Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

2602 - What is the standard minimum climb gradient, if one is not published in SID/DP/ODP?

A

200 ft/nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2798 - Max holding speeds and altitudes

A

MHA-6000: 200 KIAS
6001-14000: 230
14001 and above: 265

(AIM Chapter 5, Section 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2809 - What color are runway centerline lights?

A

White - until the last 3000 ft of rwy
Alt red/white - for the next 2000 ft
Red - last 1000 ft of runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2700 - What is the required forecast weather to file a civil airport with a precision approach as an alternate in an airplane?

A

600ft and 2sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2972 - Holding pattern entry when on V264 to POM

A

Correct answer assumes you are flying from the east

Direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1295 - Lowest ILS Cat 2 Mins

A

DH 100 ft and RVR 1200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1026 - If you are 60nm from a Nav station, how much is each degree?

A

60 to 1 rule: at a distance of 60nm, each degree is equal to approx. 1nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1319 - When you are flying a procedure turn for an instrument approach procedure, it should be flown at or below ___

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2678 - What is the symbol for MALSR on the airport diagram?

A

A5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1553 - What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?

2709 - What is the cooling rate of dry air? Fahrenheit and Celsius

A

Dry Adiabatic Rate of Temp Change

3C (5.4F) per 1000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1652 - What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)

A

Altimeter setting 30.07

8C is also a choice, but it is a typo in the testing center computer and should be 8F, so DO NOT CHOOSE THIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2905 - What causes ADVECTION FOG?

A

Moist air moving over a cold surface causing the temperature to drop below the dewpoint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2489 - What conditions are favorable to RADIATION FOG?

What time of day will it most likely occur?

A

Clear sky, little or no wind, and small temp- dew point spread (high relative humidity).

When rain soaks the ground, followed by clearing skies, radiation fog is not uncommon.

Forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How often are maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued?

A

hourly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2339 - “You are PIC in an aircraft with 17000 pounds of cargo scheduled for a 1550nm flight in still air. Can you take another 1000 pounds of cargo and still be under MTOW?”

What figure should you use and what is the answer?

A

Figure 459 and “Yes”

  • some testing centers have error in this question and figure is not referenced (do not choose “need more info” option)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(Refer to figure 458) With a reported temperature of 10c, a 1% slope, 4000 feet, and 10kt headwind, the maximum permissible quick turn-around landing weight is ___

A

80,500

This is a bad question - with 1% upslope or downslope you will get closer to 87000 or 88000, however 80500 has been reported as correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2215 - A rule of thumb states that a 1000- foot increase in density altitude for a turbojet with a HIGH thrust-to-weight ratio will cause a takeoff distance increase of __

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At what speed, with reference to L/D Max, does a maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?

A

A speed greater than that for L/D Max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2204- At what speed does drag divergence occur relative to the critical Mach number?

A

5-10 percent higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2591 - What is the N(2) indication in a turbine-powered engine?

A

The high pressure section compressor speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what minimum speed will dynamic hydroplaning begin if a tire has an air pressure of 70PSI?

A
speed = sqrt(tire pressure) * 9 
75 = sqrt(70)*9
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2504 - Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2257 - Investigations of air carriers have shown that human error is a contributing factor in ___ percent of all accidents.

A

60-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

2225 - A bank angle of 30 degrees will increase induced drag by ___

A

Induced drag = load factor ^2
load factor = 1/cos(bank angle)

= 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
2216 - Friction braking becomes effective at ____ percent of touchdown speed
70-80
26
2224 - The specific range for a turbojet at 40,000 feet is approximately ___ percent greater than at sea level
150
27
1782 - What limits a turbine engine from developing a compressor stall?
Compressor bleed valves
28
2243 - The most efficient cruise control in a turbojet is
the climbing cruise
29
2249 - For an airplane with a relatively low thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of approximately ___ percent more
25-30
30
2808 - Which type of transponder is required for operations in Class A airspace?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) Out transponder on 1090 MHZ
31
2907 - Which airspace requires ADS-B with extended squitter?
Class A
32
2652 - If the VGSI and verticle descent angle do not coincide, the VGSI will be ____
below the descent angle
33
2203 - How does the minimum landing distance increase if the airplane landing weight has increased 10%
10% (directly proportional)
34
2266 - Supercooled water droplets have been observed at temperatures as low as
- 40c
35
2205 - A bank angle of 15 degrees will increase induced drag by 2207- A bank angle of 60 degrees will increase induced drag by __
7% 300%
36
1538 - Which area of the northern hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?
arctic and subtropical
37
Drag rise usually occurs ___%____ critical mach number
5-10% above critical mach number
38
2212 - The Mach number which produces a sharp change in the drag coefficient is termed the ___
force divergence Mach number
39
2833 - If a low, flat approach is flown, what is the effect on landing distance?
It lengthens the landing distance
40
1842- Propeller driven airplanes can develop more lift at slower airspeeds with power on because
propellers create greater dynamic over-wing forces downstream
41
2213 - For an airplane with a relatively high thrust-to-weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of approximately ____
21%
42
A bank angle of 45 degrees will increase induced drag by ___ percent
100%
43
To produce any significant benefit, wing sweep should be at least ___
30-35 degrees
44
2189 - Flight duty periods for flightcrew members are limited to ___ hours in any 168 consecutive hours
60
45
2807- Per CFR Part 121, you may not initiate a flight with a 3-pilot flightcrew if the total flight time will exceed
13 hours
46
1786 - What happens to stall speed as the aircraft gains altitude
Increases | question is ambiguous, but this is the answer that is being scored correct, so they must be referring to TAS
47
2494 - Under CFR 121, the second in command of an aircraft in domestic operation must hold
an airline transport pilot certificate with an appropriate airplane type rating for the airplane being flown
48
1758 - Taxiway Centerline Lead-off lights are color coded to warn pilots that __
they are within the runway environment or ILS critical area
49
Without scheduled rest opportunities, no flightcrew member may accept an assignment for
more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low
50
402 - Max flight time if report for duty at 0400
8 hours Time of Report / Max Flight Time 0000-0459 - 8 hours 0500-1959 - 9 hours 2000-2359 - 8 hours
51
2219 - Swept wings ___
increase the force divergence number
52
2728 - How can you identify the approach end of a runway
REIL
53
What is true when operating an airplane at speeds below L/D max?
pitch for airspeed in the climb
54
When you are suffering from hyperventilation, possible symptoms include
muscle spasms and visual impairment
55
The decrease in wind speed from the core of the jet stream is the greatest on ___
the polar side of the jet stream
56
The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an air transport pilot is restricted to ___
36 hours in any 7 consecutive day period
57
2989 - What will be the effect on drag when operating an airplane at an angle of attack (AOA) that is less than what is required for (L/D)max?
Total drag will increase
58
554 - You decide to deploy leading edge slats at low speed and high angle of attack. The purpose of the slats is to ___
delay airflow separation on the upper part of the wing.
59
Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) can be found
in areas of increased horizontal and vertical wind shear within the stream
60
Flight duty periods for flightcrew members are limited to __ hours in any 168 consecutive hours
60
61
which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine engine powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?
the weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR
62
1598 - In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure areas form
slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
63
2604 - How are wingtip vortices proportionately related to speed, weight, and wingspan.
Directly proportional to weight, indirectly proportional to speed and wingspan
64
2617 - A special convective sigmet may be issued when which of the following conditions are expected for more than 30 minutes of the valid period
wind gusts great than or equal to 50 knots
65
2436 - What is the most effective braking method on a contaminated runway?
wheel braking and reverse thrust
66
Approach speeds (based on Vref)
Cat C 121-140 Cat A <= 90 Cat B 91-120 Cat D 141-165 Cat E >= 166
67
2863 - CRM involves the assessment of risk and its probability in order to
mitigate risk
68
A 'hot start" in a turbine engine is caused by
too much fuel in the combustion chamber
69
A rule of thumb states that a 1,000 foot increase in density altitude for a turbojet with a low thrust-to-weight ration will cause a takeoff distance increase of
10%
70
The stratosphere is characterized by
constant lower boundary altitude of 35,000 feet
71
2245 - stress distractions can interfere with judgement such that ___
unwarranted risks are taken
72
2544 - the purpose of leading edge slats is to ___
delay airflow separation at high angles of attach and slow speeds
73
At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?
A speed greater than that for L/Dmax
74
Which is an effect of carbon monoxide poisening?
Dizziness
75
2323 - When flying in high level cirroform clouds, you know clear air turbulence is ___
likely in the clouds
76
2197 - Vortex generators are designed to
delay boundary layer separation
77
2460 - Which is a stall characteristic of a T-tail jet airplane?
The nose of the airplane noticeably pitches up
78
2478 - It is 100F and the current altimeter is 29.85. Given this information, the altimeter indication on the ground would show
higher than field elevation
79
1599 - What weather difference is found on each side of a "dry line"?
dewpoint difference
80
2216 - Friction braking becomes effective at ___
70-80% of touchdown speed
81
2352 - Jet streams are found ___
near the tropopause
82
2246 - Turning performance of an airplane is defined by ___
aerodynamics and power limits at high altitudes
83
What identifies a transient compressor stall?
Intermittent 'bang' as backfires and flow reversals take place
84
2852 - Where can you expect the most turbulence associated with a jet stream?
Low pressure side of the jet stream core
85
2107 - Shock induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root in an airplane is hazardous because ___
the center of pressure moves aft
86
2942 - What could contribute to spatial disorientation?
Flying based on your sensory perceptions
87
25 - You are landing at an airport near the coast with a wind shear advisory. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just about the inversion
88
61 - In normal cruise speed range, the propulsive efficiency of a turboprop __
decreases as speed increases
89
94 - What device can be used to counteract the nose-down pitching movement and increase the camber produced by deploying the wing flaps?
leading edge flaps