136
Q

What is the treatment for pre-term birth to prevent RDS?

A

Glucocorticoids

137
Q

What is the process of “quickening”?

A

Movements of the baby felt by the mother after 17 weeks

138
Q

Define “Parturition”

A

Going from pregnant -> non-pregnant

139
Q

Describe the stages of the creation of the birth canal

A
  • Progesterone loosens sacro-iliac joint
  • Cervical ripening - prostaglandins cause reduction in collagen and increase in GAGs
  • Effacement and dilation of the cervix - thinning and opening by prostaglandins/oestrogen
140
Q

Describe the stages of the initiation of labour

A
  • Triggered by rise in oestrogen:Progesterone ratio
  • Increased prostaglandin synthesis
  • Increased contraction strength and frequency due to prostaglandins and oxytocin
141
Q

Describe the stages of the expulsion of the foetus

A
  • Contractions increased due to Prostaglandins (more Ca2+ per contraction) and Oxytocin (more frequent)
  • Ferguson reflex = positive feedback loop where contractions increase oxytocin release from posterior pituitary
  • Oestrogen increases oxytocin receptor production
  • Head faces down, shoulders rotate
142
Q

What is a breach birth?

A

Legs first

143
Q

What is the inability of the placenta to be expelled after labour called?

A

Uterine atony

144
Q

Name a property of the myometrium that helps with labour

A

Brachystasis

145
Q

What are the boundaries of the Brachial Plexus?

A

C5-T1

146
Q

Describe Erb’s Palsy

A

Elbow extended, wrist flexed, arm pronated

147
Q

Describe Klumpke’s Palsy

A

Loss of abduction, adduction, flexion, extension of fingers - Claw hand

148
Q

What are the natural processes in the female body that prevent PPH?

A
  • Living ligature - contraction of muscles around blood vessels
  • Natural clotting mechanisms
  • Pressure on placental site by walls of uterus
149
Q

What is the score used to measure an infant’s breathing?

A

APGAR

150
Q

What does CURB-65 stand for?

A
Confusion
Urea in blood
Respiratory
Blood pressure
Over 65
151
Q

What causes most issues in the Post Partum Period?

A

Low Oestrogen

152
Q

Name the 3 mental health conditions associated with the post partum period

A
  • PTSD
  • PP depression
  • Puerperal psychosis
153
Q

Describe the hormones involved in breast feeding

A
  • Prolactin - released due to suckling, inhibits dopamine release, which usually inhibits GnRH
  • Oxytocin - let down reflex, causes ejection of milk
154
Q

What is Puerperal mastitis?

A

Milk accumulation leading to inflammation and potential infection (staph aureus)

155
Q

List 5 complications of STIs

A
PID
Infertility
Ectopic pregnancy
Cervical cancer
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
156
Q

How does PID travel to the liver?

A

Down the paracolic gutters

157
Q

How should STIs be tested for in men?

A

Urinalysis (NAAT)

Bloods

158
Q

How should STIs be tested for in women?

A

High vaginal swab - random ones
Endocervical swab - chlamydia
Vulvovaginal swab - asymptomatic chlamydia/ gonorrhoea

159
Q

What is the causative organism of Chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

160
Q

What symptoms does Chlamydia trachomatis cause?

A

Men: painful urination
Women: none

161
Q

What is the treatment for Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Doxycycline/Erythromycin (if pregnant)

162
Q

What is the causative organism of Gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria Gonorrhoea

163
Q

What symptoms does Neisseria Gonorrhoea cause?

A

Men: Urethral discharge
Women: none

164
Q

What is the treatment for Neisseria Gonorrhoea?

A

IM ceftriaxone and erythromycin

165
Q

What is the causative organism of Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

166
Q

What are the Primary, Secondary and Tertiary symptoms of Treponema pallidum?

A

Primary: Ulcer - painless
Secondary: Rash, mucosal lesions
Tertiary: Neurosyphilis

167
Q

What is the treatment of Treponema Pallidum?

A

Ben-Pen-G, procaine penicillin if late

168
Q

What causes Herpes?

A

HSV 1 and 2

169
Q

What causes Genital warts?

A

HPV 16 and 18

170
Q

What HPV strains are covered in the vaccine?

A

HPV 6, 11, 16, 18

171
Q

What is the treatment for Trichomonas Vaginalis?

A

Metronidazole

172
Q

Name 2 non-STI infections

A
  • Bacterial vaginosis - Gardnerella vaginalis
  • Vaginal candidiasis - Candida albicans
    Both treated by Metronidazole
173
Q

What is the commonest cause of vaginal discharge in women?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

174
Q

What is the definition of PID?

A

Infection of the endocervix (channel of the cervix), causing salpingitis, endometritis, tubo-ovarian abscesses, adhesions and peritonitis

175
Q

Name the deep muscles of the pelvis (front to back)

A

The Levator Ani

  • Puborectalis
  • Pubococcygeus
  • Iliococcygeus
  • Coccygeus
176
Q

What do the levator ani attach to?

A

Perineal body

177
Q

What can be caused by weakened levator ani?

A

Stress Urinary Incontinence
Prolapse
Faecal incontinence

178
Q

Name the superficial muscles of the pelvis

A
  • Bulbospongiosus
  • Superficial transverse perineal
  • Ischiocavernosus
179
Q

What does a “dragging sensation” and pain on sex imply?

A

Uterine prolapse

180
Q

What treatment can be given to help with prolapses?

A

Pessaries
“Mesh” surgeries to support levator ani
Kegel exercises

181
Q

Name the classes of FGM and what each involves

A
  1. Removal of clitoris
  2. Clitoris and labia minora
  3. Everything
  4. Any other alteration
182
Q

What is the definition of Menstruation?

A

Cessation of menstruation for 12 months

183
Q

Describe the 4 phases of menstruation

A

Pre-menstrual - reduced oestrogen
Peri-menopause - night sweats, hot flushes, mood swings, insomnia, depression
Menopause - Complete cessation of period for 12 months
Post-menopause - osteoporosis risk, CVS risk, alzheimer’s risk

184
Q

What is the average age of Menopause?

A

50

185
Q

What are the main risks of post-menopause?

A

CVS - lipid profile changed, increased atherosclerosis risk
Osteoporosis risk - oestrogen inhibits osteoclasts normally, without it they breakdown bone faster
Alzheimer’s risk

186
Q

What are the bodily changes women undergo post-menopause?

A
Skin loses elasticity
Hair loss
Thickening of vocal cords
Weight gain
Loss of breast tissue
187
Q

What hormone goes down during menopause?

A

Oestrogen

188
Q

Name 3 non-hormonal treatments for menopause

A
  • Light clothing
  • Statins
  • Vitamin D
189
Q

What does HRT help with?

A

Symptoms
Osteoporosis
NOT CVS

190
Q

What type of cancer is Vulval cancer?

A

SCC

191
Q

What does VIN stand for?

A

Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia

192
Q

What does VIN involve?

A

Dysplasia of the vulval cells with no basement membrane invasion

193
Q

Name a cause of VIN

A

Young: HPV
Old: not

194
Q

What type of cancer is Cervical cancer?

A

SCC

195
Q

Where does cervical cancer happen?

A

Transformation zone

196
Q

What type of cells are there inside the cervix and outside the cervix?

A

Inside: simple columnar
Outside: stratified squamous

197
Q

What are the high risk HPV subtypes and why?

A

16 and 18 - they have E6 and E7 which inhibit p53 and Rb tumour suppressors

198
Q

What is CIN caused by?

A

HPV

199
Q

Name 4 risk factors for cervical cancer

A

Early pregnancy
Early puberty
Smoking
HPV

200
Q

What is the main treatment for cervical cancer?

A

Large Loop excision of the transformation zone/ hysterectomy

201
Q

What type of cancer is endometrial cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

202
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A

Unopposed HRT
Early menarche
PCOS
Obesity - more androgens, more oestrogen

203
Q

Name the two types of endometrial cancer

A

Endometroid

Serous - aggressive - pasmmoma bodies

204
Q

What is the main treatment for endometrial cancer?

A

Hysterectomy

205
Q

What is the word for the removal of the uterus?

A

Hysterectomy

206
Q

What are the two types of myometrial cancer?

A

Leiomyoma

Leiomyosarcoma

207
Q

What is the serum marker for Ovarian cancer?

A

Ca-125

208
Q

What gene is Ovarian cancer associated with?

A

BRCA-1/2

209
Q

Name the 3 types of ovarian cancer

A

Germ cell - Teratoma
Epithelial - serous/endometroid/mucinous
Sex cord stromal - Granulosa/theca

210
Q

Name the two classifications of testicular cancer

A

Germ cell - seminomatous/non-seminomatous

Sex cord stromal - sertoli/leydig

211
Q

Name the different classifications of

A

Teratomas
Yolk sac
Choriocarcinoma

212
Q

What is the removal of the testicles called?

A

Radical orchiectomy