Know This

Question 1

State the CDO (Clearance Delivery Officer) Frequencies.

Answer 1

123. 95 - For Aircraft registered West of 30W

127. 65 - For Aircraft registered East of 30W

Question 2

State the frequencies used for the following:

EIAA North

EIAA South

VHF Guard

Air - Air Communication

South East Corner Emergencies

Answer 2

124. 175
125. 9
126. 5
127. 45
128. 360

Question 3

State the 6 transmitter sites relating to Shanwick VHF frequencies.

Answer 3

Dundonald Hill, Ayrshire
Mangersta, Isle of Harris
Grantham, Lincolnshire
Davidstow Moor, Cornwall

As Pontes, Spain
Mount Gabriel, Ireland

Question 4

What does NARTEL stand for?

Answer 4

North Atlantic Radio Telephony

Question 5

How many ‘families’ of HF frequency are there, what are they and what are they used for?

Answer 5

5 ‘families’ of HF frequencies A-F (no “E”)

NAT B – for use by aircraft registered W of 30W

NAT C – for use by aircraft registered E of 30W

Plus 3 families of Shared frequencies (H,I,J)

Question 6

What non-conformances within a POS report would require reporting action to be taken?

Answer 6

NEXT position incorrect (when from FMS).

Variations of 300ft or more.

Question 7

What are the delivery times associated with HF messages?

Answer 7

10 minutes - Standard

8 minutes - Priority

IMMEDIATE DELIVERY – Call EIAA.

Question 8

What is the Planning Controller responsible for?

Answer 8

The Planner is responsible for issuing Oceanic clearances and coordination where appropriate for all aircraft entering the Shanwick OCA from a domestic centre, including eastbound flights entering/transiting from Madrid.

For flights routeing on T9/T213 in either direction, the Planner is not required to coordinate a clearance at an enroute level with the Enroute controller if there are no conflicts or warnings shown to the Planner when clearing the flight.

The Planner is also responsible for approving eastbound flights that do not comply with FLAS.

Responsibility for updating these flights shall be delegated to the Enroute controller with jurisdiction over the requested flight level.

Question 9

What is the Enroute Controller responsible for?

Answer 9

Enroute controllers are responsible for the provision of Air Traffic Control, Flight Information and Alerting Services at and above FL55, in addition to providing Flight Information and Alerting Service to all known traffic below FL55.

The Enroute controller is responsible for approving flights entering Shanwick from another OCA, both eastbound and westbound except those originating at RATSU. Coordination with the Planner may be necessary for those flights close to the Shanwick eastern boundary.

Question 10

Detail the authorised use of MANCL list.

Answer 10

Resolve a conflict where separation between aircraft has been eroded.

Opposite direction aircraft east of the OCA boundary where coordination has been effected.

Aircraft in emergency during descent, return or diversion where the path is in conflict.

Resolve a conflict involving flights on Round Robins, return legs or turnbacks, where an offset coordinate has been input in GAATS+, but the flight has been cleared using whole degrees i.e. flight cleared on 56N but coordinate 5601N is input in GAATS+.

If a conflict occurs wholly within an adjacent sector and they state that the conflict will be resolved by the use of radar control or other means.

Flights operating as part of the same reservation.

Two or more conflicting reservations which have been approved subject to MARSA.

When applying UK OPCON procedures.

Apply reduced MNPS separation standards between MNPS aircraft and Stationary Reservations, outside MNPS airspace.

Two or more non-MARSA reservations, where erroneous conflicts are generated in GAATS+ due to overprotection of complex flight profiles, provided that the controller has ensured that sufficient level/route separation exists between all flights.

Question 11

List the contents of a POS report.

Answer 11

Each Position Report will contain:

Aircraft’s position

Reported time at that position

Current Flight Level

Next position on the aircraft’s intended route

Estimate for the next position

Subsequent position on aircraft’s route

Question 12

When is a POS report considered non-conformant?

Answer 12

Position reports are considered to be ‘non-conformant’ if:

Incorrect position is reported

Incorrect flight level is
reported

Incorrect next or subsequent position

Reported time differs by more than 2 minutes

The ETA for next position differs by more than 5 minutes

In these instances the controller shall ask the aircraft to confirm the position report or the specific item of data that was not as expected.

When a position report is received where the next reporting point is incorrect, controllers shall immediately confirm the correct routeing with the flight.

Question 13

Explain what GNEs, Lateral Deviation, Intervention and Prevention are.

Answer 13

A Gross Navigation Error is a lateral deviation from a cleared track by 10nm or more.

A Lateral Deviation is any actual deviation from the cleared track other than those covered by Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures.

An ATC Intervention is an event where the ATCO caught and corrected a lateral deviation before it developed into a GNE.

An ATC Prevention is an event where ATCO action prevented a lateral deviation.

Question 14

Explain the Gentle Slope Rule.

Answer 14

Provided that within any interval of ten degrees of longitude, the change in latitude of at least one aircraft does not exceed:

3 degrees at or South of 58N.
2 degrees between 58N and 70N.
1 degree at or North of 70N South of 80N.

Then the 60nm/120nm lateral separations may be applied.

Question 15

What details shall an ATC clearance include and what items shall be added as necessary?

Answer 15

An ATC clearance shall include the following items:

Clearance Limit

Levels of flight and changes of levels - (Step climbs NOT allowed in Shanwick)

Aircraft Identification

Route

Airspeed (Mach Number/True) – (Shanwick Requirement)

Specific items may be added to a clearance as necessary;

Communications Instructions

Any Special Instructions

Time Restrictions

Question 16

State the Track Designators, Times and Levels used by both Shanwick and Gander.

Answer 16

A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J, K, L, M (not I) are allocated for use by Shanwick for the Day Track system irrespective of direction of flow.

N, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z (not O) are allocated to Gander for the Night Track system irrespective of direction of flow.

Eastbound Tracks: 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC

Westbound Tracks: 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC

Eastbound Tracks Levels within FL320 – FL400 inclusive
Westbound Track Levels within FL310 - FL390 inclusive

Question 17

What is the TMI and when is it changed?

Answer 17

Track Message Identification

It is based on the Julian Calendar.

The TMI is amended only when the change involves:

Any NAT Track co-ordinate, or named position

NAT Track published levels

Named points within European Routes West

Any combination of the above.

Question 18

What factors are taken into account when determining the OTS?

T
M
P
M
R
T
A
T
C
P
A
N
T
S
F
T
W

Answer 18

The Company Preferred Tracks (PRMs)

Minimum Time Tracks (MTT)

Proposed tracks from the Iberian Peninsula

Mandatory reporting point and landfall pairings in Gander

Requirements of Westbound and Eastbound traffic

The requirement for any organised track routing via GOMUP to cross 20W at, or north of, 58N

Airspace reservations

The requirement to omit FL340 from westbound tracks that landfall BOKTU-AVPUT inclusive to allow profiles for aircraft originating in the Reykjavic OCA

CAR/SAM Track Routing

PBCS tracks shall not be published into the New York area

Any restrictions in adjacent domestic areas which may affect track entry and termination points

No OTS tracks shall be published between successive waypoints at the same latitude, 6030N, 61N and 6130N, between 010W and 030W

The requirement to omit FL380 and FL390 from westbound tracks beginning at or north of ERAKA (until 1300 UTC at 30W) to accommodate late running eastbound flights from the west coast of North America

Separation criteria

FL340 and FL380 shall be omitted from any organised track originating in the Shanwick OCA which routes at or south of 48N, including any track which originates north of 48N and subsequently routes along or south of 48N

Tracks will be designed at half degrees or whole degrees of latitude. The tracks will not include both half degree and full degree coordinates except at the eastern boundary entry/exit point

Weather Activity

Question 19

What factors are taken into account when formulating an Oceanic Clearance?

Answer 19

Met

Military Activity/ Reservations

FLAS

Agreed Levels / Daily Plan

Separations

Traffic Patterns

Specific Coordination
Requirements (eg 50W – fishpoint pairings)

Question 20

List the ADT times for aircraft coming INTO Shanwick and their message types.

Answer 20

Gander - 70 mins before 30W - CPL

Reykjavik - 55 mins before ACI - CPL

Santa Maria - 90 mins before ACI - CPL

Scottish - 5 mins before boundary - ACT

Shannon - 20 mins before boundary - ACT

Brest - 20 mins before boundary - ABI

Madrid - 40 mins before boundary - ACT

Question 21

List the ADT times for aircraft leaving Shanwick to another sector.

Answer 21

Gander - 65 mins before 30W

Santa Maria - 90 mins before ACI

Reykjavik - 25 mins before ACI

Scottish - 30 mins before boundary

Shannon - 15 mins before boundary

Brest - 15 mins before boundary

Madrid - 30 mins before boundary

Question 22

Describe the following in relation to ATC documents:

TOI
SI
OPNOT
PCREM
USIN
USID
SN

Answer 22

TOI - Temporary Operating Instruction
Constitutes a temporary change to local ATC procedures, normally with a duration up to a maximum of 6 months. If needed for longer they can be re-issued.

SI - Supplementary Instructions
An SI constitutes a permanent change to ATC procedures which will be incorporates into the MATS2 at the next available update.

OPNOT - Operational Notice
Contains information or guidance on ATC matters, but does not constitute a change to ATC procedures

PCREM - PC Reminder
A reminder. No new information or changes to procedures

USIN - Unit Safety Information Notice
Issued by the Safety Coordination Team to highlight safety issues.

USD - Unit Safety Directive
Also issued by the Safety Coordination Team

SN - Safety Notice
Used to promulgate information on Safety related incidents. Can be issued by LAS as an immediate response to an issue, before there has been an opportunity to pass it to the Safety Coordination Team.

Question 23

List the GAATS+ flight states and how they interact.

Answer 23

UF - Uncleared Filed
GAATS+ holds a copy of the Flight Plan

UD - Uncleared Departed
GAATS+ holds Flight Plan, DEP message has been received

US - Uncleared Suspended
Not to be used. Enter an estimate to achieve UA status.

UA - Uncleared Active
An estimate/request has been received and/or the Flight Plan has been manually updated.

PC - Provisionally Cleared
Flight Plan has been updated to accurately reflect aircraft requests and probed to conflict check. This profile is now ‘protected in the system’

Is - Issued
Clearance issued to aircraft but has not yet been read back.

‘Blank’ - Fully Cleared
Clearance read back.

Question 24

In what 4 places are conflicts displayed in GAATS+ and what colours are associated with each type of conflict?

Answer 24

In the Separation Window
On the strips
On the GDD map
In the Warning and Conflict Window

Conflicts are displayed in RED when separation has been lost

YELLOW when separation will be lost in the future (Controller Probe)

PINK when separation will be lost in future (System Probe) over 1 hour in future

GREY warnings are displayed when estimates are within 4 minutes of minimum standard separation (45nm for ASEPS)

Question 25

Decode the following Internal System Messages: ``` LCC LFA LRZ OTM RMG EFP SEC TRK XFP MFP ```

Answer 25

``` LCC - Link Control Command LFA - List Filed Aircraft LRZ - List Reservations OTM - Organised Track Message RMG - Recall Message EFP - Enter Flight Plan SEC - Enter Sectorisation TRK - Track Activation XFP - Delete Flight Plan MFP - Modify Flight Plan ```

Question 26

In relation to OCL and the associated timings, what are the following times associated with: ``` 90mins 30mins 15mins 10mins 7mins ```

Answer 26

90mins - Maximum time before OEP that aircraft can request via datalink. 30mins - Latest time before OEP that aircraft can request via datalink. 15mins - OCL disabled 15mins before OEP. 10mins - Maximum elapsed time from when the CLX goes before the transaction times out if no CLA is received. 7mins - 7mins after CLX, if no response received, GAATS+ sends a reminder to the crew.

Question 27

In relation to CPDLC, what do the following times relate to: ``` 27mins before entry. 60mins prior to 30W (Eastbound). 3mins after entry. 15mins before exiting EGGX to a domestic centre. Just prior to exiting EGGX. ```

Answer 27

27mins before entry - Connection request sent by GAATS+ 60mins prior to 30W (Eastbound) - Connection request sent by GAATS+ 3mins after entry - Check & Ammend. 15mins before exiting EGGX to a domestic centre - VHF frequency sent. Just prior to exiting EGGX - End service message sent.

Question 28

In relation to ADS contracts, what do the following times relate to: 29mins before entry into EGGX from anywhere except Gander. 120mins Eastbound from Gander. 20mins before entry from BIRD and LPPO. 18mins before entry from CZQX. 70mins before entry from Domestic. 3mins after entry. Just before Domestic boundary. 10mins after entering another OACC.

Answer 28

29mins before entry into EGGX from anywhere except Gander - Default Periodic established. 120mins Eastbound from Gander - Default Periodic established. 20mins before entry from BIRD and LPPO - Waypoint Event established. 18mins before entry from CZQX - Waypoint Event established. 70mins before entry from Domestic - Waypoint Event established. 3mins after entry - Deviation Event established. Just before Domestic boundary - ADS contracts cancelled. 10mins after entering another OACC - ADS contracts cancelled.

Question 29

List the 4 different altitude regions and their associated levels.

Answer 29

LL - FL260 - FL290 ML - FL300 - FL330 TK - FL340 - FL370 HL - FL380 - FL410+ This leaves FL295 as the LL Surface Level. FL335 is the ML Surface Level. FL375 is the HL Surface Level.

Question 30

To take the whole of another controllers sector, what command would you input into the VT window?

Answer 30

SECO (En-route) P31 (All En-route on SWS 31) SECP (Planning)

Question 31

For each degree of latitude 61N - 46N inclusive, list the associated Oceanic Entry Point.

Answer 31

``` 61N - RATSU 60N - ATSIX 59N - BALIX 58N - ERAKA 57N - GOMUP / SUNOT 56N - PIKIL 55N - RESNO 54N - DOGAL 53N - MALOT 52N - LIMRI 51N - DINIM 50N - SOMAX 49N - BEDRA 48N - ETIKI 47N - SEPAL 46N - SIVIR ``` LASNO is 4834N

Question 32

For each degree of latitude 58N - 45N inclusive, list the GANDER 50W Fixed Pairings.

Answer 32

``` 58N - CUDDY / DORYY 57N - HOIST 56N - JANJO 55N - LOMSI 54N - NEEKO 53N - RIKAL 52N - TUDEP 51N - ALLRY 50N - ELSIR 49N -JOOPY 48N - NICSO 47N - PORTI 46N - SUPRY 45N - RAFIN ```

Question 33

List all of the coordination letters and their associated agencies. ``` Reykjavik Gander Santa Maria Scottish Shannon Brest Madrid Ballygirreen CDO ADNC Aerodrome Enroute Frequency Military Northwood Onward Routing Planner Weather ```

Answer 33

``` Reykjavik - R Gander - G Santa Maria - A Scottish - D Shannon - S Brest - P Madrid - M Ballygirreen - B CDO - C ADNC - X Aerodrome - J Enroute - E Frequency - F Military - T Northwood - N Onward Routing - O Planner - L Weather - W ```

Question 34

What are the dimensions of NAT HLA?

Answer 34

Vertical FL285 - FL420 Lateral Boundaries of: Shanwick (Excluding NOTA, SOTA and BOTA) Reykjavik Bodo Oceanic Gander Santa Maria New York Oceanic East

Question 35

Name the Santiago Clutch Airfields and the rules associated with flights from them.

Answer 35

Santiago - LEST A Coruna - LECO Vigo - LEVX Asturias - LEAS If they enter at BEGAS or DIXIS, the max they can be cleared at is FL320.

Question 36

Aircraft operating in NAT HLA are required to meet MNPS in the horizontal plane. Explain the MNPS accuracy requirements.

Answer 36

MNPS relates to deviation in the horizontal plane. Meeting MNPS means: The standard deviation of lateral track errors shall be less than 6.3NM. The proportion of total flight time spent by the aircraft 30NM or more off track shall be less than 1 hour in 1887 flight hours. The proportion of total flight time spent by the aircraft 50-70NM off track shall be less than 1 hour in 7693 flight hours.

Question 37

What airspace is not included in NAT Region DLM airspace.

Answer 37

Airspace North of 80N. New York Oceanic FIR. Airspace considered as ATS surveillance airspace and considered exempt from the DLM: RATSU - 61N020W - 63N030W - 62N040W - 61N050W - SAVRY (Southern Boundary)

Question 38

What is SLOP?

Answer 38

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure. Pilots have the authority to offset from the centre line of their cleared route in increments of 0.1nm up to a maximum of 2nm. Pilots are not required to notify ATC when applying SLOP.

Question 39

What is the Mach Number technique?

Answer 39

The Mach Number technique states that when the preceding aircraft is faster than the following aircraft, separation can be reduced by using the rule of 11. Preceding aircraft is: 0. 02 faster = 9 minutes separation required. 0. 03 faster = 8 minutes separation required. 0. 04 faster = 7 minutes separation required. 0. 05 faster = 6 minutes separation required. 0. 06 faster = 5 minutes separation required.

Question 40

Longitudinally, what are the minimum separation requirements between flights?

Answer 40

17nm between ADSB equipped flights where the angle is 45 degrees or greater and less than 90 degrees. 14nm between ADSB equipped flights where the angle is less than 45 degrees. 30 minutes between a non-turbo jet aircraft and other aircraft. 15 minutes between turbo jet aircraft. 10 minutes between turbo jet aircraft when applying Mach Number technique and the flights have reported over the same point or it can be guaranteed using radar or other means. 5 minutes between PBCS equipped flights on the same or intersecting tracks.

Question 41

What are the minimum separation requirements between opposite direction flights?

Answer 41

Non Turbo Jet aircraft – 30 minutes. Non NAT HLA Turbo Jet aircraft – 20 minutes. NAT HLA Turbo Jet aircraft – 15 minutes. Non NAT HLA Turbo Jet aircraft that have reported over the same point – 15 minutes. NAT HLA Turbo Jet that have reported over the same position – 10 minutes. ADSB / ASEPS aircraft – 5nm.

Question 42

What separations are required when the succeeding aircraft is the same speed or faster?

Answer 42

Shanwick increase the basic longitudinal separation by 3 minutes for each 0.1 difference in Mach number for routes terminating at or North of RAFIN. Shanwick increase the basic longitudinal separation by 5 minutes for each 0.1 difference in Mach number for routes terminating South of RAFIN.

Question 43

Do Reykjavik apply ASEPS?

Answer 43

No. They will accept flights using ASEPS within the area of radar coverage where they can apply a separation less than ASEPS. Reykjavik cannot accept flights separated by ASEPS within the Reykjavik OCA South of the following: 57N020W, 6230N030W, 6030N040W.

Question 44

What 4 types of ADS contract are there?

Answer 44

Waypoint Event Deviation Event Periodic Demand

Question 45

What 3 types of Periodic contract are there?

Answer 45

EMG - 10mins Met - 30mins Default - 14mins Only one periodic contract available at one time. If no contract is in place and an EMG is reported, Boeing will report every 5mins, Airbus every 1min.

Question 46

Except in an emergency, aircraft should not route via where?

Answer 46

45N0845W.

Question 47

Once an estimate has been sent from Shanwick to another centre, when WILL Shanwick coordinate by voice?

Answer 47

If less than minimum separation will occur. The aircraft profile changes. The aircraft estimate changes by: 5mins or more to GANDER. 3mins or more elsewhere.

Question 48

Shanwick has approved the Voyager Cell to operate in Oceanic airspace under what conditions?

Answer 48

All Voyager tankers in cell must be HF equipped. Chicks may be HF equipped. No more than 4 chicks per tanker. Voyager tanker logged onto CPDLC with EGGX prior to refuelling. Switch of HF only when refuelling. All cell aircraft in contact with each other whilst refuelling. Advise EGGX at least 5 mins before switching off HF. Switch HF back on after refuelling and confirm on HF refuelling complete and all aircraft HF switched back on. If aircraft crosses a reporting point whilst refuelling, send POS via CPDLC.

Question 49

Regarding High Seas Firing Areas (SWAPPS), how would we become aware of the activity and how would we find out the dates and times of activity in the areas?

Answer 49

An ACN (Airspace Coordination Notice) will be issued by AUS stating the dates and times of activity in the areas.

Question 50

What are the vertical limits of the High Seas Firing Areas and which airways do the airspace reservation affect?

Answer 50

They are Sea Level - Unlimited. They affect T213 and T16 at all levels.

Question 51

What separation is required against SWAPPS areas A and B?`

Answer 51

Within the SOTA, 0NM is required for both SWAPPS area A and B. Outside the SOTA - Within NAT HLA = 30NM, Outside NAT HLA = 60NM.

Question 52

Regarding High Seas Firing Areas, how would pilots become aware of the scheduled activity?

Answer 52

Shanwick will issue NOTAMS for the reservations.

Question 53

Will High Seas Firing Activity be confined exclusively to the reserved area?

Answer 53

Yes, the consulting authority for exercises held in the HSF Areas will guarantee that the activity will be contained within the reserved area.

Question 54

List the 3 UK OPCON Areas and their dimensions.

Answer 54

OPCON North. 61N - 54N. 30W - 10W. OPCON Central. 57N - 49N. 30W - 15W - 10W - 08W. OPCON South. 51N - 45N. 30W - 08W. The areas can be activated in any combination. All are Sea Level - FL240.

Question 55

How will aircraft transit to and from the operational OPCON areas?

Answer 55

Transit will take place at or below FL240. There will be no communication with Shanwick unless special circumstances require it. Special circumstances include: Emergencies. High Level Transit. Diversion due SAR duties.

Question 56

What traffic information is passed by Shanwick and to whom regarding UK OPCON areas?

Answer 56

Shanwick pass traffic to Northwood on aircraft that will operate within the UK OPCON areas. (Excluding SOTA, NOTA and BOTA). Shanwick pass: Callsign, FL, Time of entering OPCON, Time leaving OPCON.

Question 57

Regarding traffic penetrating the OPCON area, what revisions would we need to pass to Northwood?

Answer 57

Modifications to an aircraft FL or route. | Time revisions of 10mins or more.

Question 58

Regarding aircraft needing a high level transit to an OPCON area, what information is required in the flight plan?

Answer 58

Coordinates for the point of joining the return track. Point of commencement into the task area and ETA. Route to task area including coordinates and ETA for OCA entry and every 10 degrees of longitude. Rote from task area including coordinates for every 10 degrees of longitude and name of OCA exit point. Required level for the transit legs. The task area will be delineated by either: Geographical coordinates of the whole area, or, centre point and radius (normally 100nm but may be varied for particular sorties). The vertical limits of the task area. The words "under UK operational control" in field 18.

Question 59

When FL250 is used for the transit leg to a UK OPCON area, how does the captain obtain an oceanic clearance?

Answer 59

Call on the CDO frequency 30 minutes before the ETA at the Shanwick boundary or ASAP thereafter to confirm time at the boundary and obtain clearance. 15 minutes before the ETA for the descent point, Captain confirms his ETA and requests information on all traffic affecting descent. At descent point, Captain will message: "Descending and going operational".

Question 60

Regarding UK OPCON areas, who is responsible for separation below FL240?

Answer 60

The Captain of the operational aircraft.

Question 61

Do you pass traffic information on aircraft flying within 60nm of an OPCON area?

Answer 61

Yes, as well as those flying within it.

Question 62

Regarding descending into or climbing out of a UK OPCON area, who is responsible for the separation between FL250 and FL270 inclusive?

Answer 62

The Captain is responsible. Shanwick advises the aircraft of any traffic affecting it at these levels. When the aircraft reaches the cleared FL or passes FL280, Shanwick regains control.

Question 63

What is Due Regard?

Answer 63

Used by military aircraft, Due Regard allows the military aircraft commander to be his own ATC agency and separate his aircraft from all other traffic.

Question 64

Military aircraft operating under Due Regard are subject to one or more of the following conditions:

Answer 64

Aircraft shall be operated in VMC. Aircraft operating within radar surveillance and radio communication of surface radar facility. Aircraft equipped with airborne radar sufficient to provide themselves with separation from other aircraft. Aircraft operated outside controlled airspace.

Question 65

What two types of reservation are there and what are they for?

Answer 65

Stationary. Moving. Stationary - Sterilising a piece of airspace within prescribed lateral and vertical limits that do not change with time. Moving - A reservation to protect a particular route and levels that follow an aircraft's flight through Shanwick.

Question 66

Between Stationary Reservations and other aircraft, what are the lateral separation minima?

Answer 66

For NAT HLA equipped aircraft: 30nm provided the operating agency has guaranteed that the reservation activity will be confined to the reservation. 60nm if no guarantee has been given. The above can be applied to aircraft or moving reservations against the stationary reservation, provided that one of the moving reservation aircraft meets NAT HLA requirements. For non - NAT HLA equipped aircraft: 60nm provided the operating agency has guaranteed that the reservation activity will be confined to the reservation. 120nm if no guarantee has been given.

Question 67

Between Stationary Reservations and other Stationary Reservations, what are the lateral separation minima?

Answer 67

60nm provided the operating agency has guaranteed that the reservation activity will be confined to the reservation. 120nm if no guarantee has been given. These rules do not apply if both sponsors are aware of the activity of the other. E.g. UK OPCON areas overlapping HSF.

Question 68

Between Moving Reservations and other Moving Reservations, what are the lateral separation minima?

Answer 68

60nm against NAT HLA equipped aircraft within a reservation. 120nm against non - NAT HLA aircraft. In the case of formation flights, only one aircraft is required to meet NAT HLA standards.

Question 69

What is MARSA and when is it used?

Answer 69

Military Assumes Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft. It is the delegation of separation of aircraft in flight to military authorities. Used when military aircraft must operate in close proximity. Often used within Oceanic Reservations.

Question 70

What is AVANA?

Answer 70

Approval Void for Aircraft Not Airbourne. It is a time at which the approval is void if the aircraft in question has not taken off.

Question 71

What is the maximum number of waypoints that a reservation between FL290 and FL410 can have?

Answer 71

No more than 15.

Question 72

What are the Enroute controller responsibilities regarding flights within a reservation?

Answer 72

On request, provide a FIS. On request, provide an Alerting Service Maintain standard separation against traffic outside the reservation. Confirm that adjacent ATSUs are aware of all reservations which would enter their AOR. This usually involves coordinating the number of aircraft, types of aircraft and which are in contact with ATC.

Question 73

What are the ADS-B special codes and their associated meanings?

Answer 73

``` General Emergency - EMR Medical Emergency - MED Minimum Fuel - GAS No Comms - RDO Unlawful Interference - HIJ ```

Question 74

What happens if the Nav Canada Gateway fails and will pilots be aware of the failure?

Answer 74

We lose ADS-C and CPDLC but the pilots will not necessarily be aware.

Question 75

If Aireon goes down, what happens?

Answer 75

We get no ADS-B data and therefore cannot apply ASEPS. There is an audible alarm that says SDP link lost, also on GDD. If Fusion is online but the Fusion Line is down, there will be no warning to the controller.

Question 76

What is MRTS and what does it do?

Answer 76

Manual Reversion Transition System. In addition to the strips displayed on the sector at the time of failure, MRTS will print strips that would have been eligible for display.

Question 77

In the case of FANS failure, controllers endeavour to establish a standard separation between flights, but in the event of multiple FANS failures, what are the controller actions?

Answer 77

CANCEL ALL CONTRACTS in the ADS window with flights that do not require ADS-C for separation, thus reducing the excessive failure messages. Board check to clarify which flights are using ADS-C separations and consider cancelling contracts with these flights also. If flights are Westbound requiring ADS-C separations and they are East of 20W, instruct the flight to log on to CZQX without logging off of Shanwick. If flights are Westbound requiring ADS-C separations and they are West of 20W, co-ordinate them with Gander Inform Gander of the failure. Request Gander monitors the Eastbound flights through our airspace if possible. Do not clear using ADS-C separations. Use HF to advise flights using ADS-C separations to make voice reports.

Question 78

How do we record hard copies of POS reports received during MO?

Answer 78

Tick crossed out = Correct position reported. Tick = Next position is correct. Dot = Subsequent position is correct, Add a diagonal slash line under the position to record the estimates and reported times. Forward estimates are entered above the line, reported times are entered below the line.

Question 79

During MO, what type of reports will be delivered to the controller?

Answer 79

Only Waypoint Reports will be delivered in the interest of saving time.

Question 80

During MO, reduced separations are no longer applicable. The controller should check strips for flights separated by 5 minutes or less at landfall where the second aircraft is the same speed or faster. In these circumstances, what are the controller actions?

Answer 80

On HF, instruct flight to report any changes in speed, level or route. Issue Essential Traffic Information. Consider increasing longitudinal spacing through Mach number clearances. Consider issuing ATB/ATA restrictions for the next waypoint. Advise Gander of the failure and request they provide additional monitoring of reduced separations prior to 30W. Update Manual Strip Display to indicate any flight Gander agree to provide additional monitoring.

Question 81

GAATS+ sends and receives data on all flights operating at what levels?

Answer 81

All flights above FL50.

Question 82

Regarding time revisions, how many minutes does an aircraft have to be out for us to advise adjacent sectors?

Answer 82

Gander = 5 minutes or more. | Everyone else = 3 minutes or more.

Question 83

What are the rules regarding Sondrestrom FIR?

Answer 83

It is Uncontrolled Airspace below FL195. Flights at FL190 and below shall be cleared to maintain assigned level "whilst in controlled airspace".

Question 84

What is BGBW and how does it appear on the GDD?

Answer 84

Narsarsuaq. It appears as NA on the GDD.

Question 85

What do you do on receipt of a MAC message and who can we send MAC messages to?

Answer 85

Call the offering agency and confirm that the flight is no longer entering Shanwick. We only send to CZQX and LPPO. BIRD cannot accept.

Question 86

Explain BET PC and what it does.

Answer 86

BET PC compares OCM and EFD. It warns if: Boundary estimate is not credible. (Differs by 20mins or more) Aircraft is uncleared. (10mins / 15mins prior to boundary, if no OCM exists, warning message is output including aircraft's last reported FL.) Not at the cleared level. (Warning 2 mins from boundary if the flight is not within 1,200ft / 1,700ft.) (Warning again 1 min frim boundary if the flight is not within 900ft.) (Domestic, Shannon and Brest will have aircraft level 3 minutes prior to the boundary where possible.)

Question 87

Name 3 LRNS.

Answer 87

GPS - Global Positioning System INS - Inertial navigation System GNSS - Global Navigation Satellite System

Question 88

What is FOM?

Answer 88

Figure Of Merit. It is a message generated by the avionics of the aircraft which indicates navigational performance. On receipt of a FOM message, go to the emergency index on SIRS and find the set message. Send this to the flight.

Question 89

What is CoA and how does it work?

Answer 89

Closure of Airspace. In exceptional circumstances, CoA may be activated by UK Government. It affects the entire UK, so Swanwick and Prestwick.

Question 90

There are 5 stages to the CoA, what are they?

Answer 90

``` Activate Escalate Communicate Regulate Vacate ``` CoA may be revoked at any point up to the Vacate stage.

Question 91

What are the 5 phases of GAATS+ Failure?

Answer 91

Auto Restart - Automatically attempts if one system fails. Manual Restart - "GAATS+ link lost" appears. GS requests a strip print and queue print. Await instruction from GS and prepare for MO. REDOS Rebuild Attempt - Snapshot of flight plan updates from GAATS+. Rebuilds system within 10 minutes. Manual Reversion - Manual Ops. Agreed levels with Santa Maria suspended. Rebuild - GS states a planned ops normal time. Controllers continue to manage MO traffic. as soon as GAATS+ enters a restart phase, the GS will instruct "no further inputs". All workstations go into local mode and require logging back on following a successful restart.

Question 92

What are the names of the Danger Areas within French Airspace and what are their implications?

Answer 92

D120 (Zena) FL195/UNL - Closure of entry / exit points BUNAV, SEPAL, ETIKI, UMLER. D12G FL195/UNL - Planners do their best to avoid EPCs from ETIKI/UMLER to SEPAL/BUNAV/SIVIR. D16E - Closure of UMLER.