Key facts Flashcards
(281 cards)
1
Q
What is the commonest form of malaria?
A
Falciparum malaria
2
Q
Key features of malaria infection (5)
A
Fever, Jaundice, Abdo pain, hypoglycaemia, low platelets
3
Q
Flash pulmonary oedema is a sign of _____
A
reno-vascular disease
4
Q
What is a first line investigation for Acromegaly?
A
Serum IGF-1
5
Q
Which fractures are most commonly associated with compartment syndrome?
A
Supracondlyar and tibial shaft
6
Q
What triad is associated with Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?
A
Dysphagia, iron-deficiency anaemia, glossitis
7
Q
How can the possibility of contrast-induced nephropathy be reduced?
A
Pre- and Post-procedural IV hydration
8
Q
What is the triad associated with carcinoid syndrome?
A
abdo pain, diarrhoea, flushing - due to a tumour producing vasoactive mediators and prostaglandins
9
Q
What is the only treatment for dry age related macular degeneration?
A
Vitamins - only thing shown to slow progression from intermediate to advanced disease
10
Q
How long is a transplant rejection considered acute?
A
6 months
11
Q
Which gene is affected in Marfans syndrome?
A
Fibrillin - 1
12
Q
What is a common risk factor for DVT?
A
Dehydration
13
Q
What is a classic presentation of ischaemic colitis?
A
abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea worse after eating a large meal. more common in those with ischaemic heart disease
14
Q
How long should UTIs be treated for in pregnancy?
A
7 days
15
Q
Leptospirosis is most commonly found where?
A
in rats urine - important for sewage workers
16
Q
Which cancers are most likely to cause hypercalcaemia (3)?
A
Breast, lung and multiple myeloma
17
Q
What is the ideal amount of IV fluids for everyday fluid maintenance?
A
25-30ml/kg/day
18
Q
What antibodies are found in dermatitis herpetiformis?
A
anti-endomysial
19
Q
Which veins become enlarged in caput medusae?
A
superior mesenteric and splenic veins
20
Q
Which type of meningitis is more common in HIV positive patients?
A
Cryptococcal
21
Q
What treatment is given for cryptococcal meningitis?
A
amphotericin B
22
Q
Which meningitis is more common in teens?
A
Neisseria meningitides
23
Q
What is Waterhouse-Freidrichson syndrome?
A
primary adrenal failure, usually associated with a traumatic event or illness such as sepsis.
24
Q
What is Factor V Leiden?
A
Factor V leiden is a pro-clotting disorder due to factor V being resistant to Protein C degradation
25
How long after last treatment should lithium be monitored?
12 hours after last dose
26
What blood results might you expect from multiple myeloma without metastases?
high calcium, normal Alk Phos, normal PO4
27
When should bloods be monitored for phenytoin levels monitoring?
just before next dose
28
When should digoxin levels be monitored?
6 hours after dose
29
What mutation is associated with polycythaemia?
JAK2
30
What can be used in the event of a beta-blocker overdose?
atropine and if that fails, glucagon
31
What is first line for preventing angina attacks?
beta-blockers or CCBs
32
What is used in a benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumenazil
33
What is the mutation associated with chronic myeloid leukaemia?
T9,22 - philadelphia chromosome
34
What anti-emetic should be avoided in bowel obstruction?
metoclopramide - it is a prokinetic agent
35
What can be used in heparin overdose?
protamine sulphate
36
what is cholelithiasis?
the presence of gallstones in the bladder
37
Causes of broad complex bradycardia?
hyperkalaemia, hypothyroidism, hypothermia, hypoxia, medicines like digoxin, b-blockers, CCBs
38
Treatment for ringworm?
topical clotrimazole
39
Signs of common peroneal nerve palsy?
foot drop, loss of sensation in the lateral calf, inability to evert/dorsiflex the foot
40
Carpal bones
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquitrium, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
41
Thyroid cancer with the worst prognosis
anaplastic
42
Thyroid cancer which spreads haematologically
follicular
43
Thyroid cancer associated with MEN
medullary
44
Thyroid cancer which occurs in iodine rich areas
papillary
45
Most common thyroid cancer
papillary
46
Mechanism of action of glitazones?
stimulate and raise adiponectin levels --> promote adipogensis
47
What is tardive dyskinesia?
involuntary muscle movements usually tongue, lips, trunk and extremities
48
What is acute dystonia?
intermittent sustained contraction of any muscle in the body
49
Most common form of non-hodgkins lymphoma?
Diffuse Large B cell
50
Which drug reduces mortality in heart failure
spironolactone
51
Which condition is a known cause of premature menopause?
addissons disease
52
A ghon focus is formed in (primary/secondary) TB?
Primary
53
What should be prescribed alongside isotretinoin?
Combined oral contraception where possible.
POP is not an acceptable form in this case
54
What nerve is associated with tear production?
Intermediate nerve (branch of the facial nerve)
55
What is achalasia?
An oesophageal dysmotility disorder
56
Investigations for achalasia?
Oesophageal manometry/barium swallow (birds beak)
57
Contraindications to thrombolysis (4)
bleeding disorders, recent haemorrhage/head trauma in the last 3 weeks, stroke in the last year, brain neoplasm
58
What is the Moriskey scale?
A medicine adherence questionnaire where it is suspected that compliance is an issue
59
Virus which causes hand, foot and mouth disease?
Coxsackie A16
60
What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction?
CVD and diabetes
61
What is the Koebner phenomenon?
Where new skin lesions occur in an area of subcutaneous trauma in otherwise healthy skin - seen in psoriasis, vitiligo and lichen planus
62
What sort of tumour might produce spindle cells in a stomach biopsy?
Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
63
What clinical sign may be seen in a lesion of CN V3?
Weakness in bite
64
What is the most appropriate treatment of heavy periods in a patient with known fibroids?
Tranexamic acid
65
What is a common side effect of memantine?
Headaches
Memantine has less GI symptoms than other cholinesterase inhibitors
66
What medication is not effective in controlling heavy bleeding due to fibroids?
Mefanamic acid
67
Which muscles are supplied by CN V3?
Masticatory muscles
68
What cells may be seen on blood smear in CLL?
small mature B lymphocytes
69
How do patients with CLL normally present?
asymptomatically - usually an incidental finding.
70
What is "cradle cap"?
A form of seborrhoeic dermatitis in babies
71
What is the treatment for cradle cap?
Mild - baby shampoo and baby oil
| Severe - mild topical steroids
72
Where is vernicline used?
in aiding smoking cessation
73
Auto-antibodies in PBC?
anti-mitochondrial antibodies
74
What might patients with PBC present with?
itch, lethargy, slight jaundice. middle aged women
75
What pharmacotherapy should a patient be offered post-MI?
dual antiplatelets - aspirin + clopidogrel, ACE inhibitor (esp in reduced ejection fraction), b-blocker, statin
76
What is the strongest risk factor for psychotic disorders?
Family history of psychotic disorders
77
What kind of pulse is associated with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?
bisferiens pulse (feels like a double pulse)
78
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is rare except in which region?
Southern china
79
What infection is nasopharyngeal carcinoma associated with?
EBV
80
What is charcot-marie-tooth?
a hereditary sensory/motor peripheral neuropathy with no UMN signs
81
What advice should be given regarding combined hormonal contraceptives when expecting major surgery?
Stop 4 weeks prior and start 2 weeks after mobilisation
82
If there is loss of the heart border on an xray due to consolidation, where is the likely pneumonia?
left lingula - area of the left lung that covers the heart
83
Which treatment is most appropriate in ER +ve breast ca. in pre/peri-menopausal women?
tamoxifen
84
Which treatment is most appropriate in ER +ve breast ca. in post-menopausal women?
aromatase inhibitors
85
What is a common side-effect of tamoxifen?
hot flushes
86
What is the mecahnism of action of vernicline?
partial nicotine receptor agonist
87
What is the effect of thiazide diuretics on calcium resorption?
increase calcium resorption from urine
88
What are the associated symptoms with Giardia infection?
bloating, belching, flatulence and diarrhoea
89
Treatment for Giardia infections?
400mg Metronidazole TID for 5 days
90
Treatment for Pneumocytis jirovecci pneumonia (PJP)
Co-trimoxazole
91
What is a thyroglossal cyst?
a remnant of the thyroglossal duct during development
92
Symptoms associated with a total anterior stroke
All 3 of the following: motor deficit, speech deficit and hemianopia
93
Symptoms associated with a partial anterior stroke
2 or less of a total anterior stroke: motor deficit, speech deficit and hemianopia
94
Symptoms of a posterior circulation infarct
brainstem or cranial nerve lesions and signs, cerebellar signs or ipsilateral sensory or motor deficit
95
Lacunar infarct symptoms
isolated sensory or motor disturbance
96
What is the most common ovarian tumour (benign)
ovarian cystadenoma
97
What electrolyte disturbances increase the risk of refeeding syndrome?
hypo- phosphataemia, magnesia, kalaemia and thiamine deficiency
98
Causes of pancreatitis
I GET SMASHED
I- Idiopathic G-gallstones, E-ethanol, T-trauma, S-Steroids, M- mumps, A-autoimmune, S- scorpions, H-hypothermia, E-ERCP, D-drugs
99
A temporal lesion in the optic nerve will cause...
a superior quadrantanopia
100
A parietal lesion in the optic nerve will cause...
an inferior quadrantanopia
101
A craniopharyngioma will cause (ophthalm)
lower bitemporal hemianopia
102
Which MEN syndrome is associated with medullary thyroids cancer?
MEN2
103
Which HPV are most associated with cervical ca.?
16, 18, 33
104
What is the gold standard for diagnosing Hirschsprungs disease?
Rectal biopsy
105
What are teardrop poikilocytes associated with?
myelodysplastic syndromes such as myelofibrosis
106
Which STD is gram neg diplococci?
Gonorrhoea
107
What is the triad associated with gonorrhoea infection?
tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis
108
What is Perthes disease?
AVN of the femoral head in 4-8 year olds
109
What symptoms are associated with intestinal angina?
Severe colicky abdominal pain after eating, weightloss and abdominal bruit
110
What virus is associated with kaposi's sarcoma?
HHV-8 ; Human herpes virus 8
111
What is the most commonly inherited bleeding disorder?
Von Willebrands disease
112
What is the most common breast cancer?
Invasive ductal carcinoma
113
What are Heinz bodies associated with?
G6PD
114
How do you monitor the use of unfractionated heparin?
aPTT
115
What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction?
adhesions
116
What is the most common gynae problem in the pre-pubertal age group?
vulvovaginitis
117
What is a common cause of excessive vaginal discharge while on the pill?
cervical ectropion
118
What medications should be stopped in worsening heart failure due to their negative inotropic effects?
Calcium channel blockers
119
How long is it acceptable to offer thrombolysis in a stroke?
up to 4.5 hours from symptom onset
120
What findings are assocaited with mycoplasma pneumonia?
dry cough, erythema multiforme and CXR findings
121
People with coeliac disease often have which organ affected in the abdomen?
Hyposplenism
122
SSRIs and NSAIDs combined increase the risk of...?
GI Bleed
123
Ebsteins anomaly is associated with the use of what drug during pregnancy?
Lithium
124
What is Ebsteins anomaly?
A rare congenital heart condition which causes RA hypertrophy and tricuspid regurgitation
125
Why is Haloperidol contraindicated in parkinsons disease?
It is a dopamine antagonist which will worsen symptoms
126
Why is domperidone not contraindicated in parkinsons disease?
It does not cross the blood brain barrier
127
What skin condition is associated with malignancies such as breast cancer?
Dermatomyositis
128
What are the hallmark signs of dermatomyositis?
Gottrons papules and helitrope rash
129
What is the treatment for the anaphylactoid reaction that is associated with N-acetyle cysteine transfusion?
Stop the infusion and restart over a slower infusion rate (1 hour instead of usual 15 minutes)
130
Which symptoms indicate a poor prognosis in liver cirrhosis?
ascities, encephalopathy, increased PT time, hypoalbuminaemia, increased bilirubin
131
Which drug may be used to treat hyperphosphataemia in CKD bone mineral disease?
Sevelamer
132
What treatment is important following a GI bleed associated with liver cirrhosis?
Prophylactic antibiotics
133
What is a keratoacanthoma?
A growing skin lesion in sun-damaged areas that may grow large and then shrinks and dissappears leaving a scar after a few months
134
What are pyogenic granulomas?
purple lesions that bleed easily, found at a site of trauma
135
Describe lichen planus
purple, pruritic, papular, polygonal lesions on the flexor surfaces and the oral mucosa
136
Where are you most likely to seen lichen sclerosis?
itchy white spots found on the vulva of older women
137
What condition presents with dysphagia with solids and liquids from the onset?
Achalasia
138
What is first line treatment in non-bullous impetigo?
topical hydrogen peroxide THEN topical fusidic acid
139
What is the use of ROSIER?
Recognition of stroke in the emergency room - helps differentiate between stroke and stroke mimics
140
What is the ABCD2 score?
Used to predict the occurence of stroke in the short term following a TIA
141
What is the CHA2DS2VASc score used for?
Determining the likelihood of stroke secondary to AF
142
What heart condition is associated with PKD?
Mitral valve prolapse or regurgitation
143
Which medication is administered in variceal haemorrhage?
Terlipressin
144
What should a patient with sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss be treated with initially?
High dose oral prednisilone
145
which electrolyte disturbance can cause polydipsia and polyuria?
hypercalcaemia
146
What long term treatment should patients with stroke and AF have?
warfarin or Factor Xa inhibitor like apixaban
147
What is the CK threshold for rhabdomyolysis?
CK > 10,000
148
What is the diagnostic test for PSC?
MRCP
149
What histology indicates a carcinoma tumour?
enlarged nuclei, hyperchromia and pleomorphism
150
Which artery supplies the first half of the duodenum?
gastroduodenal artery
151
Where in the brain does Alzheimers first affect?
Temporal lobe
152
What is the treatment for tricyclic poisoning?
IV sodium bicarbonate
153
Which patients should have epidural anaethesia rather than opioids post-operatively?
Those with severe respiratory disease like COPD after major surgery
154
What is the diagnostic test for a sub-arachnoid haemorrhage in APKD?
Lumbar puncture
155
What anticoagulation should patients with a mechanical valve have?
aspirin and warfarin
156
Which airway device prevents regurgitation aspiration?
tracheal tube
157
What is the policy regarding fasting and fluids prior to surgery?
6hrs for solids, 2hrs for clear liquids
158
Which antibodies are found for rheumatoid arthritis?
anti-CCP
159
transillumates, surrounds the testis
hydrocele
160
Separate from the testis, transilluminates
epididymal cyst
161
What is the treatment for renal stones with severe hydronephorisis?
nephrostomy
162
What is first line treatment in sinus bradycardia?
Atropine (followed by adrenaline if haemodynamically unstable and not responding to atropine)
163
What is the most common organism in leg cellulitis?
strep. pyogenes
164
What are the first-line treatment in superficial thrombophlebitis?
NSAIDs
165
What breast disease causes pain around the menstrual cycle?
fibrocystic disease
166
Which lymph nodes are mostly affected by ovarian cancer?
para-aortic most common, internal iliac sometimes
167
How is an SVC obstruction without stridor initially managed?
Using dexamethasone
168
How is an SVC obstruction with stridor managed?
Dexamethasone and stenting
169
In warfarin overdose with bleeding, what is given alongside Vitamin K to reverse the effects?
Prothrombin complex - it is faster and less likely to cause an immune reaction than FFP
170
What is required in adults presenting with nephrotic syndrome?
Renal biopsy
171
What is Hirschsprung's disease?
A birth defect where nerves are missing from the intestine causing difficulty passing stools
172
What antibiotic are coeliac patients with hyposplenism given and why?
low dose penicillin to protect against encapsulated bacteria
173
Gold standard investigation for dysphagia?
OGD
174
Which ligament most likely to be damaged in knee from twisting injury?
ACL
175
Cause of croup
Parainfluenza virus
176
Sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue
Scarlet fever
177
Organism of scarlet fever
strep pyogenes
178
Most common CAP in COPD
Haemophilus influenza
179
Main cause of R Heart Failure
Left heart failure
180
Symptoms of left heart failure
Pulmonary oedema, peripheral pitting oedema, fatigue, dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND
181
Why is there fatigue in heart failure?
there is decreased CO which means that there is less blood to the vital organs
182
Symptoms of right heart failure
JVP enlargement, Hepatomegaly, pitting oedema
183
Which medication should be used with caution in decompensated heart failure?
b-blockers - due to them reducing heart rate and force of contraction
184
Medications which help reduce mortality in heart failure (4)
ACE-is, ARBs, Aldosterone receptor antagonists, b-blockers
185
What medication can be used to reduce fluid overload in Heart failure?
Thiazide or loop diuretics
186
Describe a pseudo aortic aneurysm
A break in the aorta wall in the tunica intima but no other layers.
187
Where are most AAA's found?
below the renal arteries at the L2 level
188
Why are AAAs often found below the L2 level?
because they don't have the vasa vasorum vessels which increases the chance of ischaemia to the tunica media layer
189
Risk factors for AAA
Male, >65 years, smoking, FHx of AAA
190
When is a AAA more at risk for rupture?
When the diameter exceeds 5cm
191
Risk factors for thoracic aortic aneurysms?
hypertension, bicuspid aortic valve and CTDs such as Marfans
192
What is an aortic dissection?
a tear in the intima which creates a false lumen which is enlarged with each beat
193
Risk factors for aortic dissection?
hypertension, bicuspid aortic valve, Marfans and EDS, use of amphetamines and cocaine
194
Symptoms and signs of aortic dissection
Tearing chest pain through to the upper back, Unequal arm BP, aortic regurg murmur, widening of mediastinum on CXR
195
Treatment for Aortic dissection
Surgery if weakness is ascending aorta, b-blockers may used in descending aorta
196
Symptoms of Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?
ascites, V&D, raised haematocrit
197
What drugs increase the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?
Gonadotrophin therapy
198
What is the initial investigation in an achilles tendon rupture?
USS
199
What virus causes Fifth disease?
Parvovirus B19
200
What is another name for Fifth disease?
Slapped cheek syndrome
201
Surgery to oesophageal sphincter in achalasia?
Heller cardiomyotomy
202
What is the investigation of choice for intussusception?
Abdominal USS
203
If b-blocker doesn't control angina, what is the next management?
Calcium channel blocker
204
What effect does hypocalcaemia have on the ECG?
QTc prolongation
205
What is the commonest cause of sudden vision loss in diabetics?
Vitreous haemorrhage
206
Which ethnic group are more prone to prostate cancer?
Afro-caribbeans
207
What is De Mussets sign and what condition is it associated with?
Head bobbing, associated with aortic regurgitation
208
What is the first line treatment in ankylosing spondylitis?
NSAIDs and exercise
209
What nerve is responsible for finger adduction?
Ulnar nerve
210
What is the treatment for HER positive breast cancer?
Herceptin - aka Trastuzumab
211
Which biologic may be used in crohns and psoriasis?
Infliximab
212
Which cancer are patients on Tamoxifen most at risk of?
Endometrial cancer
213
What tumour is associated with myaesthenia gravis?
Thymomas
214
What are common complications of radical prostatectomy?
Erectile dysfunction and incontinence
215
What should you test for in a patient presenting with haemoptysis and haematuria?
Goodpasture's syndrome
216
What cancer is associated with Barretts Oesophagus?
Adenocarcinoma
217
Which cancer is associated with achalasia?
Squamous cell carcinoma
218
Symptoms of anterior uveitis?
Painful red eye, photophobia, blurred vision and hypopyon
219
Most common cause of travellers diarhoea?
e.coli
220
What is an important side-effect of amiodarone?
Thyroid dysfunction
221
What is the first line treatment in acute pericarditis?
NSAIDs and colchicine
222
What treatment is given for genital herpes?
oral aciclovir
223
What is the most common cause of sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss?
idiopathic
224
What is Libman-sacks endocarditis?
Non-bacterial endocarditis caused by antigen complexes being deposited in SLE
225
What cancer is known to cause non-bacterial endocarditis?
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
226
Which patients are most at risk for strep viridans endocarditis?
older patients with heart valve disease that have had dental treatment
227
Which patients are most at risk of staph aureus endocarditis?
IVDU and post-operative patietns
228
Which patients are most at risk of staph epidermidis endocarditis?
Those with a prosthetic valve
229
Which patietns are most at risk of enterococcal endocarditis?
Patients with a catheter
230
What is it important to look for in patients with a strep bovis endocarditis?
Colon cancer
231
4 features of tetralogy of fallot
over-riding aorta; VSD R-> L shunt, Right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis
232
Which congenital heart defect shows a boot shaped heart on CXR?
Transposition of the great vessels
233
What are two common complications of radical prostatectomy?
Erectile dysfunction and incontinence
234
If someone presents with haemoptysis and haematuria which condition should be in the differentials?
Goodpastures sydnrome
235
Which cancer is associated with Barretts oesophagus?
Adenocarcinom
236
Which cancer is associated with Achalasia?
Squamous cell carcinoma
237
What is the most common form of travellers diarhoea?
e.coli
238
What medication should not be used in children under 3 months with suspected meningitis?
Steroids
239
What is the treatment for acute pericarditis?
NSAIDs and Colchicine
240
What treatment is given for genital herpes?
Oral aciclovir
241
What is the most common cause of sudden-onset sensorineural deafness?
Idiopathic
242
What are examples of large vessel vasculitides (3)?
GCA, Temporal arteritis and takayusu
243
Which group does Takayusu arteritis affect?
Asian women under 40
244
Where does Takayusu arterities affect?
The aortic arch leading to differences in pulses/BP between each arm
245
Examples of medium vessel vasculitis?
Kawasaki disease and Beurger disease
246
Features of Kawasaki disease
Children <4 years, japanese/Asian
247
Pneumonic for Kawasaki disease?
CRASH and Burn - Conjunctival redness, rash, adenopathy, strawberry tongue, hand and foot changes and fever for >5 days
248
Treatment for Kawasaki disease?
IV Ig and Aspirin
249
Biggest risk factor for Beurger disease?
Smoking
250
What group are most affected by Beurger disease?
Male, <40yrs, ashkenazi jew, israeli, Japanese and Indian
251
What is another name for Beurger disease?
Thromboangiitis obliterans
252
c-ANCA vasculitis
GPA/Wegners
253
Which symptoms are found in Wegners vasculitis?
URTI/LRTI/Kidneys
Saddle nose, sinusitis, mastoiditis; haemoptysis, SOB, cavitating lung nodules; haematuria and RPGN with casts
254
p-ANCA vasculitis
EPA
255
Symptoms of EPA
Adult onset asthma, sinusitis, skin nodules, purpura, mononeuritis multiplex and eosinophilia
256
What is the most common cause of nail fungus?
trichophytum rubrum
257
How is c.diff diagnosed?
By the presence of c.diff stool toxin
258
What antibiotic should human and animal bites be treated with?
co-amoxiclav
259
What is tumour lysis syndrome?
Increase K, Creat, decreased PO4, Ca within 7 days of starting chemo
260
Which cancer is H.pylori associated with?
MALT gastric cancer
261
Firstline medication for depression and anxiety in breast feeding mothers?
Sertraline and Paroxetine
262
When should LMWH be started after surgery?
6-12 hours
263
When does diffuse axonal injury occur?
where the head is rapidly accelerated and deccelerated
264
Which form of pain relief should not be given in c.diff infection?
Opioids as they are anti-motility agensts
265
Which opiates are safe in severe renal impairment?
Fentanyl and buprenorphine
266
What is the mechanism of action of bromocriptine?
Dopamine agonist
267
What is the treatment of choice in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Bromocriptine
268
What can be used in vWF disease patients prior to surgery?
Desmopressin - stimulates the release of extra von willebrand factor
269
What is given as prophylaxis in migraines?
Propanolol and topiromate (propanolol preferred in non-asthmatics)
270
What is used to induce a medical abortion?
Prostaglandins and mifeprestone
271
What is the mechanism of action for Ondansetron?
5-HT3 receptor antagonist
272
A whirlpool on a female abdominal USS is indicative of?
Ovarian torsion
273
What electrolyte imbalance can be seen as a result of PPI use?
Hyponatraemia
274
Anti-scl70 is the antibodies found in which condition?
Diffuse systemic sclerosis
275
What renal condition can be causes by lithium use?
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
276
What is akathisia?
A sense of inner restlessness and inability to keep still
277
What is the treatment for tumour lysis syndrome?
Allopurinol
278
What is a granuloma annulare?
A papular lesion with a depressed centre, slightly pigmented and found on dorsum of hands and feet
279
Hypopigmented patches of skin with reduced sensation?
Leprosy
280
What is a Marjolin's ulcer?
A SCC in the context of chronic ulceration and inflammation - it will slowly continue to to grow despite treatment
281
What is the mechanism of action of calcium gluconate in hyperkalaemia?
it protects the myocardium BUT does not reduce potassium
