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Comp 9 exam > Key Terms > Flashcards

Key Terms Flashcards

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1
Q

Labetalol initial dose

A

0.1 - 0.5 mg/kg

5-10 mg

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2
Q

Dobutamine infusion dose

A

0.5 - 20 mcg/kg/min

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3
Q

What type of diuretic is Furosemide?

A

Works on the ascending loop of henle

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4
Q

What is the loading dose for amiodarone?

A

300 mg for cardiac arrest

150 mg for dysrhythmias

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5
Q

Insulin infusion dose

A

0.5 - 3 units / hr

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6
Q

Drugs that must be protected from light (2)

A 
SNP 
Nifedipine (Ca channel blocker)
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7
Q

PMI location

A

5th intercostal space, midclavicular line

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8
Q

Fibrinogin normal values

A

1.5 - 3 g/L

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9
Q

How do you assess tricuspid regurgitation with a PA catheter?

A

CVP in right atrium

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10
Q

What is at risk during left IJV cannulation?

A

Thoracic duct injury

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11
Q

What are physical signs associated with hypocalcemia? (8)

A 
Chvostek's sign
Trousseau's sign 
Hypotension
Mental status changes
Laryngospasm
Dysrhythmias
Long QT interval
Heart block
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12
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

> 25 mmHg

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13
Q

Convert C to Farenheit

A

9/5 C + 32

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14
Q

What is the propofol infusion dose for a TIVA?

A

100-200 mcg/kg/min

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15
Q

What are the side effects of HCTZ? (7)

A 
Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
Orthostatic hypotension
Dysrhythmias
Hypokalemia
Hypovolemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia
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16
Q

What is the maximum flow rate from oxygen flush valve?

A

75 L/min

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17
Q

What is the correct positions for the V5 EKG lead?

A

5th left intercostal, anterior axillary line

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18
Q

What are the side effects of meperidine? (4)

A

Anti-muscarinic
Tachycardia
Seizures
Itching

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19
Q

Vasoactive infusion that can cause tachyphylaxis?

A

SNP

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20
Q

What sympathomimetics have negligible beta-2 action? (2)

A

Norepi

Methoxamine

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21
Q

What is the infusion rate for epi?

A

4-10 mcg/min

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22
Q

What is the S1 heart sound?

A

closure of mitral and trucuspid valves at beginning of systole

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23
Q

How is the liver perfused and oxygenated?

A

Portal vein supplies 75% of blood flow and 25% of O2

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24
Q

What are the contraindications for droperidol? (2)

A

Parkinson’s disease

Prolonged QT interval

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25
Oxygen tension in the heart
P02, decr in tension causes local vasodilation in order to maintain contractility and O2 delivery to poorly perfused tissue
26
NTGs mechanism of action
Increases NO release from tissues | Upregulated cGMP
27
Why does propofol appear white?
Scattering of light from oil droplets
28
What is the time of infusion for vancomycin
45 min - 1 hour
29
What is the action of hydromorphone?
mu agonist | 8x as potent as morphine but shorter acting
30
What is normal bicarbonate level?
22-29 mEq/L
31
What can aintree be used for during FFOB? (2)
HPOV | intubating stylet for ETT
32
What does COPD look like on flow volume loop?
Flattened expiration loop (top portion)
33
What disease is associated with click-murmur?
mitral valve prolapse
34
What is anisocoria?
unequal pupils | CN 3,4, and 6
35
What is ASA I, II, III, IV?
``` I: No systemic disturbances II: Mild to moderate III: Severe IV: Life threatening V: Moribund VI: Organ donor ```
36
Bandwidth for EKG for monitoring?
0.05 - 150 Hz
37
Where do you listen to the aorta?
Right of sternum | 2nd interspace
38
Hematocrit definition?
% of RBCs in whole blood
39
What does carboxyhemoglobin do to pulse ox? | Methemoglobin?
falsely high 90% | falsely high 85%
40
What are peaked waves on EKG indicate?
hyperkalemia
41
What is the volume/pressure of O2 cylinder?
660 L | 2200 psi
42
What is the pressure of N2O cyclinder?
745 psi
43
Reference point for CPP monitoring?
External auditory meatus
44
Normal A-a on RA?
4 + age/4
45
Normal A-a not on RA?
FiO2 * 5
46
PAO2 formula
FiO2 *(760-47) - (PaCO2/0.8)
47
What drug increases photo sensitivity?
Amiodarone
48
What drugs are prone to tachyphylaxis? (4)
SNP Local anesthetic Ephedrine Dopamine
49
What are the signs of hypokalemia? (5)
``` U waves ST depression flattened t waves weakness prolonged NMB ```
50
Core temperature can be reliably assessed from what locations even during CPB? (4)
Pulmonary artery Esophagus Tympanic membrane Nasopharynx
51
What type of heat transfer is responsible for the majority of heat loss to the environment? Then, what are the remaining factors from greatest to least?
Radiation Convection Conduction Evaporation
52
Most patients lose __-___C in the first hour.
1 - 1.5 C
53
What is the initial phase of cooling?
redistribution
54
What are the phases of cooling?
Initial redistribution Phase I: Core temperature decreases in 1st hour Phase II: Heat loss to environment Phase III: Plateau when heat loss equals heat production (steady state)
55
Perioperative hypothermia results in ___-fold increase in wound infections and ___ day increase in hospital stay.
3 fold | 2 day
56
What is the thermoregulatory threshold for shivering decreased to for general anesthesia?
34.5*C
57
Propofol-nitrous decreases threshold further to ___*C.
33
58
What increases risk for hypothermia?
Old, short, low pre-op BP
59
What are the consequences of hypothermia? (8)
``` Increased infection Mortality Arrhythmias Ischemia and angina Decreased drug metabolism Decreased platelet function Decreased activation of clotting cascade Increased blood loss ```
60
How much decrease in *C is neuroprotective?
1-3
61
What is first to cool and first to rewarm during CPB and not best temperature site?
esophageal
62
Do not use warming devices on what areas? (3)
Leg warmer during AAA cross clamp Extremity warmer with tourniquet Lead warming during CPB

Comp 9 exam (3 decks)

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