Klubsy

Question 1

Of the circulating lymphocytes in peripheral blood, which are in greatest percentage (60-80%)?

A. Natural killer cells
B. Null lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. T lymphocyte

Question 2

In plasma, this acute phase reactant is associated with HDL cholesterol, and it is thought to play a role in metabolism of cholesterol:

A. CRP
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Haptoglobin
Serum amyloid

Question 3

Why might a colony stimulating factor (CSF) be given to a cancer patient?

A. Stimulate activity of NK cells
B. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes
C. Decrease the production of TNF
D. Increase production of mast cells

Question 4

Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II molecules with the help of which accessory molecule

A. CD2
B. CD3
C. CD4
D. CD8

Question 5

Which of the following best describes a hapten?

A. Not able to react with antibody
B. Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
C. Has multiple determinant sites
D. A large chemically complex molecule

Question 6

Antibody idiotype is dictated by the:

A. Constant region of heavy chain
B. Variable regions of heavy and light chains
C. Constant region of light chain
D. Constant region of heavy and light chains

Question 7

Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Question 8

Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. IgM

Question 9

The three complement activation pathway converge at the point of cleavage of complement component ___________.

A. C3
B. C5
C. C7
D. C8

Question 10

Which of the following complement component is a strong chemotactic factor as well as a strong anaphylotaxin?

A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C4a

Question 11

The basic structure of immunoglobulins was elucidated in the 1950s and 1960s by:

A. Georges Kohler and Cesar Milstein
B. Gerald Edelman, Rodney Porter
C. Susumu Tonegawa
D. Rosalyn Yalow

Question 12

Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in tissue?

A. Neutrophil
B. Dendritic cell
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophil

Question 13

The HLA complex is located primarily on:

A. Chromosome 3
В. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 9
D. Chromosome 17

Question 14

Which of these are found on a mature B cell?

A. IgG and IgD
B. IgM and IgD
C. Alpha and beta chains
D. CD 3

Question 15

How are cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) and natural killer (NK) cells similar?

A. Require antibody to be present
B. Effective against virally infected cells
C. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class Il markers
D. Do not bind to infected cells

Question 16

Which immunoglobulin class(es) has (have) a J chain?

A. IgM
B. IgE and IgD
C. IgM and sigA
D. IgG3 and IgA

Question 17

What is the most serious complement deficiency?

A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4

Question 18

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease?

A. Rheumatoid arthritis
В. Myasthenia gravis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

Question 19

A lack of C1 inhibitor might result in which of the following conditions?

A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
C. Hereditary angioedema
D. Increased bacterial infections

Question 20

The flexible portion of the heavy chain of an immunoglobulin molecule that is located between the first and second constant regions.

A. Heavy chain
B. Hinge region
C. Light chain
D. Disulfide bonds

Question 21

After exposure to antigen, the first antibodies that can be detected belong to the class:

A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

Question 22

A kidney transplant from one identical twin to another is an example of a(n):

A. Allograft
B. Autograft
C. Isograft
D. Xenograft

Question 23

A 1-year-old boy is seen for having many recurrent infections with Streptococcus pneumoniae. Laboratory tests revealed a normal quantity of T cells, but no B cells and no immunoglobulins were seen on electrophoresis. Which of the following would most likely be the cause?

A. Chronic granulotomatous disease
B. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
C. DiGeorge’s syndrome
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Question 24

The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed:

A. Artificial active
B. Natural adaptive
C. Artificial passive
D. Natural passive

Question 25

Which of the following complement proteins is part of the membrane attack complex (MAC)? A. C1 B. C3 C. C4 D. C5

Question 26

Hashimoto disease is an autoimmune disease primarily involving the: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Lungs D. Thyroid gland

Question 27

Which of the following is characteristic of DiGeorge syndrome? A. Defective T lymphocyte production B. Depressed B cell development C. Suppressed intracellular killing by polymorphonuclear cells D. Suppressed complement levels

Question 28

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of trastuzumab therapy for breast cancer? A. PR B. CEA C. HER-2/neu D. Myc

Question 29

A 3-year-old boy is seen by his physician because of many recent bacterial infections. Flow cytometery indicates normal levels of T and B cells. The nitroblue tetrazolium test for oxidative reduction is negative. The most likely cause is: A. Wegener's syndrome B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia D. Diabetes mellitus

Question 30

A 3-year-old boy is seen by his physician because of many recent bacterial infections. Flow cytometery indicates normal levels of T and B cells. The nitroblue tetrazolium test for oxidative reduction is negative. The most likely cause is: A. Wegener's syndrome B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia D. Diabetes mellitus

Question 31

Macrophages have specific names according to their tissue location. Macrophages in the CNS are: A. Alveolar macrophages B. Microglial cells C. Kupffer cells D. Histiocytes

Question 32

Immunodeficiency with thrombocytopenia and eczema is often referred to as: A. DiGeorge syndrome B. Bruton agammaglobulinemia C. Ataxia telangiectasia D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Question 33

The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is rotated at what speed for which length of time? A. 200 RPM for 10 minutes B. 100 RPM for 8 minutes C. 180 RPM for 4 minutes D. 125 RPM for 2 minutes

Question 34

The Weil-Felix test is used for the detection of which type of antibodies A. Salmonella B. Mycoplasma C. Rickettsial D. Viral

Question 35

Rheumatoid factor is typically an IgM autoantibody with specificity for which of the following? A. SS-B B. Double-stranded DNA C. Ribonucleoprotein D. Fc portion of IgG

Question 36

What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? A. Cardiolipin B. Anticardiolipin antibody C. Anti-T. pallidum antibody D. Treponema pallidum

Question 37

Diagnostic reagents useful for detecting antigen by the coagglutination reaction may be prepared by binding antibody to killed staphylococcal cells via the Fc receptor of staphylococcal protein A. The class of antibody bound by this protein is: A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM

Question 38

The rapid plasma reagin assay for syphilis does not need to be read microscopically because the antigen is: A. Cardiolipin B. Complexed with latex C. Complexed with charcoal D. Inactivated bacterial cells

Question 39

A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does the patient most likely have? A. Syphilis B. Strep throat C. Lyme disease D. Rubella

Question 40

A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does the patient most likely have? A. Syphilis B. Strep throat C. Lyme disease D. Rubella

Question 41

What is the immunologic method utilized in the flow cytometer? A. Latex agglutination B. Immunofluorescence C. Enzyme linked immunoassay D. Radioimmunoassay

Question 42

Which of the following serologic tests detects the polysaccharide capsule antigen in serum and CSF of patients with suspected infection with Cryptococcus neoformans? A. Complement fixation B. India ink test C. Latex agglutination D. Hemagglutination test

Question 43

Which of the following stages of infectious mononucleosis infection is characterized by antibody to epstein-barr nuclear antigen (ebna)? A. Recent (acute) infection B. Past infection (convalescent) period C. Reactivation of latent infection D. Past infection, reactivation of latent infection

Question 44

The most commonly used method to detect VZV antibodies in the clinical laboratory is: A. ELISA B. PCR C. FAMA D. All of these

Question 45

Rapid antigen detection for histidine-rich protein II (HRP-II) is specific for: A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax

Question 46

A patient's serum is incompatible with O cells. The patient RBCs give a negative reaction to anti-H lectin. What is the most likely cause of these results? A. The patient may be a subgroup of A B. The patient may have an immunodeficiency C. The patient may be a Bombay D. The patient may have developed alloantibodies

Question 47

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens? A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Codominant D. Corecessive

Question 48

Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an acquired B antigen? A. Anti-A 4+, anti-B-3+, A1 cells neg, B cells neg B. Anti-A 3+, anti-B neg, A1 cells neg, B cells neg C. Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4+ D. Anti-A 4+, anti-B 4+, A1 cells 2+, B cells neg

Question 49

Which blood group has the least amount of H antigen? A. A1B B. A2 C. B D. O

Question 50

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant carbohydrate that reacts with: A. Arachis hypogaea B. Salvia sclarea C. Dolichos biflorus D. Ulex europeaus

Question 51

A patient tests positive for weak D but also appears to have anti-D in his serum. What may be the problem? A. Mixup of samples or testing error B. Most weak D individuals make anti-D C. The problem could be due to a disease state A D. D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts

Question 52

Which of the following sugars must be present on a precursor substance for A and B antigenic activity to be expressed? A. Galactose B. Acetylgalactosamine C. Glucose D. L-Fucose

Question 53

If a patient has the Rh genotype DCe/Ce and receives a unit of red blood cells from a DCe/dce individual, what Rh antibody might the patient develop? A. Anti-C B. Anti-c C. Anti-d D. Anti-E

Question 54

In which of the following blood group systems may the red blood cell typing change during pregnancy? A. P B. MNS C. Lewis D. Duffy

Question 55

If an Rh negative woman recently delivered an Rh positive baby and the Kleihauer-Betke test result is 5%, how many vials of Rh Ig should be administered? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

Question 56

The glass surface of an Rh viewbox should be ________ C. A. Between 45 and 50C B. Between 26 and 39C C. Between 16 and 25C D. Between 0 and 15C

Question 57

An individual with genes A, H, Se and lele has which of the following phenotypes? A. ABH, Le (a-b-) B. ABH, Le (a+b-) C. AH, Le (a-b-) D. AH, Le (a+b-)

Question 58

If a person has the genetic makeup Hh, AO, LeLe, sese, what substance will be found in the secretions? A. A substance B. H Substance C. Lea substance D. Leb substance

Question 59

How many days before a pretransfusion specimen expires? A. 3 days B. 7 days C. 14 days D. 1 month

Question 60

Which of the following is the most common haplotype in the asian population? A. DCe B. DcE C. Dce D. ce

Question 61

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Xg blood group system? A. The Xg antigen has a higher frequency in women than in men. B. The Xg antigen has a higher frequency in men than in women. C. The Xg antigen is enhanced by enzymes. D. Anti-Xg is usually a saline-reacting antibody.

Question 62

Which of the following is a characteristic of Kidd system antibodies? A. Usually IgM antibodies B. Corresponding antigens are destroyed by enzymes C. Usually strong and stable during storage D. Often implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions

Question 63

Which of the following statements is NOT true of anti-Fya and anti-Fyb? A. Are clinically significant B. React well with enzyme-treated panel cells C. Cause hemolytic transfusion reactions D. Cause a generally mild hemolytic disease of the newborn

Question 64

Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized with pooled human plasma? A. Anti-Hy and anti-Ge: 1 B. Anti-Ch and anti-Rg C. Anti-Co a and anti-Co b D. Anti-Do and anti-Js

Question 65

To demonstrate whether the antibody(ies) has/have become attached this patient's red blood cells in vivo, which of the following tests would be most useful? A. Direct antiglobulin test B. Complement fixation test C. Elution procedure D. Indirect antiglobulin test

Question 66

Which of the following antibodies is classified as "biphasic" and an autoantibody? A. Anti-B B. Anti-P C. Anti-H D. Anti-Le

Question 67

How can IgG antibodies be removed from red cells? A. Elution B. Adsorption C. Prewarming D. Neutralization

Question 68

The prevalence of _______ in Northern Europeans is 1% but is higher in the Mennonite population. A. Di B. In C. Sc1 D. Sc2

Question 69

Leach phenotypes may have weak expression of __________ blood group antigens. A. MN B. Kell C. Kidd D. P

Question 70

Which of the following statements is true concerning the MN genotype? A. Antigens are destroyed using bleach-treated cells B. Dosage effect may be seen for both M and N antigens C. Both M and N antigens are impossible to detect because of cross-interference D. MN is a rare phenotype seldom found in routine antigen typing

Question 71

If a group A patient was crossmatched with an O donor, the result would be: A. Major side incompatible B. Minor side incompatible C. Major and minor sides incompatible D. Major and minor sides compatible

Question 72

HEMPAS red blood cells are characterized by: A. Increased amount of i antigen B. Increased amount of H antigen C. Resistance to lysis Resistance to Plasmodium falciparum D. Increased amounts of sialic acid

Question 73

Patients with in vivo polyagglutination should be give transfusions of: A. Whole blood B. Packed cells C. Washed red blood cells D. Fresh frozen plasma

Question 74

Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a male donor? A. Temperature of 99.2°F B. Hematocrit of 37% C. Received a blood transfusion D. 2 years ago Pulse rate 60 bpm

Question 75

Immunization for rubella would result in a temporary deferral for: A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 6 months

Question 76

Which of the following lists the correct shelf-life for the component? A. Deglycerolized RBCs-24 hours B. RBCS (CPD)-35 days C. Platelet concentrate-7 days D. FFP-5 years

Question 77

Each unit of cryoprecipitate prepared from whole blood should contain approximately how many units of AHF activity? A. 40 IU B. 80 IU C. 120 IU D. 160 IU

Question 78

Platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis should contain how many platelets? A. 5.5 x 10^10th B. 6 x 10^10th C. 3 x 10^11th D. 5.5 x 10^11th

Question 79

Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat which of the following? A. Factor IX deficiency B. Factor VIII deficiency C. Factor XII deficiency D. Factor XIII deficiency

Question 80

RBCs that have been LEUKOREDUCED must contain less than ________ and retain at least ________ of original RBCs. A. 8 × 10 6th /85% B. 8 × 10 6th /90% C. 5 x 10 6th /85% D. 5 × 10 6th /80%

Question 81

Cryoprecipitate that has been pooled must be transfused within _________ hours A. 24 B. 6 C. 4 D. 8

Question 82

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 110 lb donor, including samples for processing? A. 450 mL B. 500 ml C. 525 mL D. 550 mL

Question 83

When RBCs are stored, there is a "shift to the left." This means: A. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG. B. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG. C. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG. D. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG

Question 84

What are the current storage time and storage temperature for platelet concentrates and apheresis platelet components? A. 5 days at 1°C to 6°C B. 5 days at 24°C to 27°C C. 5 days at 20°C to 24°C D. 7 days at 22°C to 24°C

Question 85

A unit of packed RBCs is split using the open system. One of the half units is used. What may be done with the second half unit? A. Must be issued within 24 hours B. Must be issued within 48 hours C. Must be irradiated D. Must retain the original expiration date

Question 86

Deferral period for Hepatitis B Ig (HBIg) immunization: A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 3 years D. No deferral

Question 87

The last unit of autologous blood for an elective surgery patient should be collected no later than ________ hours before surgery. A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours

Question 88

Plasmapheresis donors must have a serum total protein of at least _______ g/dL A. 3 g/dL B. 4 g/dL C. 5 g/dL D. 6 g/dL

Question 89

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis? A. Serum sample B. Chancre fluid C. CSF D. Joint fluid

Question 90

A living donor is being sought for a child who requires a kidney transplant. The best odds of finding an MHC-compatible donor occur between the child and: A. sibling (brother or sister) B. An unrelated individual C. The child's father D. The child's mother

Question 91

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis? A. Southern blot B. Northern blot C. Western blot D. PCR

Question 92

Heavy spin centrifugation: A. 1,000 x g for 5 minutes B. 2,000 x g for 2 to 3 minutes C. 3,000 x g for 2 to 3 minutes D. 5,000 x g for 5 minutes

Question 93

What method can be employed to detect bacteria in random donor platelets? A. pH B. Glucose C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay D. Gram stain

Question 94

Whole blood and RBC units are stored at what temperature? A. 1°C to 6°F B. 20°C to 24°C C. 34°C to 43°C D. 24°C to 27°C

Question 95

Which antibody is typically considered to be an autoantibody if found in the serum of an adult? A. Anti-K B. Anti-l C. Anti-D D. Anti-Fy

Question 96

Which is not true of rouleaux formation? A. Mimics agglutination B. Appears like a "stacking of coins" C. Can be seen in the antiglobulin test D. Can be dispersed by saline

Question 97

What is the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke stain? A. Fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to alkaline buffer than adult hemoglobin. B. Adult hemoglobin is more resistant to alkaline buffer than fetal hemoglobin. C. Fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to erythrosin and hematoxylin staining than adult hemoglobin. D. Adult hemoglobin is more soluble in acid buffer than fetal hemoglobin.

Question 98

What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury)? A. Red blood cell alloantibody B. IgA antibody C. Antileukocyte antibody D. Allergen

Question 99

Irradiation of blood is performed to prevent? A. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction B. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease D. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

Question 100

The endpoint of the SPRCA test is detected by: A. Agglutination B. Hemolysis C. Precipitation D. Attachment of indicator cells

Question 101

Incubation period for the gel test: A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes

Question 102

The most common isolate found in RBC units: A. Pseudomonas species B. Yersinia enterocolitca C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Bacillus cereus

Question 103

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all the following EXCEPT: A. Contact sensitivity B. Elimination of tumor cells C. Rejection of foreign tissue grafts D. Serum sickness