Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

2602 - What is the standard minimum climb gradient, if one is not published in SID/DP/ODP?

A

200 ft/nm

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2
Q

2798 - Max holding speeds and altitudes

A

MHA-6000: 200 KIAS
6001-14000: 230
14001 and above: 265

(AIM Chapter 5, Section 3)

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3
Q

2809 - What color are runway centerline lights?

A

White - until the last 3000 ft of rwy
Alt red/white - for the next 2000 ft
Red - last 1000 ft of runway

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4
Q

2700 - What is the required forecast weather to file a civil airport with a precision approach as an alternate in an airplane?

A

600ft and 2sm

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5
Q

2972 - Holding pattern entry when on V264 to POM

A

Correct answer assumes you are flying from the east

Direct

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6
Q

1295 - Lowest ILS Cat 2 Mins

A

DH 100 ft and RVR 1200 ft

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7
Q

1026 - If you are 60nm from a Nav station, how much is each degree?

A

60 to 1 rule: at a distance of 60nm, each degree is equal to approx. 1nm

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8
Q

1319 - When you are flying a procedure turn for an instrument approach procedure, it should be flown at or below ___

A

200 KIAS

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9
Q

2678 - What is the symbol for MALSR on the airport diagram?

A

A5

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10
Q

1553 - What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?

2709 - What is the cooling rate of dry air? Fahrenheit and Celsius

A

Dry Adiabatic Rate of Temp Change

3C (5.4F) per 1000 ft

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11
Q

1652 - What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)

A

Altimeter setting 30.07

8C is also a choice, but it is a typo in the testing center computer and should be 8F, so DO NOT CHOOSE THIS

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12
Q

2905 - What causes ADVECTION FOG?

A

Moist air moving over a cold surface causing the temperature to drop below the dewpoint.

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13
Q

2489 - What conditions are favorable to RADIATION FOG?

What time of day will it most likely occur?

A

Clear sky, little or no wind, and small temp- dew point spread (high relative humidity).

When rain soaks the ground, followed by clearing skies, radiation fog is not uncommon.

Forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.

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14
Q

How often are maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued?

A

hourly

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15
Q

2339 - “You are PIC in an aircraft with 17000 pounds of cargo scheduled for a 1550nm flight in still air. Can you take another 1000 pounds of cargo and still be under MTOW?”

What figure should you use and what is the answer?

A

Figure 459 and “Yes”

  • some testing centers have error in this question and figure is not referenced (do not choose “need more info” option)
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16
Q

(Refer to figure 458) With a reported temperature of 10c, a 1% slope, 4000 feet, and 10kt headwind, the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing weight is ___

A

80,500

This is a bad question - with 1% upslope or downslope you will get closer to 87000 or 88000, however 80500 has been reported as correct

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17
Q

2215 - A rule of thumb states that a 1000- foot increase in density altitude for a turbojet with a HIGH thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a takeoff distance increase of __

A

7%

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18
Q

At what speed, with reference to L/D Max, does a maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?

A

A speed greater than that for L/D Max

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19
Q

2204- At what speed does drag divergence occur relative to the critical Mach number?

A

5-10 percent higher

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20
Q

2591 - What is the N(2) indication in a turbine-powered engine?

A

The high pressure section compressor speed

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21
Q

At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70PSI?

A
speed = sqrt(tire pressure) * 9 
75 = sqrt(70)*9
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22
Q

2504 - Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?

A

32

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23
Q

2257 - Investigations of air carriers have shown that human error is a contributing factor in ___ percent of all accidents.

A

60-80%

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24
Q

2225 - A bank angle of 30 degrees will increase induced drag by ___

A

Induced drag = load factor ^2
load factor = 1/cos(bank angle)

= 33%

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25
Q

2216 - Friction braking becomes effective at ____ percent of touchdown speed

A

70-80

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26
Q

2224 - The specific range for a turbojet at 40,000 feet is approximately ___ percent greater than at sea level

A

150

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27
Q

1782 - What limits a turbine engine from developing a compressor stall?

A

Compressor bleed valves

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28
Q

2243 - The most efficient cruise control in a turbojet is

A

the climbing cruise

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29
Q

2249 - For an airplane with a relatively low thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of approximately ___ percent more

A

25-30

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30
Q

2808 - Which type of transponder is required for operations in Class A airspace?

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) Out transponder on 1090 MHZ

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31
Q

2907 - Which airspace requires ADS-B with extended squitter?

A

Class A

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32
Q

2652 - If the VGSI and verticle descent angle do not coincide, the VGSI will be ____

A

below the descent angle

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33
Q

2203 - How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight has increased 10%

A

10% (directly proportional)

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34
Q

2266 - Supercooled water droplets have been observed at temperatures as low as

A
  • 40c
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35
Q

2205 - A bank angle of 15 degrees will increase induced drag by

2207- A bank angle of 60 degrees will increase induced drag by __

A

7%

300%

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36
Q

1538 - Which area of the northern hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?

A

arctic and subtropical

37
Q

Drag rise usually occurs ___%____ critical mach number

A

5-10% above critical mach number

38
Q

2212 - The Mach number which produces a sharp change in the drag coefficient is termed the ___

A

force divergence Mach number

39
Q

2833 - If a low, flat approach is flown, what is the effect on landing distance?

A

It lengthens the landing distance

40
Q

1842- Propeller driven airplanes can develop more lift at slower airspeeds with power on because

A

propellers create greater dynamic over-wing forces downstream

41
Q

2213 - For an airplane with a relatively high thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of approximately ____

A

21%

42
Q

A bank angle of 45 degrees will increase induced drag by ___ percent

A

100%

43
Q

To produce any significant benefit, wing sweep should be at least ___

A

30-35 degrees

44
Q

2189 - Flight duty periods for flightcrew members are limited to ___ hours in any 168 consecutive hours

A

60

45
Q

2807- Per CFR Part 121, you may not initiate a flight with a 3-pilot flightcrew if the total flight time will exceed

A

13 hours

46
Q

1786 - What happens to stall speed as the aircraft gains altitude

A

Increases

question is ambiguous, but this is the answer that is being scored correct, so they must be referring to TAS

47
Q

2494 - Under CFR 121, the second in command of an aircraft in domestic operation must hold

A

an airline transport pilot certificate with an appropriate airplane type rating for the airplane being flown

48
Q

1758 - Taxiway Centerline Lead-off lights are color coded to warn pilots that __

A

they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area

49
Q

Without scheduled rest opportunities, no flightcrew member may accept an assignment for

A

more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low

50
Q

402 - Max flight time if report for duty at 0400

A

8 hours

Time of Report / Max Flight Time
0000-0459 - 8 hours
0500-1959 - 9 hours
2000-2359 - 8 hours

51
Q

2219 - Swept wings ___

A

increase the force divergence number

52
Q

2728 - How can you identify the approach end of a runway

A

REIL

53
Q

What is true when operating an airplane at speeds below L/D max?

A

pitch for airspeed in the climb

54
Q

When you are suffering from hyperventilation, possible symptoms include

A

muscle spasms and visual impairment

55
Q

The decrease in wind speed from the core of the jet stream is the greatest on ___

A

the polar side of the jet stream

56
Q

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an air transport pilot is restricted to ___

A

36 hours in any 7 consecutive day period

57
Q

2989 - What will be the effect on drag when operating an airplane at an angle of attack (AOA) that is less than what is required for (L/D)max?

A

Total drag will increase

58
Q

554 - You decide to deploy leading edge slats at low speed and high angle of attack. The purpose of the slats is to ___

A

delay airflow separation on the upper part of the wing.

59
Q

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) can be found

A

in areas of increased horizontal and vertical wind shear within the stream

60
Q

Flight duty periods for flightcrew members are limited to __ hours in any 168 consecutive hours

A

60

61
Q

which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine engine powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?

A

the weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR

62
Q

1598 - In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form

A

slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

63
Q

2604 - How are wingtip vortices proportionately related to speed, weight, and wingspan.

A

Directly proportional to weight, indirectly proportional to speed and wingspan

64
Q

2617 - A special convective sigmet may be issued when which of the following conditions are expected for more than 30 minutes of the valid period

A

wind gusts great than or equal to 50 knots

65
Q

2436 - What is the most effective braking method on a contaminated runway?

A

wheel braking and reverse thrust

66
Q

Approach speeds (based on Vref)

A

Cat C 121-140

Cat A <= 90
Cat B 91-120
Cat D 141-165
Cat E >= 166

67
Q

2863 - CRM involves the assessment of risk and its probability in order to

A

mitigate risk

68
Q

A ‘hot start” in a turbine engine is caused by

A

too much fuel in the combustion chamber

69
Q

A rule of thumb states that a 1,000 foot increase in density altitude for a turbojet with a low thrust-to-weight ration will cause a takeoff distance increase of

A

10%

70
Q

The stratosphere is characterized by

A

constant lower boundary altitude of 35,000 feet

71
Q

2245 - stress distractions can interfere with judgement such that ___

A

unwarranted risks are taken

72
Q

2544 - the purpose of leading edge slats is to ___

A

delay airflow separation at high angles of attach and slow speeds

73
Q

At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?

A

A speed greater than that for L/Dmax

74
Q

Which is an effect of carbon monoxide poisening?

A

Dizziness

75
Q

2323 - When flying in high level cirroform clouds, you know clear air turbulence is ___

A

likely in the clouds

76
Q

2197 - Vortex generators are designed to

A

delay boundary layer separation

77
Q

2460 - Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet airplane?

A

The nose of the airplane noticeably pitches up

78
Q

2478 - It is 100F and the current altimeter is 29.85. Given this information, the altimeter indication on the ground would show

A

higher than field elevation

79
Q

1599 - What weather difference is found on each side of a “dry line”?

A

dewpoint difference

80
Q

2216 - Friction braking becomes effective at ___

A

70-80% of touchdown speed

81
Q

2352 - Jet streams are found ___

A

near the tropopause

82
Q

2246 - Turning performance of an airplane is defined by ___

A

aerodynamics and power limits at high altitudes

83
Q

What identifies a transient compressor stall?

A

Intermittent ‘bang’ as backfires and flow reversals take place

84
Q

2852 - Where can you expect the most turbulence associated with a jet stream?

A

Low pressure side of the jet stream core

85
Q

2107 - Shock induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root in an airplane is hazardous because ___

A

the center of pressure moves aft

86
Q

2942 - What could contribute to spatial disorientation?

A

Flying based on your sensory perceptions

87
Q

25 - You are landing at an airport near the coast with a wind shear advisory. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?

A

A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just about the inversion

88
Q

61 - In normal cruise speed range, the propulsive efficiency of a turboprop __

A

decreases as speed increases

89
Q

94 - What device can be used to counteract the nose-down pitching movement and increase the camber produced by deploying the wing flaps?

A

leading edge flaps