KIN 405 Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What % of Canadians aren’t active enough to achieve the health benefits they need from physical activity?

A

~50-63%

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2
Q

What is obesity?

A

The accumulation of an excessive amount of fatty or adipose tissue…the presence of this excess fat impairs the functioning of many important organs and body systems and can lead to multiple health problems, even death

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3
Q

Even though BMI doesn’t take LBM into account, why is it widely used to assess body composition?

A

Easy to do and most of the published literature uses it

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4
Q

Even though BMI isn’t the best measure of body comp, is it well correlated with TBF%?

A

Yes

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5
Q

What is the prevalence of overweight and obese in Canadian adults?

A

58.8% in 2004

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6
Q

Why hasn’t there been that much of a change in overweight/obesity in the last ten years?

A

We aren’t getting fatter or obese people are dying sooner

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7
Q

What are the contributing factors to obesity?

A

Activity levels (impact on systems controlling food storage and energy use), diet (over consumption of foods rich in fat and calories), genetic predisposition more likely to store energy as fat, more vulnerable to negative effects of poor diet and limited exercise, metabolism (age, disease), endocrine dysfunction (relatively uncommon), environment (cultural eating habits, availability of healthy food and gyms), social, economics, and psychological and behavorial

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8
Q

How do genetics influence obesity?

A

Can determine resting metabolic rate, response to exercise, and nutrition

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9
Q

What is energy balance?

A

Enregy in = energy out = weight maintenence

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10
Q

What is an energy imbalance leading to obesity?

A

Energy in > energy out = storage of excess energy as body fat (TAG)

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11
Q

Central obesity?

A

Fat deposition principally over the abdomen and upper body (android; visceral adiposity. Worse because it surrounds organs and impairs their function

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12
Q

Peripheral obesity?

A

Fat distribution is more peripheral, often around the hips and gluteal region (gynoid)

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13
Q

4 compartments of abdominal obesity

A

Visceral, retroperitoneal, subcutaneous, and intramuscular

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14
Q

WC for assessing abdominal obesity?

A

> 102 cm for men and >88 cm for women…varies with ethnicity

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15
Q

Total abdominal fat as a risk factor?

A

Total abdominal fat appears to be an independent risk factor even when BMI is not markedly increased…decrease in visceral adiposity with exercise can reduce these risks

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16
Q

Why visceral adiposity so harmful?

A

VAT is more metabolically active and is linked to accelerated mobilization of fatty acids to the portal system due to increased rate of lipolysis in visceral fat cells

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17
Q

What are undesirable effects of elevated portal free fatty acids?

A

Glucose intolerance, dyslipidemia, hyperinsulinemia (likely the result of abnormal hormonal regulation of lipolysis)

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18
Q

Sarcopenia

A

Loss of muscle, low musclarity

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19
Q

What is sarcopenic obesity?

A

Increased fat depots results in impairments of various organs including muscle. Increased risk of simultaneous loss of muscle and gain of fat tissue = SARCOPENIC OBESITY

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20
Q

Normal fasting glucose

A

< 6.0 mM

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21
Q

Prediabetic fasting glucose

A

6.0-7.0 mM

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22
Q

Type 2 Diabetes fasting glucose

A

> or equal to 7.0 mM

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23
Q

OGTT normal blood glucose

A

< 7.8 mM after 2 hrs

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24
Q

OGTT perdiabetic blood glucose

A

7.8-11.0 mM after 2 hrs

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25
Q

OGTT Type II diabetes blood glucse

A

> or equal to 11.1 mM after 2 hrs

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26
Q

Gestational diabetes?

A

Temporary condition that occurs during pregnancy, affects ~3.5% of all pregnancies, increaased risk of developing diabetes for both the mother and child

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27
Q

What can diabetes cause if left untreated?

A

Heart disease, kidney, eye disease, problems with an erection, nerve damage. Damage is related to glycation of proteins in the basement membrane and damage to endothelial cells

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28
Q

Diabetes risk factors?

A

Ethnic background (Aboroginal, Hispanic, Asian, South Asian or African descent), overweight/obese, family history (parent, brother or sister), health ocmplication associated with diabetes, giving birth to a baby >4 kg, had gestational diabetes, impaired glucose intolerance or impaired fasting glucose, high blood pressure, high cholesterol or other fats in the blood

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29
Q

How can improve muscle metabolism?

A

Enhances glucose uptake and lipolysis/fatty acid uptake

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30
Q

Risk factors for CVD?

A

High blood pressure, smoking, high cholesterol, diabetes or high blood sugar, low physical activity, stress, obesity, diet, and excess alcohol consumption

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31
Q

% of Canadian adults with hypertension?

A

22% (40% are above >55)

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32
Q

What are the mmHg for hypertension?

A

> 140 mmHg and 90 mmHg on two separate occasions

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33
Q

Prehypertension?

A

120-139 mmHg and 80-89 mmHg

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34
Q

Hypertension for diabetes or kidney disease?

A

130/80 mmHg

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35
Q

BP readings to not allow someone to exercise?

A

> 144 mmHg and/or >94 mmHg after 2 readings separated by 5 minutes of quiet resting

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36
Q

Factors that influence BP

A

Sedentary lifestyle, unhealthy diet (too little of fresh fruit, veggies, and low fat dairy products), too much salt and saturated fats, being overweight, excess alcohol, and stress

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37
Q

Standardized technique for measuring BP

A

1) no caffeine in the preceding hour 2) no smoking or nictomine 15-30 minutes prior 3) no use of substances containing adrenergic stimulants such as phenylephrine or pseudoephedrine 4) bladder and bowel comfortable, quiet environment 6) no tight clothing 7) no acure anxiety, stress or pain 8) patient should stay silent prior and during the procedure

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38
Q

Posture for BP

A

calmy deated for 5 minutes, back well supported, arm supported at heart level, feet touching the floor, no talking

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39
Q

Sources of error in BP meausrement

A

inaccurate device, improper cuff length or width, cuff not centred, too loose or over clothing, arm unsupported or elbow below heart level, poor auditory acuity of physician, improper stethoscope position or pressure, expecation bias, slow reaction time of technician, error in reading, noise, client holding bars of treadmill or bike

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40
Q

Pharmacological things that lower BP

A

diurectis (decrease excess salt and fluid in body, beta blockers (decrease HR band CO by clokcing beta adrenergic receptors), sympathetic nerve inhibitors (prevent arteriole constriction), vasodilators (induce relaxation in arterial smooth muscle), ACE inhibitors (decreease arteriole constriction by disrupting angiotensin production), calcium channel blockers (reduce herat contractility)

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41
Q

Non-pharmacological things that lower BP

A

sodium resitricted diet, weight loss, restricted alcohol intake, exercise

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42
Q

Dyslipidemia?

A

Higher than normal levels of total cholesterol, higher than normal LDL cholesterol, lower than normal HDL cholesterol, or higher than normal TG levels…Metabolic disorder that is secondary to many diseases including atherosclerosis and cardiovascular disease

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43
Q

LDL-C?

A

Low density lipoprotein cholesterol—bad cholesterol, high levels in the blood can stimulate plaque (fatty deposits) formation in blood vessel walls –> atherosclerosis

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44
Q

HDL-C?

A

“Good” cholesterol, helps carry LDL away from blood vessel walls and removing it from the body

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45
Q

TGs

A

Trigylcerides, most common fat in our bodies, food intake: increase risk of blood clots. Increased TGs in food determine the amount of cholesterol more so than high cholesterol foods in the body

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46
Q

Key secondary causes of dylipidemia

A

Diet (saturated fat and cholesterol in food), weight (being overweight tends to increase your cholesterol, particularly abdominal obesity), physical inactivity (regular exercise can help lower LDL-C and raise HDL-C). Others: kidney disease (nephrotic syndrome), hypothyroidism, anorexia nervosa, family history

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47
Q

Canadian 2003 guidelines for people that are recommended for regular lipid profile testing

A

Males >40 years, Females >50 years and/or postmenopausal, diagnosed with heart disease, diabetes, or high BP, abdominally obese, smokers, individuals with strong family history of heart disease

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48
Q

Total cholesterol cutoff

A

<5.2 mM (200 mg/dL)

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49
Q

LDL-C cutoff

A

< 3.5 mM (about 130 mg/dL)

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50
Q

HDL-C cutoff

A

> 1.0 mM for men and >1.2 mM for women

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51
Q

TG cutoff

A

<1.7 mM

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52
Q

TC/HDL-C cutoff

A

<5.0 mM

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53
Q

Metabolic syndrome?

A

A cluster of symptoms combined may be defined as clinical condition –> now also referred to as cariometabolic syndrome. Combination of CVD risk factors associated with hypertenion, insulin resistance, dylipidemia and abdominal obesity

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54
Q

Prevalence of MS in Canada?

A

17.5% male adults; 11.2% female adults

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55
Q

Generic cutpoints for MS diagnosis?

A

Central obesity plus any 2 of the following 4 factors: raised BP (>130/85 mmHg or treatment of previously diagnosed hypertension), raised fasting plasma glucose (>100 mg/dL/5,6 mM or previously diagnosed Type II Diabetes), raised TGs (>150 mg/dL/1.6mM or specific treatment for this lipid abnormality), HDL-C (<50 mg/dL/1.29 mM females)

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56
Q

Key risk factors for cancer

A

Genetics, physical inactivity, diet, weight, environmental factors

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57
Q

Body composition changes (increased fat and loss of muscle) and their implications

A

Decreased treatment response, increased treatment toxicity, morbidity in surviorship and decreased survival, increased disease recurrence

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58
Q

How much exercise do people need?

A

To achieve health benefits, adults aged 18-64 years should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate to vigourous intensity aerobic physical activity per week in bouts of 10 minutes or more

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59
Q

Volume of physical activity needed to improve TGs 0% to 40%

A

250 kcal/wk

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60
Q

Volume of physical activity needed to improve HDL-C 0-40%

A

1800 kcal/wk

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61
Q

Volume of physical activity needed to improve BP by 40%

A

~600 kcal/wk

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62
Q

Volume of physical activity needed to improve body composition by 40%

A

1200 kcal/wk

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63
Q

CSEP-PATH 5 As?

A

Ask, assess, advise, agree, assist/arrange

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64
Q

What are the objectives for ASK in the PATH model?

A

Get to know your client by screening for readiness, establish a rapport, father information about goals, find their physical activity background, and knowledge/level of interest

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65
Q

What does the ask section consist of?

A

Preliminary meeting and first meethig, explanation of events, review prlimiary instructions for clients, informed consent, and PAR-Q+ and related questionnaires

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66
Q

Components of a consent form?

A

Explanation of the test, risks and discomforts, responsibilities of the participant, benefits to be expected, how information will be used and stored, and freedom of participation of withdrawal

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67
Q

The do’s of a consent form?

A

Explain clearly in layman’s terms, encourage questions and provide time to think about it and discuss with others; include all signatures: yours, client’s, witness’s; appreciate the importance of this step

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68
Q

The don’ts of a consent form

A

Don’t downplay risks and don’t assume they understand it or even read it

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69
Q

What info do you gather in an assessment?

A

Medical history (past and present, family health, focus on conditions that may need medical attention, information to help determine the risk of classification), lifestyle and preferences information, and goals of client (not YOUR goals)

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70
Q

Why gather information?

A

1) Understand any medical considerations which will help confirm whether physician approval is required 2) Disease risk classificaion 3) understand what the client wants to accomplish and how you will make it feasible

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71
Q

Examples of cardiovascular diseases

A

hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, heart murmur, myocardial infarction, fainting or dizziness, claudication, chest pain, palpatations, ischemia, tachycardia, ankle edema, stroke

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72
Q

Examples of pulmonary diseaes

A

asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, nocturnal dyspnea, coughing up blood, exercise induced asthma, breathlessness during/after mild exertion

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73
Q

Examples of metabolic diseases

A

diabetes, obesity, glucose intolerance, McArdle’s syndrome, hypoglycemia, thyroid disease, cirrohosis

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74
Q

Examples of musculoskeletal problems

A

osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, low back pain, prosthesis, muscular atrophy, swollen joints, orthopedic pain, artificial joints

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75
Q

Absolute contraindications to exercise testing

A

1) Recent significant change in testing ECG suggesting significant ischemia, recent MI (within 2 days), or other acute cardiac events 2) Unstable angina 3) Uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias causing symptoms or hemodynamic compromise 4) Unctrolled symptomatic heart failure 5) Acute infections 6) severe symptomatic aortic stenosis 7) suspected or known aneurysm 8) acute myocarditis or pericarditis 9) acute pulmonary embolus or pulmonary infarction

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76
Q

Relative contraindications to exercise testing

A

1) Left main coronary stenosis 2) Moderate stenotic valvular disease 3) Known electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia) 4) Severe arterial hypertension; resting DBP >110 an’or resting systolic >200 5) Tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrythymias 6) Hypertrophic cardiomypothathy or other forms of outflow tract obstruction 7) High degree AV block 8) Ventricular aneursym 9) Uncontrolled metabolic disease 10) Chronic infectious disease (AIDS, hepatitis) 11) Neuromuscular, musculoskeletal, or rheumatoid disorders that are exacerbated by exercise

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77
Q

CHD risk factors (not specifics)

A

family history, cigarette smoking, hypertension, dyslipidemia, impaired fasting glucose, obesity, physical inactivity

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78
Q

CHD risk factor family history

A

MI or sudden death in male relative (father or first degree relative) <65 yr

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79
Q

CHD risk factor cigarette smoking

A

current or smoking cessation <6 months

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80
Q

CHD risk factor hypertension

A

SBP >140 mmHg and/or DBP >90 mmHg on 2 separate occasions

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81
Q

CHD risk factor dyslipidemia

A

TC >200 mg/dL, HDL-C 130 mg/dL, or on lipid lowering medication

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82
Q

CHD risk factor impaired fasting glucose

A

fasting glucose >110 mg/dL on 2 separate occasions

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83
Q

CHD risk factor for obesity

A

BMI >30 kg/m2 or waist circumference >102 cm or >88cm

84
Q

CHD risk factor for physical inactivity

A

< 30 min moderate physical activity most days/wk

85
Q

Criteria for low CHD risk

A

Individuals who are asymptomatic with <1 major risk factor, risk of acute CV event is low

86
Q

Moderate CHD risk classification

A

individuals who have >2 major risk factors, risk of acute CV event is increased

87
Q

High CHD risk classification

A

Individuals who have >1 sign or symptom of CV, pulmonary, or metabolic disease or with known cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease

88
Q

For what conditions is a medical exam and an exercise test recommended prior to initiating an exercise program?

A

Moderate risk for vigorous activity and high risk for both moderate (3-6 METS, 40% VO2) and vigorous (> 6 METs, >60% VO2)

89
Q

When should a physician supervise the exercise test?

A

For maximal/peak test for moderate and high risk and for a submaximal test for high risk

90
Q

Refer to a physician for physical exam and medical clearance if:

A

Absolute or relative contraindications, level of risk dictates decision (for exercise program or test), signs/symptoms of disease, any “yes” answers to PAR-Q+

91
Q

What should a physical exam include?

A

Cholesterol blood profile, blood pressure, and electrocardiogram at rest and/or during exercise

92
Q

What are the objectives of ASSESS?

A

Comprehensive battery of tests of physical activity, fitness, and lifestyle. Identify health benefit ratings (comparisons to norm, what direction to take a client in)

93
Q

What does ASSESS include?

A

Include previous physical activity questionnaires (FANTASTIC, PASB-Q), pre-appraisal screening for resting HR and BP, body composition (height/weight.BMI/WC), cardiovascular fitness, muscular strength and endurance, flexibility

94
Q

Validity?

A

The ability of a test to accurately measure the component of physical fitness you intend to measure

95
Q

Reliability?

A

The ability of a test to yield consistent results over time (inter and intra-tester)

96
Q

What determines how good your results from a test are?

A

What tools you use and who uses them

97
Q

Intra-subject variability?

A

Day to day variations in the client’s performance or test results (implications on monitoring progress)

98
Q

Inter-rater reliability?

A

Degree to which 2 or more different testers agree

99
Q

Intra-rater reliability?

A

Degree of consistency of scoring or testing by the same tester

100
Q

What are considerations to selecting an appropriate fitness tests?

A

Sport specificity (metabolic energy systems, biomechanical movement patterns), athlete experience/training status, age, sex, environmental factors

101
Q

Generic testing order?

A

Resting HR/BP, body comp, tests requiring agility/skill (brief efforts, not fatiguing), aeroboic, muscular fitness, flexibility, anaerobic testing, other. BUT YOU NEED TO THINK ABOUT THE PRIORITIES OF YOUR CLIENT!!!! (anaerobic before aerobic for basketball)

102
Q

What are the objectives of ADVISE?

A

Discuss findings, discuss options and set prioroties to develop active lifestyles

103
Q

Tips for the ADVISE section

A

Compare results to age and gender match norms, relate to health risks/benefits or simply report pre/post values, use lay language so that the client understands, identify areas where they excelled in addition to areas that need improvement, be honest but frame it positively. Identify specific goals SMART, provide options for attaining the goals, identify barriers to achieving goals or adopting necessary behaviours, collaborate with client to develop action plan

104
Q

SMART

A

Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time oriented

105
Q

AGREE: Devise an action plan for the client that:

A

Will help achieve goals, fits within lifestyle, is according to preference, includes solutions for dealing with barriers, incorporates basic principles for exercise program design, included cleint’s input

106
Q

What is the point of ASSIST/ARRANGE?

A

Can be conbnected to timeline associated with goals, opportunity to fine tune, discuss progression or maintenance of intensity, duration or frequency of different exercises, re-evaluate goals or create new ones (be positive and provide insight), maintain the relationship

107
Q

What is metabolism?

A

net total of anabolic and catabolic reactions in a biological system

108
Q

What is catabolism?

A

Breakdown of large molecules into smaller molecules associated with energy (ATP) release

109
Q

Anabolism?

A

Synthesis of larger molecules from smaller molecules using energy (ATP)

110
Q

What is ATP?

A

Adenosine Triphosphate that is an intermediate molecule that allows tranfer of energy between anabolic and catabolic reactions. Energy is released with each Pi that is cleaved

111
Q

Systems for ATP production

A

HEPT, glycylysis, oxidative phosphrylation

112
Q

Processes for ATP utilization

A

Na+/K+ ATPase, Ca2+ ATPase, Actin-myosin ATPase, mtichondrial ATPase, other processes?

113
Q

Characteristics of HEPT

A

1) Primary energy producer for short term, high intensity activities 2) High power 3) Low capacity to regenerate ATO 4) Active at onset of exercise regardless of intensity 5) Intensity will determine how much ATP is generated from HEPT as there is a high demand of ATP with increased intensity

114
Q

Enzyme responsible for 2 ADP —> ATP + AMP

A

adenylate kinase

115
Q

Enzyme responsible for PCr + ADP + H+ —> ATP + Cr

A

Creatine kinase

116
Q

Enzyme responsible for ATP + H2O –> ADP + Pi + H+ + ENERGY

A

ATPase

117
Q

How much can PCr decrease in the first 5-30 s in high intensity exercise?

A

50-70-%, although, muscle {ATP} does not decrease by more than 50% from initial values

118
Q

How long after exercise does it take for the re-synthesis of ATP and PCr?

A

1-3 minutes (important when doing exercise tests)

119
Q

What do studies show about increases high energy phosphates in response to endurance training?

A

SOme studies show increased, others show no change in resting phosphagen concentrations. May decrease rate of depletion given absolute but not a relative submaximal power output. A lot of this discrepancy stems from methods in the studies.

120
Q

What do studies show about high energy phosphates in response to sprint training?

A

Some show no change while others show increased resting phosphagen concentrations. Increase may be due to increased muscle mass.

121
Q

Changes in high energy phosphates in response to resistance training?

A

Increased resting phosphagen concentrations may be due to selective hypertrophy of Type II fibers

122
Q

What is glycogenolysis/glycolysis? What is the end product of glycolysis?

A

Breakdown of muscle glycogen and/or glucose to produce ATP. End product of glycolysis is pyruvate

123
Q

Breakdown (%) of body energy stores in a 70 kg person

A

2.5% muscle glycogen, <1% liver glycogen, 2% muscle TGs, and 95% adipose tissue

124
Q

Amount of glycogen in muscle? In liver?

A

300-400 g; 70-100 g

125
Q

What is resting [glycogen] determined by?

A

Diet and training manipulations

126
Q

When does muscle glycogen become an increasingly important substrate in exercise?

A

~60% VO2 max…rate of depletion depends on exercise intensity

127
Q

When is liver glycogen important to exercise?

A

Important during mod-high intensity and with increased duration

128
Q

Charactierstics of oxidative metabolism

A

Primary source of ATP at rest and during prolonged low-intensity activity, low moderate power, high capacity. Fat and carbs are primary substrates. Higer intensity is almost 100% carbohydrate.

129
Q

During prolonged submax exercise what is the primary energy source?

A

Shifts towards fat. Acetyl-CoA prduced from pyruvate via PDG –> with prolonged exercise, increased use of fatty acyl-CoA for acetyl-CoA production.

130
Q

RQ?

A

Respiratory Quotient…cellular level measure of gas exchange

131
Q

RER?

A

Respiratory Exchange Rate….expired breath. Gives a measure of WHOLE body gas exchange.

132
Q

What does blood lactate reflect?

A

Balance between lactic acid production and clearance/uptake

133
Q

Pyruvate is converted to lactate by what enzyme during anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Lactate dehygrogenase

134
Q

How does lactate possibly cause fatigue?

A

Hydrogen ion may cause fatigue, inhibits glycolytic reactions, alters pH, may interfere with excitation-contraction coupling (decrease energy and force)

135
Q

What is the lactate threshold?

A

Point/work rate where blood lactate increases exponentially due to an increasing reliance on anaerobic metabolism. Rate of lactate uptake does not match the rate of production.

136
Q

Ehat is OBLA?

A

Onset of blood lactate. Work rate where bloos lactate reaches 4 mM. Close to the value for lactate threshold

137
Q

When does LT occur in untrained? trained?

A

50-60%; 70-80% Training at or near LT may push curve right

138
Q

When does lactate usually return to normal following exercise?

A

About 1 hour

139
Q

How can lactate be utilized?

A

Can be used aas energy source in muscle produced, other muscles (Type I and cardiac) or converted to glucose in the liver via gluconeogenesis (Cori Cycle)

140
Q

Extent that an energy system contributes during exercise depends on?

A

Primarily on intensity and then duration

141
Q

What is the duration of an event in which HEPT is primarily used?

A

0-6 s very intense

142
Q

What duration is HEPT and anaerobic glycolysis used?

A

6-30 s intense

143
Q

Duration that is mainly glycolysis?

A

30s to 2 min high intensity

144
Q

Duration that glycolysis and oxidative system mainly used?

A

2-3 min

145
Q

Duration when oxidative system is mainly used

A

> 3 min

146
Q

Rate of ATP production from fastest to slowest

A

HEPT, HEPT/glycolysis, glycolyisis, glycolysis/oxidative system, oxidative system

147
Q

Capacity of ATP production from greatest to least

A

oxidative system, oxidative system and glycolysis, glycolysis, HEPT and glycolysis, HEPT

148
Q

Does exercising at a lower intensity to burn fat help with weight loss?

A

Proportion of fat burned at low intensity is higher, however, higher intensities burn more total calories, so the amount of fat burned is actually more

149
Q

What is VO2 max?

A

Maximal amount of oxygen that can be consumed per unit time by an individual during large muscle group activity of increasing intensity. Maximal amount of oxyge nthat CR system can transpoty to working muscles and ability of muscles to utilize the oxygen

150
Q

VO2 max is limited by?

A

The CR system to transport O2 to teh muscle, O2 taken up by the muscle, ability of muscle to utilize O2

151
Q

Why train to increase VO2 max?

A

Aerobic training will induce metabolic and physiological adaptations to increase VO2 max such as improved muscle energy production with increased mitochondrial density, energy based enzymes, etc. Improved cardiorespiratory adaptations, improved overall function in clinical populations

152
Q

Fick’s equation?

A

VO2 = Cardiac output (Q) x (a - v) O2 difference

153
Q

VO2 = ?

A

VO2 = amount of O2 inspired - amount of O2 expired

154
Q

1 Metabolic Equivalent =

A

3.5 ml of )2/kg of BW/ minute. An estimate of resting oxygen uptake.

155
Q

General indications for termination of a GXT in low-risk adults

A

Onset of angina or angina-like symptoms, drop is SBP >10 mmHg from baseline despite increaesed workload, reaching very high BP (SBP >250 mmHg or DBP > 115 mm Hg), shortness of breath/wheezing/leg cramps/caludication, signs of poor perfusion (clammy skin, dizziness, pallow, cyanosis, nausea), failure of HR to rise with increased intensity, noticeable change in heart rhythm, client’s request to stop, physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue, failure of the testing equipment

156
Q

How much lower is a VO2 max using a cycle versus a treadmill?

A

6-11%

157
Q

Who may a continuous GXT not be optimal for?

A

Individuals with low exercise tolerance because increasing workload every 1-3 minutes

158
Q

What is the difference between a ramp and incremental GXT?

A

Ramp increases the WR every 20-30 s and allows for a VO2 peak since steady state is never reached, and incremental raises the WR every 2-3 minutes and may reach a steady state

159
Q

What is the warm-up for healthy active individuals? Sedentary? Questionable health?

A

6 METS, 4 METS. 2 METS

160
Q

How long should a maximal GXT work? How much should each stage increase by for an active individual? A sedentary individual? A quesitonable heath person/

A

Client should complete at least 4 stages and take 8-12 minutes. The increase should be 2-3 METS, 1-2 METS, and 0.5-1.0 METS

161
Q

When do you measure HR in a GXT?

A

Rest, every minute of the test including post-exercise for 5 minutes

162
Q

How often do you measure BP in a maximal GXT?

A

Rest, every stage/every 2 minutes, immediately post exercise, 3 and 5 minutes of rest

163
Q

How often do you take RPE?

A

Rest and every 2 minutes/every stage

164
Q

Criteria for acheiving VO2 max?

A

Plateau in oxygen uptake, VO2 increases 150 mL/min or < 2 mL/kg/min with further increase in WR, volational fatigue plus one of the following: blood lactate >8.0 mM, RER >1.15, reach age adjusted estimate of HR max, failure to increased HR with increase in WR, RPE >17 on Borg Scale

165
Q

What is VO2 peak?

A

Term used when criteria defining VO2 max is not achieved, highest value achieved under certain conditions

166
Q

Relative VO2 is measured in?

A

ml/kg/min or ml/kgFFM/min

167
Q

Max vs submax?

A

Consider the client’s risk classification, the reason for the test (max test is required prior to participating in vigorous exercise for high risk individuals), submax tests should be considered for low risk individuals and moderate risk individuals who are starting a moderate exercise program, consider available equipment and personnel

168
Q

What are the assumptions of a submax test?

A

Steady-state HR at each intensity, linear relationship between HR/oxygen uptake/work rate, mechanical efficiency constant for all individuals (inefficiency can lead to under-estimation for sedentary or untrained individuals, especially in cyclying), maximum HR at give age varies (interindividual variability +/- 10-15%)

169
Q

Why is HR so important in a submax test?

A

Exercise test will be terminated based on predetermined % of HR max (usually 85%). VO2 max will be estimated from submax exercise and extrapolated to age-predicted HR max. HR max will be used to determine target exercise HR for prescription.

170
Q

What is the relationship between VO2 max and HR?

A

Linear relationship. Max HR may be achieved before VO2 ma. % HR max is always higher than %VO2 max (not a slope of 1)

171
Q

What is the ACSM metabolic equation to predict VO2 max?

A

VO2 (ml/min) = WR (kg/m/min) * 2 + 300

172
Q

What are the advantages of a predictive field test for VO2?

A

Minimal equipment, inexpensive, does require max effort, easy to administer to large groups, less time-consuming, may be more training specific, useful for client to self-monitor progress

173
Q

Limitations of field tests for VO2?

A

Cannot detect CHD, cannot us HR/ECG/BP, based on performance measure (distance run, time to run a distance), usually for young, healthy, well-motivated population, best for healthy men <45 only. Some tests require or may be affected by learning

174
Q

How accurate are predictive tests?

A

Depends on whether the assumptions are satisfied. With care, within 10% of indirect measure, SEE 3-5 mL/kg/min. May overestimate VO2max of highly trained and underestimate for untrained sedentary. Reliance of HR by measuring pulse when testing large group of people.

175
Q

When is the walking VO2 equation accurate?

A

50-100 m/min (1.9-3.7 mph)

176
Q

What is the ACSM walking VO2 equation?

A

VO2 (ml/kg/min) = 3.5 + speed (m/min) 8 0.1 + %gradespeed (m/min)1.8

Vo2 = resting VO2+horizontal component+vertical component

177
Q

1 mph = ? m/min

A

26.8 m/min

178
Q

When is the ACSM running equation accurate?

A

> 134 m.min or >5.0 mph

179
Q

What is the ACSM running equation?

A

VO2 (ml/kg/min) = 3.5 + speed (m/min)*0.2 + %grade * speed (m/min) * 0.9

180
Q

Know how to calculate energy expenditure

A

see example in lecture notes

181
Q

1 watt = ? kg-m/min

A

6.12 kg-m/min

182
Q

ACSM equation for cycle ergometry?

A

VO2 (ml/kg/min) = 3.5 + 3.5 + (WR (kg-m/min) / body mass (kg)) *1.8 OR WR (watts)/kg *10.8

183
Q

Know how to calculate a MET value for an activity to a VO2

A

1MET = 3.5 ml/kg/min

184
Q

Work rate in kg-m/min = ?

A

force (tension on belt, kg)* distance/time (m/min)

185
Q

Specificity?

A

Physilogical and metabolic response and adaptations are specific to type of exercise and muscle groups involved

186
Q

Overlaod?

A

For physiological and metabolic improvement, stress the body more than it is accumstomed to (i.e. frequency, intensity, etc)

187
Q

Progression?

A

Gradual increase in training volume

188
Q

Reversibility?

A

Discontinuation of exercise results in loss of improvements

189
Q

Initial values?

A

improvements will depend on a person’s pre-training exercise capacity

190
Q

Inter-individual variability?

A

Responses depend on several factors and will vary from person to person

191
Q

Diminshed returns?

A

Individual ceiling that limits extent of improvement

192
Q

Principles of exercise program design?

A

specificty, overload, progression, reversibility, initial values, inter-indiviual variability, and diminished returns

193
Q

What is the FITT principle?

A

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type

194
Q

What is SAID?

A

Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands. Movement pattern, velocity, contraction type, and repetitions or force requirements will all improve specific to what your training program was like

195
Q

Who will show the greatest relative gains and faster rate of improvement on a fitness program?

A

Individuals with low fitness. Improvements in trained individuals are much smaller and often have to do more to achieve small gains. During the first month of training, individual with poor cardiovascular endurance capacity may improve by ~12% vs elite athlete may improve less than 1%

196
Q

What are the stages of progression in an exercise program?

A

Initial conditioning, improvement stage, maintenance stage

197
Q

Initial conditioning phase?

A

`4 weeks (may be up to 6 wks). Familiarization with the training. May be skipped for non-beginnersr who are accustomed to the TYPE OF EXERCISE being prescribed

198
Q

What is the aerobic activity prescribed at in the intial conditioning phase?

A

40-60% HRR

199
Q

What is frequency and duration for the initial conditioning phase?

A

3-4 days per week, 15-20 minutes and progress to 30 minutes

200
Q

When can someone advance to the improvement stage?

A

Once they can sustain 30 minutes of exercise of 60% HRR

201
Q

How long does the improvement stage last?

A

4-8 months

202
Q

Increase intensity no more than ____ every 6th session

A

5% HRR

203
Q

How much may the VO2 increase in an average person in the improvement stage? Sedentary person? Elite athlete?

A

5-20%, 40%, 5%

204
Q

Amount that is needed in the maintenance phase that is needed to keep gains?

A

2-3 day/ week intensity and duration achieved in improvement stage. 2 day / week will maintain VO2 max provided the intensity remains the sameq

205
Q

Point of a warm-up? Duration and intensity?

A

Increase HR, blood flow to muscles, body temperature, 5-10 min at 10-30% VO2 reserve

206
Q

3 Rs of recovery?

A

Rest: avoid strenuous activity. Rehydrate: post exercise consumption of fluids. Refuel: choosing appropriate post-exercise consumption of foods

207
Q

THR using the Karvonen method?

A

HRR = Max heart rate - resting heart rate. THR = % * (HRR) + Resting