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MSK ultrasound > Knee Anatomy and Pathology > Flashcards

Knee Anatomy and Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

The knee is the largest joint in the body. What kind of joint is it considered?

a) Hinge joint
b) Pivot
c) Ball and socket
d) Gliding joint

A

A) Hinge joint

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2
Q

What is the largest, heaviest and strongest bone in the body?

A

Distal femur

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3
Q

The femur bone articulates with what two bones?

A

Tibia and patella

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4
Q

The patellar ligament attaches where on the tibia?

A

Tibial tuberosity

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5
Q

Whats the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

A

Patella

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6
Q

The proximal fibula articulates with _________ of the tibia?

A

Fibular surface

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7
Q

What structure separates the posterior and anterior leg muscles & stabilizes the lower leg? hint: between the tibia and fibula

A

Interosseous membrane AKA middle tibiofibular ligament

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8
Q

What are the four muscles/tendons of the quad?

A
  1. Rectus femoris
  2. Vastus medialis
  3. Vastus lateralis
  4. Vastus intermedius
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9
Q

When scanning the quad tendon, at how many degrees should their knee be bent?

A

20-30 degrees

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10
Q

What are the names of the two fat pads that we see posterior to the quadriceps tendon. The patella is on the distal end and femur on the proximal end.

A
  1. Supra-patellar fat pad
  2. Pre-femoral fat pad
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11
Q

What fat pad is posterior to the patellar tendon?

A

Hoffa fat pad AKA infra-patellar

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12
Q

Which patellar bursae is normal to see a small amount of fluid and is triangular in shape?

A

INFRA-patellar

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13
Q

Which patellar bursae, if normal, is not seen with ultrasound?

A

SUPRA-patellar

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14
Q

What tendons/muscles make up the Pes Anserinus?

A

1) Sartorius
2) Gracilis
3) Semi-tendinosis

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15
Q

What is the MCL also known as?

A

Tibial collateral ligament

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16
Q

Do the deep or superficial fibers of the MCL attach to the medial meniscus?

A

DEEP

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17
Q

How many layers does the MCL have?

A

3

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18
Q

What layers of the MCL are seen best with ultrasound?

A

2 & 3

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19
Q

What mnemonic helps remember Pes Anserinus?

A

Say Grace before Tea

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20
Q

What is the name of the tubercle that the IT band inserts on?

A

Gerdy’s - on the tibia

21
Q

What is another name for the LCL?

A

Fibular collateral ligament

22
Q

The LCL shares a common attachment site with what other tendon?

A

Biceps femoris - on lateral fibula

23
Q

Where does the biceps femoris fuse and insert?

A

Lateral/anterior head of the fibula

24
Q

Where is the insertion of biceps femoris in relation to the LCL insertion and the popliteus tendon?

a) Lateral
b) Medial
c) Superficial
d) Deep

A

Superficial

25
Q

What pathology is seen when there is fluid in the bursae between the medial head of the gastroc and semi-membranosus tendon?

A

Baker’s cyst

26
Q

Where does the semitendinosus tendon lie in relation to the semi-membranosus/medical gastroc?

A

Superficial

27
Q

What landmark creates the deep boundary of the SM-Gb area?

A

Medial femoral condyle

28
Q

What nerve runs with the popliteal artery & vein within the popliteal fossa?

A

Tibial nerve - superficial to both the vein and artery

29
Q

What does the sciatic nerve branch into?

A

Tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve

30
Q

What is the most frequently encountered pathology of the knee?

A

Baker’s cyst

31
Q

What two main things must you identify to confirm a Baker’s cyst?

A
  1. Neck
  2. Connection to the joint space - between semi-membranosus and medial gastroc tendons
32
Q

Between what two muscles does Tennis leg appear?

A

Gastroc and soleus

33
Q

Common ultrasound appearance of Quad tendon tendinosis?

A
  1. Hypoechoic
  2. Ill-defined - loss of fibular pattern
  3. Thickened
  4. Hyperemic
34
Q

Partial or complete tears in the quad tendon occur how far from the insertion on patella?

A

1-2 cm

35
Q

What three things may cause quad tendon rupture?

A
  1. Gout
  2. RA
  3. Diabetes
36
Q

What is Jumper’s knee? What tendon is involved?

A

Partial tear of proximal patellar tendon and tendinosis

37
Q

What ultrasound finding may be seen in Jumpers knee?

A

Calcific enthesopathy - bony spurs at insertion site

38
Q

T or F? Jumper’s knee is an inflammatory pathology?

A

FALSE

39
Q

Where do most MCL tears occur relative to the joint space?

A

Superior and proximally

40
Q

Where do LCL tears occur?

A

ANYWHERE along the length of the tendon

41
Q

Friction tendinopathies of the IT band most often occur where?

A

Lateral condyle of the femur

42
Q

Where does the IT band insert?

A

Gerdy’s tubercle on tibia

43
Q

What pathologies of the menisci CAN be diagnosed with ultrasound?

A
  1. Tears
  2. Meniscal cysts
  3. Extruded meniscus
44
Q

The popliteus tendon connects what two landmarks?

A

Posterior lateral condyle of the femur and the proximal anterior tibia

45
Q

Insertion of the biceps femoris tendon lies where in relation to the LCL?

A) Superficial
B) Deep
C) Medial
D) Lateral

A

A) Superficial

46
Q

What are the underlying conditions that lead to Quad tendon rupture? (3)

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Gout
  3. RA
47
Q

Describe Jumper’s knee

A) Joint effusion at the patella
B) Full thickness tear of the patellar tendon
C) Partial thickness tear of the patellar tendon
D) Rupture of the patellar tendon

A

C) Thickening and partial tearing of the patellar tendon, patellar tendinosis

48
Q

Most common area for patellar tendinosis?

A) Distal
B) Proximal
C) At the tendon
D) Lateral

A

B) Proximal

49
Q

Most common area of tendinopathy of the IT band?

A) At Gerdy’s tubercle
B) Lateral condyle of the femur
C) Medial condyle of the femur
D) Tibial tuberosity

A

B) Lateral condyle of femur

MSK ultrasound (9 decks)

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