Key Questions Flashcards
(148 cards)
1
Q
Changes or variations of weather patterns are caused by:
A
the unequal heating of the earths surface
2
Q
Warmer air has as tendency to:
A
Rise (low pressure)
3
Q
Colder air has the tendency to:
A
settle or descend (high pressure) and replace rising warmer air
4
Q
Coriolis force
A
deflects wind to the right at higher altitudes as it rises (in northern hemisphere)
5
Q
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
A
Unequal heating of the earth’s surface
6
Q
Development of thermals depends on:
A
solar heating (thermals are updrafts in convective currents dependent on solar heating)
7
Q
The general circulation and wind rules in the Northern Hemisphere are as follows:
A
- Air circulates in a clockwise direction around a high
- Air circulates in a counterclockwise direction around a low
- The closer the isobars are together, the stronger the wind speed
- Due to surface friction (up to about 2,000ft AGL), surface winds do not exactly parallel the isobars , but move outward from the center of the high toward lower pressure
8
Q
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by:
A
cool, dense air moving inland from over the water
9
Q
What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross-country flight against a headwind?
A
The best lift/drag speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity.
When gliding into a headwind, maximum distance will be achieved by adding approximately one-half the estimated headwind velocity to the best L/D speed.
10
Q
Standard Temperature (sea level)
A
59°F (15°C)
11
Q
Standard Lapse Rate (Temperature)
A
2°C (3.5°F) per 1,000 feet
12
Q
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience:
A
an increase in temperature as altitude increases
A ground-based inversion usually means poor visibility
13
Q
Relative Humidity
A
relates the actual water vapor present in the air to that which could be present in the air. Temperature largely determines the max amount of water vapor air can hold. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cold air
14
Q
Dew Point
A
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by the water already present in the air
15
Q
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when:
A
water vapor condenses
16
Q
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
A
Evaporation and sublimation
17
Q
Ridge
A
elongated area of high pressure
18
Q
Trough
A
elongated area of low pressure. All fronts lie in troughs
19
Q
Cold Front
A
leading edge of an advancing cold air mass
20
Q
Warm Front
A
leading edge of an advancing warm air mass. Warm fronts move about half as fast as cold fronts.
21
Q
Frontal Waves and Cyclones (areas of low pressure)
A
usually form on slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
22
Q
Frontal Passage will be indicated by the following discontinuities:
A
- A temperature change (most easily recognizable)
- A continuous decrease in pressure followed by and increase as the front passes
- A shift in the wind direction, speed, or both
23
Q
Atmospheric Stability
A
the resistance of the atmosphere to vertical motion. A stable atmosphere resists any upward or downward movement. An unstable atmosphere allows an upward or downward disturbance to grow into a vertical (convective current)
24
Q
Cirrus Clouds
A
High clouds composed mainly of ice crystals - least likely to cause structural icing (since it requires water droplets)
25
Base of Cloud (formula, AGL)
= ((Surface Temp - Dew Point)/4.4) x 1,000
26
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of:
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
Precipitation from stratiform clouds is usually steady and there is little or no turbulence.
27
For a cumulonimbus cloud or thunderstorm to form, the air must have:
1. Sufficient water vapor
2. An unstable lapse rate
3. An initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion
28
The suffix "nimbus" used in naming clouds means
a rain cloud
29
Clouds are divided into 4 families according to their:
Height Range
High clouds, middle clouds, low clouds, and clouds with extensive vertical development
30
An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as:
a lenticular cloud.
Crests of standing waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as standing lenticular clouds.
31
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as:
standing lenticular clouds
32
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
Towering cumulus clouds
33
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable
34
One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and
below rotor clouds.
Rotor clouds appear to remain stationary, parallel the range, and stand a few miles leeward of the mountains. Turbulence is most frequent and most severe in and below the standing rotors just beneath the wave crests at or below mountaintop levels.
35
Squall-Line Thunderstorms
Generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft. These non-frontal, narrow bands of thunderstorms often develop ahead of a cold front.
36
Wind Shear
change in wind direction and/or speed over a very short distance in the atmosphere. This can occur at any level of the atmosphere and can be detected by the pilot as a sudden change in airspeed
37
Low-level (low-altitude) Wind Shear
Expected during strong temperature inversions, on all sides of a thunderstorm and directly below the cell.
A pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 ft. to 4,000 ft. above the surface is at least 25 knots. Can also be found near frontal activity because winds can be significantly different in the two air masses which meet to form the front.
38
Warm Front Shear
Most critical period is before the front passes.
Warm front shear may exist below 5,000 ft. for about 6 hours before surface passage of the front. Wind shear associated with a warm front is usually more extreme than that found in cold fronts.
39
Cold Front Shear
Shear associated with cold fronts is usually found behind the front. If the front is moving at 30 knots or more, the shear zone will be 5,000 feet above the surface 3 hours after frontal passage.
40
Fog
A surface-based cloud (restricting visibility) composed of either water droplets or ice crystals. Fog may form by cooling the air to its dew point or by adding moisture to the air near the ground.
A small temperature/dew point spread is essential to the formation of fog. An abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products makes fog prevalent in industrial areas.
41
Radiation fog (ground fog)
formed when terrestrial radiation cools the ground, which in turn cools the air in contact with it. When the air is cooled to its dew point (or within a few degrees), fog will form. This fog will form most readily in warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm (no wind) nights.
42
Advection fog (Sea fog)
formed when warm, moist air moves (wind is required) over colder ground or water (e.g., an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter).
43
Upslope fog
formed when moist, stable air is cooled to its dew point as it moves (wind is required) up sloping terrain. Cooling will be at the dry adiabatic lapse rate of approximately 3°C per 1,000 ft.
44
Precipitation (rain or drizzle)-induced fog
most commonly associated with frontal activity and is formed by relatively warm drizzle or rain falling through cooler air. Evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air and fog forms. This fog is especially critical because it occurs in the proximity of precipitation and other possible hazards such as icing, turbulence, and thunderstorms.
45
Steam Fog
forms in the winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in a steam fog.
46
Frost
ice deposits formed by sublimation on a surface when the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and the dew point is below freezing.
47
Which is true with respect to a high or low pressure system?
A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
48
IFR Conditions
Ceiling less than 1,000 ft. and/or visibility less than 3 miles
49
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the:
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
50
Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs)(UA) Form
```
/OV - Location
/TM - Time
/FL - Altitude/Flight Level
/TP - Aircraft Type
/SK - Sky Cover
/WX - Flight Visibility and Weather
/TA - Temperature (°C)
/WV - Wind
/TB - Turbulence
/IC - Icing
/RM - Remarks
```
(see ASA 7 - 5 for full list of nomenclature)
51
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
Concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions at an airport during a specified period (usually 24 hours). TAFs use the same code used in the METAR weather reports.
TAFs are issued in the following format:
TYPE/LOCATION/ISSUANCE TIME/VALID TIME/FORECAST
52
What does "SHRA" stand for in a TAF?
Rain Showers
"SH" - Showers
"RA" - Rain
53
The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is:
Cumulonimbus clouds
54
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region, the pilot should refer to:
The Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA)
GFA's are intended to provide the necessary aviation weather info to give users a complete picture of the weather that may impact flight in the continental U.S. (CONUS)
55
Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB)
Displayed in a 6-digit format (DDffTT)
DD = Wind Direction
ff = Wind Velocity
TT = Temperatore (C)
Ex: "234502" = Winds 230° true north, at 45kts, 02°C
When the wind speed (ff) is between 100 and 199 knots, the wind direction (DD) portion of the code will be greater than 50. In cases such as this, you will need to subtract 50 from the coded wind direction, and add 100 to the coded wind speed in order to decipher the code.
Example: "734502" = winds 230° at 145 knots, temp 02°C
Light and variable winds or wind speeds below 5 knots are indicated by 9900, followed by the forecast temperature.
56
Observed Wind Aloft Chart
Shows temperature, wind direction, and speed at slected stations
Arrows with pennants and barbs indicate wind direction and speed. Each pennant is 50 knots, each barb is 10 knots, and each half barb is 5 knots. Wind direction is shown by an arrow drawn to the nearest 10 degrees with the second digit of the coded direction entered at the outer end of the arrow. Thus, a wind in the northwest quadrant with the digit 3 indicates 330 degrees, and a wind in the southwest quadrant with the digit 3 indicates 230 degrees.
57
When the term "light and variable" is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is:
When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and reads "light and variable" on the Winds Aloft Forecast.
58
AIRMETs (WA)
contain info on weather that may be hazardous to single engine, other light aircraft, and VFR pilots. The items covered are moderate icing or turbulence, sustained winds of 30 knots or more at the surface, widespread areas of IFR conditions, and extensive mountain obscurement.
59
SIGMETs (WS)
advise of weather potentially hazardous to all aircraft, The items covered are severe icing, severe or extreme turbulence, and widespread sandstorms, dust storms or volcanic ash lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
60
SIGMENT/AIRMET Broadcasting Frequency
Both broadcast upon receipt and at 30-minute intervals (H + 15 and H+45) during the first hour. If the advisory is still in effect after the first hour, an alert notice will be broadcast. Pilots may contact the nearest FSS to ascertain whether the advisory is pertinent to their flights.
61
Convective SIGMETs (WST)
cover weather developments such as tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms, and they also imply severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear. When a SIGMET forecasts embedded thunderstorms, it indicates that the thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued hourly at H + 55. Unscheduled convective SIGMETs are broadcast upon receipt and at 15-minute intervals for the first hour (H + 15; H + 30; H + 45)
62
Convective SIGMET Implications
Any convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low-level wind shear. The forecast may be issued for any of the following:
Severe thunderstorms due to-
1. Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots
2. Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inch in diameter
3. Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms
63
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request:
a standard briefing.
You should request a standard briefing any time you are planning a flight and you have not received a previous briefing.
64
Which type whether briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
Standard Briefing.
You should request a standard briefing any time you are planning a flight and you have not received a previous briefing.
65
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
An abbreviated briefing.
Request an abbreviated briefing when you need information to supplement mass disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two specific items.
66
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request:
an abbreviated briefing.
Request an abbreviated briefing when you need information to supplement mass disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two specific items.
67
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is:
an Outlook Briefing.
You should request an outlook briefing whenever our proposed time of departure is 6 or more hours from the time of the briefing. This type of briefing is provided for planning purposes only. You should obtain a standard or abbreviated briefing prior to departure in order to obtain such items as current conditions, updated forecasts, winds aloft and NOTAMs.
68
LAHSO
"Land And Hold Short Operations"
Involve landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway.
69
The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates:
A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
70
Rotating Beacon (White and Green)
Lighted land airport
71
Rotating Beacon (Green alone)
Lighted land airport
72
Rotating Beacon (White and yellow)
Lighted water airport
73
Rotating Beacon (Yellow alone)
Lighted water airport
74
Rotating Beacon (Green, yellow, white)
Lighted heliport
75
Radio control of runway lighting
Airport lighting is controlled by keying the aircraft's microphone:
- Keying the microphone 7 times within 5 seconds will turn the lighting to its highest intensity
- 5 times in 5 secs = medium intensity
- 3 times in 5 seconds = low intensity
76
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:
blue omnidirectional lights
77
A lighted heliport may be identified by a:
Green, yellow, and white rotating beacon
78
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits:
two quick, white flashes between green flashes
79
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
a lighting system arranged so as to provide visual descent guidance information during approach to a runway. The lights are visible for up to 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more at night.
The VASI glide path provides obstruction clearance, while lateral guidance is provided by the runway or runway lights. When operating to an airport with an operating control tower, the pilot of an airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a VASI is required to maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for landing.
80
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
Uses a single row of lights
| Four white = too high
81
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the:
longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
82
What flight visibility do you need in order to perform an acrobatic maneuver?
3 miles
83
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate
The additional documents on board must be the operating limitations, in the form of an approved flight manual, markings, or placards, and the Registration Certificate.
84
Static Pressure (Ambient Pressure)
Always present whether an aircraft is moving or at rest. It is simply the barometric pressure in the local area.
85
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be:
Steady Red
86
In conducting a preflight, the PIC's responsibility is to use:
The most current weight and balance data
87
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is crossing to the left
A steady red light is positioned on the left wing tip and a flashing red beacon light would be positioned such that it is visible in most directions. If these two lights are visible, the aircraft is crossing to the left.
If the aircraft were approaching head-on, the steady green light on the right wingtip would be visible to the left of the steady red light.
88
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from:
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
For the purposes of recent experience, night flight begins one hour after sunset and ends one hour before sunrise.
89
While operating under BasicMed, the pilot in command must have visited their primary care physician within the preceding:
48 calendar months.
To operate under BasicMed, the pilot must receive a comprehensive medical examination from a State-licensed physician during the 48 months before acting as pilot in command of an operation conducted under 61.113.
90
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
Upon request.
If the PIC deviates from a rule he shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
91
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-towered airport?
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in FAR 93.
92
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during:
that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
No person may operate civil aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required minimum flight crew uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes duration.
93
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of:
15,000 feet MSL
94
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as:
altitude increases.
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases with altitude because air pressure decreases and the body has difficulty getting oxygen. Add carbon monoxide, which further deprives the body of oxygen, and the situation can become critical.
95
Which will almost always affect your ability to fly?
A. OTC analgesics and antihistamines
B. Antibiotics and anesthetic drugs
C. Prescription analgesics and antihistamines
Answer: C
96
As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the susceptibility of dehydration since the:
dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body.
97
Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)
systemic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.
98
ADM Process (Steps for good decision making):
1. Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight
2. Learning behavior modification techniques
3. Learning how to recognize and cope with stress
4. Developing risk assessment skills
5. Using all resources in a multicrew situation
6. Evaluating the effectiveness of one's ADM skills
99
Duck-Under Syndrome
The tendency to sneak a peek by descending below minimums during an approach. Based on a belief that there is always a built-in "fudge" factor that can be used or on an unwillingness to admit defeat and shoot a missed approach.
100
Scud Running
Pushing the capabilities of the pilot and the aircraft to the limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain while trying to avoid physical contact with it. This attitude is characterized by the old pilot's joke: "If it's too bad to go IFR, we'll go VFR."
101
5 Types of Hazardous attitudes:
1. Antiauthority (don't tell me!)
2. Impulsivity (do something quickly)
3. Invulnerability (it won't happen to me)
4. Macho (I can do it)
5. Resignation (what's the use?)
102
DECIDE Model for decision making
1. Detect - decisionmaker detects the fact that change has occurred
2. Estimate - decisionmaker estimates the need to counter or react to the change.
3. Choose - decisionmaker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight.
4. Identify - identify actions which could successfully control the change.
5. Do - take the necessary action
6. Evaluate - evaluate effect of action countering the change
103
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.
104
Atmospheric Haze
reduces the ability to see traffic or terrain during flight, making all features appear to be farther away than they actually are.
105
Scanning
Key factor in collision avoidance. Pilots must develop effective scanning techniques that mazimize visual capabilities.
Because the eyes focus only on a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least one second. At night, scan slowly to permit the use of off-center vision.
106
Most midair collision accidents occur during:
clear days.
81% midair collisions occurred in clear skies.
107
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
Sunset to Sunrise.
108
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within:
10 miles of any airport or in conditions of reduced visibility and in areas where flocks of birds may be expected.
109
Pilots must operate the anti-collision lights:
day and night, except when the PIC determines that they constitute a hazard to safety.
110
Latitude
The lines running east and west, parallel to the equator. Used to measure angular distance north or south of the equator.
111
Prime Meridian
Used as the zero degree longitude line, passes through Greenwich, England. From this line, measurements are made in degrees both easterly and westerly up to 180°
112
True Course
Determined by measuring the course on an aeronautical chart
113
True Airspeed
Calculated by applying the appropriate correction (wind) to the indication of the airspeed indicator.
114
Controlled Airspace
airspace within which some or all aircraft may be subject to air traffic control, consists of those areas designated as Class A, B, C, D, and E airspace.
Much of the controlled airspace begins at either 700 ft or 1,200 feet above the ground.
115
Class A Airspace
extends from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600 and is not depicted on VFR sectional charts. No flight under VFR, including VFR-On-Top, is authorized in Class A airspace.
116
Class B Airspace
Consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to specified altitudes. Each Class B airspace sector, outlined in blue on the sectional aeronautical chart, is labeled with delimiting altitudes.
Each Class B airspace location will contain at least one primary airport. An ATC clearance is required prior to operating within Class B airspace. A pilot landing or taking off from one of a group of 12 specific, busy airports must hold at least a PPL certificate. At other airports, a student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace or to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace unless both ground and flight instruction has been received from an authorized instructor to operate within that Class B airspace or at that airport, and the flight and ground instruction has been received within that Class B airspace or at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized.
Each airplane operating within Class B airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio with appropriate ATC frequencies, and a 4096 code transponder with Mode C automatic altitude-reporting capability.
117
Class C Airspace
All Class C airspace has the same dimensions with minor site variations - they are composed of two circles both centered on the primary airport.
The inner circle (now called surface area) has a radius of 5 NM's and extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport.
The outer circle (now called shelf area) has a radius of 10 NMs and extends vertically from 1,200 ft AGL up to 4,000 ft above the primary airport.
There is an outer area with a radius of 20 NM's and vertical coverage from the lower limits of the radio/radar coverage up to the top of the approach control facility's delegated airspace. Within the outer area, pilots are encouraged to participate but it is not a VFR requirement.
Aircraft departing satellite airports within Class C airspace shall establish two-way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
On aeronautical charts, Class C airspace is depicted by solid magenta lines.
118
Class D Airspace
extends upward from the surface to approximately 2,500 feet AGL (the actual height is as needed). May include one or more airports and is normally 4 NM's in radius.
The actual size and shape is depicted by a blue dashed line and numbers showing the top.
When the ceiling of Class D airspace is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 statute miles, pilots wishing to take off or land must hold an instrument rating, must have filed an instrument flight plan, and must have received an appropriate clearance from ATC.
119
Class E Airspace
Magenta shading identifies Class E airspace starting at 700 feet AGL, and no shading (or blue if next to Class G airspace) identifies Class E airspace starting at 1,200 feet AGL. It may also start at other altitudes.
All airspace from 14,500 feet to 17,999 feet is Class E airspace.
It also includes the surface area of some airports with an instrument approach but no control tower.
120
Class G Airspace
Airspace within which ATC has neither the authority nor responsibility to exercise any control over air traffic. Class G airspace typically extends from the surface to the base of the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace which is normally 700 or 1,200 feet.
In some areas of the western US and Alaska, Class G airspace may extend from the surface to 14,500 feet MSL. An exception to this rule occurs when 14,500 feet MSL is lower than 1,500 feet AGL.
121
Prohibited Areas
blocks of airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
122
Restricted Areas
denote the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of Restricted Areas without authorization of the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.
123
Warning Areas
contain the same hazardous activities as those found in Restricted Areas, but are located in international airspace. Prohibited, Restricted, or warning areas are depicted as shown in FAA legend 1.
124
Military Operations Areas (MOAs)
airspace established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an active MOA. Any Flight Service Station (FSS) within 100 miles of the aire will provide info concerning MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.
125
Alert Areas
may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. Pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
Aircraft are requested to remain at least 2,000 feet above the surface of National Parks, National Monuments, Wilderness and Primitive Areas, and National Wildlife Refuges.
126
Military Training Routes (MTRs)
developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high-speed training. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
127
IFR Military Training Routs (IR)
operations are conducted in accordance with IFR, regardless of weather conditions.
IR and VR at and below 1,500 feet AGL (with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL) will be identified by four digit numbers, e.g., VR1351, IR1007.
IR and VR above and below 1,500 feet AGL (segments of these routes may be below 1,500) will be identified by three digit numbers, e.g., IR341, VR426
128
VFR Military Training Routes (VR)
operations are conducted in accordance with VFRs.
IR and VR at and below 1,500 feet AGL (with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL) will be identified by four digit numbers, e.g., VR1351, IR1007.
IR and VR above and below 1,500 feet AGL (segments of these routes may be below 1,500) will be identified by three digit numbers, e.g., IR341, VR426
129
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only:
When the associated control tower is in operation.
Class D airspace means a control tower is in operation. If the tower closes, it reverts to Class E airspace.
130
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on:
The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
131
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the:
primary airport's control tower.
132
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
Radio contact is required to operate in Class C airspace, but permission is not required.
133
The radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace is normally:
20NM
134
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least:
1,000 feet and 3 miles
135
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landings or takeoffs:
at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
136
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from:
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
137
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not iclude:
18,000 feet MSL
138
VOR Airways
The routes established between VORs are depicted by blue-tinted bands showing the airway number following the letter "V," and are called "Victor airways"
When approaching a VOR where airways converge, a pilot must exercise extreme vigilance for other aircraft. In addition, when climbing or descending VFR on an airway, it is considered good operating practice to execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
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VOR Receiver Check Points
VOR receiver accuracy may be checked by means of a VOR Test Facility (VOT), ground check points, or airborne check points.
VOT's transmit only the 360° radial signal. Thus, when the OBS is set to 360°, the CDI will center with a FROM indication; while the reciprocal, 180° will cause the CDI to center with a TO indication.
An accuracy factor of plus or minus 4° is allowed when using a VOT facility.
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When the CDI needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read:
0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT.
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If receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in flight:
the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
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How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution?
4.
The GPS receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution.
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An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to:
Exercise extreme caution
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Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
Flashing Green
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If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be:
Steady red.
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A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to:
return to the starting point on the airport.
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While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should:
exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
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Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)
developed as a means of locating downed aircraft. Transmitting on 406MHz, the ELT will operate continuously for at least 48 hours.
To prevent false alarms, the ELT should be tested only during the first 5 minutes after any hour and only for one to three sweeps. False alarms can also be minimized by monitoring 406MHz prior to engine shutdown at the end of each flight.
Non-rechargeable batteries used in ELTs must be replaced when 50% of their useful life has expired, or when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
