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Kirks And Ettinger Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 3 causes of sick sinus syndrome?

A

1- mutation in cardiac Na channels or smooth muscles
2- dysfunction of ryanodine receptors
3- fibrosis

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2
Q

Which breed is predisposed to persistent atrial standstill?

A

English springer spaniel

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3
Q

Which 4 breeds are predisposed to second degree AV block ?

A

Chow-chow
Cocker
German pointer
Labrador

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4
Q

Neurocardiogenic reflex is mediated by which cardiac fibers ?

A

C

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5
Q

Hycoscyamine/methylxantine and terbutaline are which types of drug and can be use to address which heart disease?

A

Anticholinergic and B-agonist

AV-block

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6
Q

What are the 5 classes of anti-arrhythmic

A 
(NoBody Kills Cats # Dog)
I- Na (Lidocaine)
II- B-blocker (atenolol)
III- K potassium channel blockers (sotalol, amiodarone)
IV - Ca (diltiazem)
V - Digoxin
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7
Q

What triggers cascade of compensatory effects happens with CHF

A

Vasoconstriction (from sympathetic, RAAS and endothelial system)
Retention of sodium / water (via altered renal blood flow and NE)
Inflammation and growth promoting factors

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8
Q

NT proBNP over 1500 increases risks of decompensation within ___ months

A

6-12 months

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9
Q

What is the primary treatment for atrial tear ?

A

Decrease atrial pressure through preload reduction

NO pimobendan

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10
Q

What are the 5 main causes of pulmonary hypertension ?

A

Idiopathic, TE, pulmonary diseases, L-R shunt, L CHF

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11
Q

Mutation in the gene for pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase 4 is seen is which breed, with which heart disease ?

A

Doberman pinsher

DCM

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12
Q

What are the 4 breeds mainly predisposed to DCM

A

Doberman, Irish Wolffhouds, great danes and Newfoundlands

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13
Q

S3 can be heard in dogs with DCM because of ____

A

Increased left ventricular filling pressure

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14
Q

Genetic deletion mutation in the 3’ untranslated region of striatin (desmosomal protein) is seen with which heart disease ?

A

ARVC

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15
Q

In patients with ARVV, a positive response is considered when ___

A

you see > 80-85% of reduction in VPC

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16
Q

Which pressor should be use in animals with CHF?

A

Dobutamine

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17
Q

Name the 3 elements in the Virchow’s triad

A

Endothelial injury
Blood stasis
Hypercoagulable state

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18
Q

Chronic pericardial effusion results in ___ sided heart failure

A

right

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19
Q

In heartworm diseases, Antigens detect ___ and Antibodies detect ____

A

Reproductive tract of mature female

Exposure to L4

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20
Q

How long does the HW cycle takes in dogs ? cats?

A

6-7 months

7-8 months

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21
Q

Which stage does the female mosquito ingest following a blood meal from an infected animal?

A

L1

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22
Q

Which stages develop within mosquito ?

A

L1-L3

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23
Q

Caval syndrome in HW infection is associated with ___

A

High burden, severe PH and right ventricular dysfunction

do not use adulticide at that stage

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24
Q

Which intracellular negative bacteria contribute to pulmonary and renal inflammation through WSP protein in animals affected by HWD

A

Wolbachia

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25
During endocarditis, disruption of the endothelium triggers coagulation on the damaged endothelium, which allows bacteria to bind, if ____
They possess adhesive molecules or are resistant to platelet bactericial proteins or evade IS by internalization
26
Which 4 breeds are predisposed to endocarditis
German Shepherd, boxer, golden and labrador
27
Which are the 3 most common bacterial involve in mitral endocarditis ?
Staphyloccocus, strep, and E.coli
28
Bartonella affects which valve ?
Aortic
29
Which bacterial infection can lead to myocarditis in cats ?
Toxoplasmosis
30
PDA results in communication between ______ and ____
Descending aorta Main pulmonary artery (both will be dilated on radiographs)
31
Which 2 breeds are predisposed to subvalvular PS ?
Boxer and English bulldog | this form cannot be balloon dilated
32
PS in inherited in ___
Beagles
33
PS results in __ sided heart failure
right
34
Which 2 breeds are genetically predisposed to SAS?
Newfoundland and Dogue de Bordeaux
35
In which breed SAS is familial ?
Golden
36
SAS impedes ventricular ejection, which results in ___ ___ ___ hypertrophy
Left venticular concentric hypertrophy
37
Positive atropine response test signifies that bradycardia is caused by ___
high vagal tone
38
TVD is inherited in ___
Labrador
39
TVD results in which 2 changes on ECG
Splintered QRS and P pulmonale
40
Shunting across VSD is from ___ ventricle into ___ ventricle
Left (high pressure) | Right (low pressure)
41
What is the target BP of dogs and cats
Dogs: 140-150 mmHg Cats: < 160 mmHg
42
The sum of all forces that oppose the ejection of blood from the ventricles is name ___
Afterload
43
Response to heart failure includes those 5 mechanisms:
- Increase adrenergic nervous system - RAAS activation - overexpression of atrial and brain natriuretic peptides - Increased endothelin and arginin vasopressin - Proinflammatory cytokines
44
What are the effects of natriuretic peptides ?
-Opposite of RAAS | natriuresis, vasorelaxation, inhibit release of renin and aldosterone
45
Which natriuretic peptide has the longest half-life
BNP
46
Release of ADH depend on ___ and ____
osmolality, hypovolemia
47
What are the 3 roles of adrenomedullin
Natriuretic Vasodilator Inotropin
48
What is the law of laplace ?
It says that pressure overload increases wall thickness (up until the myocardial perfusion is overwheelmed = hypoxia = myocardial death and fibrosis)
49
What are the causes of PAC? (4)
Atrial lesions, Hyperthyroidism, hemangiosarcoma, digitalis toxicosis
50
What non-cardiac causes can result in VPC ? (5)
``` HypoK Anemia Trauma GDV Abdominal mass ```
51
Which breed is predisposed to torsade de pointe?
Dalmatian
52
What is the treatment for torsade de pointe?
Mg
53
What electrolyte abnormality and which medication can result in 3rd degree AV block?
HyperK | Dexmedetomidine
54
Which BBB is an incidental finding and which is related to left ventricular enlargement?
Right | Left
55
In regard to excitability, what is the result of those electrical abnormalities? - hypokaliemia - hyperkalemia - hypocalcemia
- decrease resting membrane potential (excitability) - increases resting potential - lowers threshold
56
Which breed is predisposed to SSS?
Female miniature schnauzer
57
Which congenital disease leads to a split second sound on auscultation?
ASD
58
Which breed is predisposed to VSD?
Maine coon
59
Which breed is predisposed to tricuspid valve insufficiency?
Male Labrador
60
Which breed is predisposed to mitral valve dysplasia?
Bull terrier
61
PS results in which kind to hypertrophy?
Concentric right ventricular
62
Aortic stenosis is seen in which breed?
Newfoundland
63
Aortic stenosis results in which hypertrophy?
Concentric left ventricular
64
Which congenital heart disease can predispose to endocarditis?
Aortic stenosis
65
Which 2 breeds are predisposed to mitral valve disease?
CKC and dachshund
66
Which side of heart enlargement leads to taller wave? Which to prolonged wave ?
Right | Left
67
What are the major criteria for endocarditis?
- Vegetative lesion / erosion/ abscess - New valvular insufficiency - 2-3 positive blood cultures
68
What are the minor criteria for endocarditis?
- fever - > 15 kg dog - TE - immune mediated disease - bartonella serology - 1 positive blood culture
69
Doberman are predisposed to DCM from which mutation?
PDK4
70
Which breed (2) get DCM has young dogs?
Portuguese Water Dogs | Toy Manchester terrier
71
Fibrous fatty infiltrate of the right ventricular free wall is associated with which disease?
ARVC
72
Which breed is predisposed to HCM?
Male Maine coon
73
Which mutation predispose Maine coon to HCM?
MyBPC
74
Endomyocardial fibrosis with distinct tubular lesion bridging the IVS and LVFW result in which heart disease?
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
75
Cats synthesize taurine from _____
Cysteine
76
Which nutrient is use exclusively for bile acid conjugation ?
Taurine
77
Segmental left ventricular hypertrophy, regional hypokinesia, and marked LAE is seen in which heart disease?
Unclassified cardiomyopathy
78
Which 2 breeds are predisposed to peritoneopericardial hernia?
Maine coon | Weimaraner
79
Macrocyclic lactone terminates which stage of HWD?
L3 and L4

Cardiology (2 decks)

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