KV study items Flashcards
(217 cards)
1
Q
Conditions that will Close the ECS PACKS (7)
A
- A bleed source is not available for the PACK.
- The respective PACK button is OFF.
- Any engine is starting, with WOW (both PACKs shut off).
- Respective engine is starting, no WOW, and opposite engine not starting.
- Any engine is starting and APU is the bleed source (both PACKs close)
- Respective bleed leak
- Respective BIT failure (essentially, a system fault in the PACK)
2
Q
APU auto shutdown on the ground?
A
Underspeed
Fadec Critical Fault
Overspeed
Sensor fail
High oil temp
EGT overtemp
Low oil pressure
Fire (APU)
3
Q
Conditions that will Open the APU Bleed (5) (simultaneously)
A
- APU bleed switch is set to AUTO
- APU bleed is available
- No APU/left bleed duct leak
- Left engine bleed is unavailable
- No Anti-Ice requested
4
Q
Conditions that will command engine bleed valve open. All must be met simultaneously (4)
A
- Respective bleed switch is AUTO.
- Respective engine bleed is available.
- No fire is detected in respective engine.
- No bleed leak is detected.
4
Q
Conditions that will open the Cross Bleed. All must be met (6)
A
- XBLEED button is pushed in (auto).
- One side providing bleed pressure and there is not a bleed source on
the opposite side. - APU bleed button pushed out for main engine start.
- Engine 2 start in the air.
- APU bleed off for Engine 1 start in the air.
- No bleed leak.
5
Q
Command recirculation fans off (5).
A
- The DUMP button is pressed.
- Smoke is detected in the recirculation bay.
- Both PACKs are commanded OFF.
- On ground cabin warm-up mode when the APU is the bleed source.
- Cargo bay fire signal activates.
5
Q
FADEC ECS Off Signal
during takeoff (3): ANY of these.
A
The ECS OFF signal CLOSES both PACKs during takeoff if ANY of the
following conditions occur:
- OEI and APU bleed is not available;
- Thrust levers set to MAX and APU bleed is not available;
- TDS REF ECS set to OFF on the MCDU and APU bleed is not available;
6
Q
FADEC ECS Off Signal during go around if ANY (3):
A
The ECS OFF signal CLOSES both PACKs during go-around if ANY of the
following conditions occur:
- OEI and APU bleed is not available up to 9,700’;
- Thrust levers set to MAX and APU bleed is not available;
- Thrust levers set to MAX and Ice Protection is requested on (remember -
APU cannot provide bleed for Anti-Ice).
7
Q
FADEC ECS Off Signal: The PACKs are recovered when:
A
- Thrust levers reduction below TO/GO;
- Two engines above 500’ AGL;
- OEI above 9,700’ (for both takeoff and go-around).
8
Q
Conditions that will disengage the autopilot (10)
A
- Quick disconnect button
- AP button on the Guidance Panel
- Manual pitch trim is actuated
- Stick Shaker actuated
- Windshear
- Direct Mode
- Aileron/Elevator disconnect
- Exerting a light force for a long time on the yoke
- Exerting a strong force for a short time on the yoke
- Internal fault
9
Q
Conditions that will disengage the auto throttle (5)
A
- Pressing either AT disconnect button on the thrust levers.
- Pressing the AT button on the guidance panel.
Automatically disengages:
* After touch down.
* When thrust lever is moved beyond the TO/GA detent.
* Thrust refers operation during RTO.
10
Q
ROLL Mode Bank Logic
A
The AP takes different action considering different bank angles
* Bank angle at or below 6 degrees: AP levels the wings
- Bank angle above 6 degrees and below 35 degrees: AP holds present bank
- Bank angle at or above 35 degrees: AP maintains 35 degrees of bank
11
Q
Items on the Accessory Gear Box:
A
Fuel Pump
Air Turbine starter
Generator (IDG)
Hydraulic Pump
Oil Pump
PMA
12
Q
Idle Modes (4)
A
Flight Idle
* Active mode whenever in flight and Approach Idle not selected
Approach Idle
* Allows rapid acceleration to go-around thrust.
* Weight OFF wheels
* Flaps 1 or greater, or landing gear down
* Altitude less than 15,000’
Final Approach Idle
* Altitude below 1,200’
* Landing flaps
* Landing gear down
Ground Idle
* Provides a stable and minimum engine thrust level for ground operations.
13
Q
Fire Test Indications
A
6 Lights
5 EICAS messages
4 Boxes
2 Aural
14
Q
Items Powered During an Electrical Emergency:
A
- DU 2 (Pilot’s MFD)
- DU 3 (EICAS)
- Flight Guidance Panel
- Magnetic Compass (illumination)
- IESS
- Clock
- CCD 1
- MCDU 2
- Audio Control Panels (both 1&2)
15
Q
Hydraulic Pumps 1&2 Logic:
A
16
Q
PTU Logic
A
During takeoff and landing, with the selector knob in the AUTO position the
hydraulic system logic automatically activates the PTU IF ENG2 or EDP2 fails.
- Flaps not zero, landing gear not up.
- EDP1 not fail.
- Hydraulic 2 quantity above 12%.
17
Q
Landing Gear Aural Warning Logic
A
“LANDING GEAR” annunciation and cannot be silenced in the following scenarios:
- SLAT/FLAP 5 or FULL
- SLAT/FLAP 1, 2, 3, or 4 and…
- Rad. Alt. Below 700’ and TLA < 45 degrees (2 engines), or TLA < 59 degrees
(OEI) - In the event of a dual Rad. Alt., may inhibit the message when FLAT/FLAP 1, 2, 3, 4.
18
Q
TO CONFIG Warning Items
A
Flaps
Brakes
Trim
Spoilers
19
Q
Non memory item QRC:
A
A - APU FIRE
B - BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP
C - CARGO FWD (AFT) SMOKE
D - DUAL ENGINE FAILURE
E - EMERGENCY DESCENT
E - EMERGENCY EVACUATION
E - ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE, OR SEPERATION
20
Q
C070
A
- Airports authorized for scheduled operation:
- R - regular airport
- F - fueling airport
- P - provisional airport
- A - alternate airport
21
Q
A027
A
- land and hold short operations:
*No wet runways
*No wind shear
*No tailwind greater than three knots
*No at night (unless runway has FAA approved LAHSO lighting)
22
Q
C050
A
Special Qualification Airports. (does not apply when the ceiling is 1,000 above the lowest MEA or MOCA, or initial approach
altitude, and 3 SM)
23
C056
- standard takeoff mins (1sm or 5000 RVR) have the runway environment in sight
24
C078
lower than standard takeoff mins (CA to 600 RVR and FO 1600 RVR) specific lighting requirements for environmental
conditions. (Count three RUNWAY EDGE lights = 600 RVR roughly)
25
Exemption 17347
- only applies to conditional (TEMPO, PROB) part of the forecast. It CANNOT be used for high min CAs. This conditional part may be as low as:
* Destination Airport - 1/2 of the lowest required visibility
* First Alternate - 1/2 of the lowest required ceiling and visibility
* Second Alternate - at or above required ceiling and visibility for Ops Spec C055.
26
Lowest Alternate Weather for High Mins captain
no case can the min at the alternate be less than 300 and 1 for high min CAs.
27
C055
Derived alternate weather minimums.
- add 400 and 1 for Method 1 (one navaid)
- add 200 and 1/2 to the highest mins for Method 2 (two navaid)
28
MTOW 170
82,011
29
MTOW 175
85,517
30
MLW 170
72,310
31
MLW 175
74,957
32
CAT II Not authorized when (
* Either crewmember is on OE
* RCC below 3
* CATII Special Authorization approach
* Runway length is 115% of the dry runway landing distance required.
* Required equipment is INOP
* RVR below 1200
33
170 Cargo limit
FWD: 3020
AFT: 2271
34
175 Cargo limit
FWD: 3307
AFT: 2535
35
Dry Ice Limitations:
E170: 300
E175: 440
No dry ice permitted in aft cargo
36
What disappears when the EICAS declutters.
1. Oil pressure
2. Oil temp
3. Gear
4. Engine vibration
5. APU
37
TCAS
TA - 35-45 seconds before entering the collision area
RA - 20-30 seconds before entering the collision area
38
When do the packs turn off automatically
* Engine start
* Dump button
* Max thrust
39
Secondary flight controls
* Horizontal stab
* Flaps and slats
* Multi-function spoilers
* Ground spoilers
40
Speedbrakes retract automatically when:
* Flaps 2 or above
* Airspeed below 180 knots
* TLA past 70 degrees
41
Speedbrakes in direct mode?
No
42
When do the ground spoilers stow?
* Below 45 knots for 5 seconds
* 35 TLA or past
43
flap limitations.
* No enroute
* No holding in icing conditions
* No landing flaps 4
* Max extension FL 200
44
The ELEC PBIT is looking to test?
the FCM, P-ACE, SF-ACE
45
HYD PBIT
* Tests flight controls
* Not preformed if temp is below 10 degrees C
* Canceled if any control surface is moved while test is in progress
46
Can you overwing fuel with pax onboard?
* When using a jet bridge
47
RVSM requirements:
o 2 ADS
o 1 AP ENGAGED with ALT hold mode
o 1 ALT alerter
o 1 Transponder
* No damage in the RVSM critical area
48
High Mins Captains:
* Less than 100 hours not including OE
* Add 100 to DH or MDA and 1/2 mile visibility
* Exemption 17347 cannot be used
* Exemption 17203 allows high min CAs to use CAT I mins when:
o Both CA and FO are CAT II trained
o Autopilot is used to DH
o Use monitored approach procedure
o RVR greater than 4,000
o Less than 15 knot crosswind
o Braking actions at least GOOD
49
When you need a NEW release:
* Change of flight number
* Change of aircraft
* Change of PIC/SIC
* A flight that has been diverted
* A right that has returned to departure field
* RTO that requires RTG
* Delayed more than 2 hours
* Change of destination on the ground
50
When do you need an AMENDED release:
* Add or change alternate
* Change of HOLD fuel
* 300 shy of RAMP fuel
* Add or remove MEL/CDL/NEF
* Routing more than 50nm form filed
* Change of filed ALT by 4,000 feet or more
* Change of flight plan initiated by dispatch
* New routing using a CDR
* TOW exceeds planned by 4000lbs
* Change of flight attendants
* Change of destination in flight
* Adding, editing, or removing remarks
51
Takeoff Alternate
o Needed when visibility or RVR is below landing minimums
o No further than 270 NM
o Required for high min CAs
52
Destination Alternate
o 1-2-3 rule
o Use C055 to determine if an airport can be used as an alternate.
53
Second Destination Alternate
o Needed when using 17347
o Needed when destination and first ALT are marginal (1000 and 3 for dest / 600 and 2 for alt)
54
Flex power takeoffs are prohibited when:
Windshear present or suspected
Contaminated Runway
Performance mandates no flex.
55
Max holding speeds:
* Below 6,000 - 200kts
* 6,001 to 14,000 - 230kts
* Above 14,000 - 265kts
56
Stabilized Approach Criteria:
* At 1,000 ft
o Landing configuration selected
o Correct lateral trach and vertical path
o 1,000 fpm or less
* At 500 ft
o -5 to +10 Vapp
o Engines spooled
57
When checking the AFML (Aircraft Flight/Maintenance Logbook) you need to verify:
* 2-Day check
* Airworthiness release
* No open discrepancies
* Review applicable MEL/CDL/NEFs
*VOR check
58
MEL Categories:
* A - time specified
* B - 3 days
* C - 10 days
* D - 120 days
* P - 120 days
59
The following EGPWS alerts require immediate action:
* “Pull up”
* “Terrain terrain”
* “Too low terrain”
* “Obstacle obstacle, pull up”
60
Declare and emergency when:
* Cannot establish position
* Aircraft component failure jeopardizing safety
* Fire
* Medical requiring diversion
* Contingency jeopardizing flight safety
61
Exemption 17203?
1. Both CA and FO CAT II qualified
2. Autopilot working
3. Monitored Approach
Procedure
4. Must not be below 4000RVR
5. The crosswind component not to exceed 15 knots with a braking action report of less than “good”
62
What visibility may a high mins CA depart with?
6-6-6 with a takeoff alternate
63
Can a flight be dispatched into CAT II weather?
Yes. Crew qualified, aircraft CAT II capable,
better than 1/4SM in main body of TAF
64
When are CAT II approaches prohibited?
IOE and Line Checks
65
What are you certifying when signing the release?
Release content is correct and flight
conducted safely, current line check, 3 takeoffs/landings in 90 days, FFD
66
Low time FO?
Contaminated runway
4000RVR or less
Braking less than good
15+ crosswind
Windshear
Special PIC qualifications
LAHSO
67
Pilot present for boarding?
First flight of the day and international flights
68
How many operative RVRs for takeoff?
2
69
Exemption 17347?
Dispatched flight with weather at destination/alternate or both has
conditional language below landing minimums. Main body of TAF must have weather above
minimums. 1⁄2 visibility at destination, 1⁄2 visibility and ceilings at first alternate
70
Can we use RNAV approach minimums?
Yes, for destination OR alternate NOT both
71
What are we looking for on the AC GPU panel?
Ground service switch, Steering disengage, LAN,
Bonding strap, Circuit breakers, AC GPU receptacle
72
What is LAN for? (AC GPU panel)
Used by Mx to load software on the aircraft
73
How do we turn on service lights?
AC GPU Panel, Electrical Panel, Panel behind Cockpit door
74
What’s ADSP?
Air Data Smart Probes transmitting static/total pressure, AOA and TAT to ADS
75
Compartments we check on walk-arounds?
O2, Both HYD 1 (2) Panels, Potable Water
76
15.Difference between landing and taxi light?
Landing light lens is clear, taxi light is translucent
77
Will the nose wheel landing and taxi light automatically shut off?
Yes, during retraction
78
Where is the shimmy damper?
Nose wheel
79
Green towing light?
Steering disengaged, parking brake off, main brakes off
80
Two vents under wing, what are they?
Fuel vent and strobe cooling vent
81
Vent on engine?
FADEC cooling
82
Vent on bottom of engine?
Anti-ice overboard discharge
83
What is the T2 sensor?
Engine inlet air temperature
84
Lines on Main Landing Gear?
4 Blue - Hydraulics,
3 Black - Sensing temperature/speed
85
Static port connected to?
Positive pressure relief valve (heated at engine start)
86
Cold dark airplane?
Logbook, Emergency Equipment, Aircraft documents
87
Documentation?
Airworthiness Cert, Registration, FCC, QRC (2), QRH (2), SPC (2), NPC (2), JSBC
(1)
88
Emergency equipment?
PBE, Halon Fire Extinguisher, Heat Resistant Gloves, Life Vests (3),
Crash Axe, Escape Rope (2), Flashlight (2), Oxygen Masks (3)
89
How many halon fire extinguishers?
5
90
How many PBE’s?
4
91
PBE provides oxygen for how long?
15 min
92
How many portable oxygen bottles?
3 – 175, 2 – 170
93
What lights will turn on with an unpowered aircraft?
Courtesy/Service lights, DC ceiling lights
94
DVDR records what?
95
Difference between MTOW/MTXW/MLDW?
Maximum takeoff, taxi, and landing weight
96
METW?
Takeoff weight limit due to en-route drift down performance using Method 1 (2)
97
Method 1?
Engine failure, continue to destination, clear obstacles by 5sm laterally and 1000’
98
Method 2?
Engine failure, divert to alternate, clear obstacles by 5sm laterally and 2000’
99
Lights when O2 masks are dropped?
Fasten Seat Belt, No Smoking, No ELEC devices
100
Masks automatically deployed?
14,000-14,750 Cabin altitude
101
What makes our iPad an EFB?
Op Specs
102
29.EFB required documents?
SOP, FOM, GRG, APM, FMS Guide, MEL, TDP Checklist
103
GND PROX TERR INHIB?
Landing at an airport or runway not in our database
104
APU what type of starter
Brushless starter generator
105
What do the batteries do during startup?
BATT 1 - FADEC and EICAS monitoring, BATT 2 - APU
START BUS
106
APU EMER STOP?
Closes SOV without cool down
107
APU fire indications?
Fire bell and Triple Chime, Red stripe on EMER STOP button, APU FIRE
message, Master WARNING light
108
AVAIL light?
AC GPU connected with volts/amps/Hz satisfied
109
Electrical system, power ratings of the IDG?
115V, 40kVA, 400Hz
110
What are the IDG’s?
Integrated Drive Generators
111
Where is the IDG located?
Accessory Gear Box
112
What controls the IDG?
Generator Control Unit
113
What does the ‘OFF’ do?
Opens the IDG contactor isolating the IDG from AC BUS
114
What does the ‘DISC’ do?
Disconnects constant speed drive from gearbox
115
At what temperature will the IDG automatically disconnect?
366°F
116
DC System voltage?
28DC
117
What does the BUS TIE do?
Closes the circuit if a TRU fails or the RAT is deployed
118
AC STBY BUS?
Engine 1 & 2 Exciter CH 1A & 2A
119
AC ESS BUS?
AC Fuel Pump 2A, ACMP 3A, 1 Flap CH, 1 Slat CH
120
Why would you use the Inverter?
Electrical Emergency
121
What does the Inverter power?
AC STBY BUS
122
What does the RAT power?
AC ESS BUS
123
Are we allowed to reset circuit breakers?
Only on the ground by maintenance or flight crew
when directed by an approved company procedure
124
LAV fire protection?
Automatically discharges at 78°C
125
Fire handle, what happens?
Closes engine fuel, hydraulic, bleed, and cross-bleed SOV
126
Pull the fire handle when the airplane is cold and dark, what happens?
Closes the associated
Fuel and Hydraulic SOV.
127
If the Handle light extinguishes but EICAS message still persists is there a fire?
Yes
128
FWD and AFT cargo smoke detectors?
FWD – 3 (2), AFT – 2 (1)
129
What happens when smoke is detected?
Air circulation fan in the FWD compartment
automatically turns off and the ventilation outflow valve closes
130
How many fire extinguishing bottles for cargo compartments?
2 – High/Low Rate. Must be
used in the same compartment.
131
Fuel pumps in left tank?
1 Primary ejector, 1 AC electrical, 3 scavenge
132
Fuel pumps in right tank?
1 Primary ejector, 1 AC electrical, 1 DC electrical, 3 scavenge
133
AC pump purpose?
Backup if ejector fails, Engine start, Cross-feed, APU fuel source without
engines
134
DC pump purpose?
Provides pressurized fuel for APU start and engine start when AC power or
AC fuel pumps unavailable
135
If we lose the EDP, which pumps go out?
Primary Ejectors and Scavenge pumps
136
Will the engine fail if we lose the EDP?
Yes
137
Can we takeoff with FUEL IMBALANCE?
Yes, as long as imbalance is less than 790
138
Fuel temperature limitation?
Left tank -37°C
139
How is reserve fuel calculated?
45 minutes of fuel at LRC at 10,000 feet
140
Max fuel we can carry?
141
Molecule of Fuel:
Fuel Tank > Ejector Pump > Low-Pressure Pump > Heat Exchanger > Fuel
Filter > High-Pressure Pump > FMU > Fuel Injectors
142
What’s on HYD system 2 but not HYD system 1?
Inboard brakes, Nose wheel steering, Landing
gear
143
Why does HYD pump 3B have auto?
Back-up and automatically activates if 3A fails
144
When do HYD system 1A and 2A automatically come on?
Ground: Flaps greater than 0, ground
speed greater than 50, or TOGA set.
Flight: Flaps greater than 0, or Engine or EDP failure
145
Nosewheel steering if you start ENG 1?
ENG 1 started, parking brake released
146
Engine pump shutoff pressed, what happens?
Closes HYD SOV, pump still runs
147
At what temperature will the SOV automatically close?
125°C
148
How many accumulators per system?
System 1 – 2, System 2 – 2, System 3 – 1
149
When is a HYD Warm-Up required?
First flight of the day reservoir below -18°C
150
How do you conduct a HYD PBIT?
‘STEER OFF’ EICAS message, pressure in all three systems
below 250 psi, set ACMPs 3A, 1 and 2 to ON.
151
In electrical emergency, what pumps do we have?
ACMP 3A
152
What provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until RAT comes on line?
Hydraulic 3
accumulator
153
When are the wings heated?
40 KIAS to prevent damage to fuel lines
154
When does A/I turn on in the air?
1,700ft AGL or 2 minutes (whichever happens first)
155
Bleed Air: A/I
Engine lips and 3 outboard slats
156
Electric Heat: A/I
Pitot-Static System, Windshields, Water lines, Static port (heated at engine start)
157
What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?
Cross bleed opens and uses opposite
bleed air for both wings
158
Why might we turn on A/I manually in the air?
Buildup of ice without messages
159
Why might we turn on A/I manually on the ground?
After landing during taxi in with icing conditions
160
Definition of icing?
10C or below; and visible moisture in any form is present; or when
operating on contaminated surfaces
161
When is single engine taxi not authorized?
Braking action less than good; or RVR less than 1200
162
Emergency ram air used and conditions?
PACK failure and aircraft below FL250. Smoke
Evacuation.
163
What do we use Pneumatics for?
Air condition, A/I, pressurization, water pressurization
164
Three ways PACKS turn off?
Dump button, Engine start, Max T/O
165
Three ways Bleeds turn off?
Leak, Overpressure, Failure
166
Four ways Recirculation fans turn off?
Cockpit switch, Smoke/Fire detected, Dump button
pressed, Respective PACK turned off
167
What’s in the FWD eBay?
SPDA1, EICC, FWD eBay Avionics
168
A single pack can provide adequate temperature to what altitude?
FL310
169
Dump button, how does it work?
Shuts off packs/fans, opens outflow valve, depressurizes
cabin to 12,400ft at 2,000FPM
170
Examples for using Dump button?
Emergency evacuation, Fast cabin depressurization, smoke
evacuation
171
What is LFE Mode?
Still in Auto, allows pilot to set LFE if not in the MCDU
172
Molecule of Air:
Compressor 6th/10th Stage Air > Low/High Stage Bleed Valve > Engine Bleed
Valve > Precooler > Flow Control Valve > PACKS > Flight Deck/Cabin/Mixer
173
Recirculated Air:
Filter > Recirculating Fans > Mixer > Cabin
174
Normal/Direct mode difference?
Direct mode removes FCMs and no higher level functions
175
What will cause the FCM to go into direct mode?
Loss of airspeed
176
Elevator higher level functions?
Gain on airspeed, Elevator thrust compensation, AOA limiting
177
Rudder higher level functions?
Gain on airspeed, Yaw damper, Turn coordinator
178
Spoilers higher level functions?
Gain on airspeed, Roll assist, Speed brakes, Ground spoilers
179
How does the fly-by-wire work?
Pilot inputs/Aircraft Systems > FCM > ACE > PCU
180
How long is the FBW backup battery good for?
15 minutes
181
How many dedicated ground spoilers?
4
182
Will the speed brakes/ground spoilers function in Direct mode?
No
183
How many multi-function spoilers?
6 (L3, L4, L5, R3, R4, R5)
184
Will the multi-function spoilers function in Direct mode?
Yes, for roll only at a default gain
185
Ground spoilers automatically retract?
Speed below 45kts for 5 seconds or TLA below 26°
186
Flaps controlled?
Electrically activated, electrically actuated
187
If the RAT is deployed, how far can you extend the flaps?
Position 3
188
**Flight control malfunction in flight requires NTSB report**
189
Nose wheel steering controlled?
Electrically controlled, hydraulically actuated
190
How many uplock/downlock switches per gear?
2 uplock and 2 downlock
191
What are the braking protections?
Anti-Skid (Reduces wheel brake pressure only effective
above 10 KIAS),
Automatic Wheel Braking (Prevents MLG from retracting with wheels still
spinning),
Touchdown (No brakes until 3 seconds after WOW sensor has sensed ground or
wheel speed above 50 KIAS)
Locked Wheel (Reduces pressure to slower wheel < 30 KIAS)
192
How are the brakes controlled?
Electrically commanded, hydraulically activated
193
When would you use the Electrical override?
Gear level control box fail, bypasses PSEM
194
When do we use the DN LOCK REL button?
Retract gear for obstacle clearance if WOW sensor
fail
195
How many PSEM and WOW sensors?
2 PSEM and 6 WOW (2 on each wheel)
196
What happens when 2 WOW sensors on one wheel fail?
Prevents gear handle from being raised
197
What are fusible plugs?
Pins attached to the wheels, which melt relieving tire pressure in case of tire overheat
198
When would we use LG WRN INHIB?
Dual RA failure
199
Auto Brake engagement during RTO:
Thrust levers Idle or REV, Wheel speed above 60 KIAS, Toe brakes not applied
200
Auto Brakes Disarmed:
Set to OFF, Toe brakes applied, Brake fault, Thrust levers beyond Idle
201
What happens if both channels of the FADEC fail?
The engine fails
202
What controls the engines FADEC?
Permanent Magnetic Alternator – Above 50% N2
203
Normal start sequence:
N2 7% - Ignition, N2 20% - Fuel flow, N2 50% - Starter cutoff
204
What does the Starting system consist of?
Air Turbine Starter and Starter Control Valve
205
When should starts be aborted without a light off?
30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow
206
What happens if N2 exceeds 100%?
FADEC shuts down the engine
207
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
Wind shear, Engine failure during takeoff or go-around, N1
difference > 15%
208
When are flexed takeoffs prohibited?
Contaminated runway, wind shear, performance
mandates no FLEX
209
What does a hot/hung start require?
Mx writeup and return to gate
210
What does WML mean?
FADEC detected flame-out and auto re-light is actuating
211
Thrust reverser inadvertently deploys in flight?
FADEC limits thrust to idle
212
When is thrust reverse available?
Weight-on-wheels
213
Molecule of Air Engine:
Fan > Low/High Rate Compressor > Combustor > Turbine > Nozzle
214
What is the turn radius for 180 degree turn on the E170?
54’ 8”
215
What is the turn radius for 180 degree turn on the E175?
59’ 2”
