L2 Insurance and Aging Flashcards

1
Q

Medicaid

A

state allocated
low income
custodial care or health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medicare

A

federally funded
age/condition
health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Medicare Overview

A

-federal health insurance program
-funded by payroll withholdings and premiums
-recipients are over 65, have ESRD, a disability, or ALS
-has four parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Medicare Part A

A

-Covers hospital/IRF, skilled nursing, home health, and hospice
-very specific criteria for coverage
-short-term treatment/coverage
-usually no premiums, but deductibles/copays
-does not cover caregiver costs
-uses benefit periods, not benefit calendars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2024 Deductible for Medicare Part A

A

$1632 per benefit period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many days can you spend at the hospital without a cost with medicare A?

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many days can you spend at the SNF without a cost with medicare A?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What two services under medicare part A are free no matter the amount of days?

A

Home health
Hospice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hospital Coverage Criteria for Medicare Part A

A

-Admitted to hospital
-Doctor’s order/note for necessity
-hospital accepts medicare

covered until inpatient level of care no longer needed, and covered as a flat rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inpatient Rehab Facility Coverage Medicare Part A

A

-doctor indicates necessity
-patient can do 3 hours of rehab per day
-PT is helpful because it helps with successful discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skilled Nursing Facility Criteria for Medicare Part A

A

-hospital admission of 3 midnights
-doctor’s note of necessity
-has to have services within 30 days of hospital discharge
-has to have a need for skilled services during hospital stay
-max stay is 100 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Benefit period for SNF

A

episode of care beginning with hospital admission and ending 60 days following last covered day of skilled services.H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Home Health Criteria for Medicare A

A

-must be homebound
-can be to prevent decline or improve function
-skilled services are required on part-time basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medicare Part A Section GG

A

standardized assessment that evaluates self care and mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Medicare Part A Hospice Criteria

A

-patient is terminally ill
-6 mo or less to live
-focus on comfort rather than curing
-medicare covers everything that is needed for terminal condition, additional insurance for non-terminal conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Medicare Part B

A

Optional insurance that can be purchased by >65 yo or disabled

has premiums ($175 per month) and Deductible ($240 per year)

covers outpatient services, medically necessary services, and preventative services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PT in Medicare B

A

has a limit of $2330, and then must be proved to be a medical necessity to continue. combined with SP

after $2330, you have to add the KX modifier threshold to signifiy that ongoing treatment is a medical necessity

billed as eight minute rule (each treatment has to be at least 8 minutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Professional Claims

A

reduction for that therapist’s services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Institutional Claims

A

reduction for all services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Medicare Part C

A

-private insurance that is medicare approved that cover the services that medicare does
-offer medication, dental, and vision benefits
-could be more economical than medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What percentage of medicare advantage enrollees have united healthcare or humana?

A

47%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

More people have…

A

medicare advantage than traditional medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Medicare Advantage

A

special needs plans that provide benefits/services that are tailored to best meet the beneficiaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Types of Medicare Advantage

A
  1. D-SNP Dual Eligible = medicare and medicaid
  2. C-SNP Chronic Condition
  3. I-SNP institutional: long term care, assisted living
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Pros of Medicare Advantage
-limited deductibles -may waive 3 day hospital stay -coverage of extra services -clear provider network -motivation for prevention services -may have alt payment models
26
Cons of Medicare Advantage
-prior authorization -limited provider network -variability in plan/cost/coverage -case-managed care -motivation to limit services
27
Therapy reimbursement for medicare advantage
Part A = medicare PDPM or PDGM, flat daily rate, or tiered daily rate. Part B = physician fee schedule, flat unit rate, per visit rate
28
Medicare payments are based on
CPT code used relative value units billed
29
Rate equation
Total relative valuable units X conversion factor
30
What year does medicare hope taht there is 100% registration?
2030
31
Decreases in pulmonary system with aging
* vital capacity * tidal volume * alveolar surface area * alveolar vascularity * strength of respiratory musculature * lung expansion
32
Increases in pulmonary system with aging
* residual volume * respiratory rate * functional residual capacity * chest wall system
33
Normal changes in genitourinary system with aging
* decreased urethral coaptation (elasticity) * decreased urethral closing pressure * atrophy of pelvic floor musculature * diminished bladder sensation * weakening of detrusor muscle
34
in women (GU system)
weakened support for bladder neck leading to stress incontinence with aging
35
in men (GU system)
benign prostatic hyperplasia becomes common with aging
36
Osteoporosis
loss of bone mineral density as measured by DEXA/DXA
37
T scores for osteoporosis
≥ -1.0 = normal -1 - -2.5 = low bone mass or osteopenia <-2.5 = osteoporosis
38
Most common osteoporosis fractures
hip spine distal radius fracture
39
How many people had osteoporosis?
10 million over the age of 50 greater in women
40
RF for Osteoporosis
* age * family history * low body weight * caucasian and asian * menopause * history of fractures * diet * gluccocorticoids
41
Fragility Fractures
* fractures resulting from a low impact force * any fall that occurs from a standing height * commonly seen with osteoporosis
42
Vertebral Fractures
* most common type of osteoporotic fracture * compression fractures involve anterior aspect of vertebra * causes: ADLs involving bending and twisting * usually asymptomatic, nearly 1/3 are undiagnosed
43
Treatment for vertebral fracture
* control pain * activity modification * resume normal activities as soon as possible to load the bone
44
Hip Fractures
* common in white females 85+ * caused by falling, cognitive impairment, polypharmacy * use AD/AE to reduce
45
Comorbidities for hip fractures
CHF kidney disease cognitive changes frailty arthritis LBP
46
Types of hip fractures
intracapsular extracapsular
47
Intracapsular hip fx
femoral neck and femoral head can accompany avascular necrosis treated with arthroplasty or internal fixation
48
Extracapsular hip fractures
* Higher rates of displacement, and causes decreased gait speed * accompanied with edema, pain * fixed with internal fixation
49
Prognosis for hip fx
* 12 months for LE function * 4 months for UE ADLs * 1 year mortality is 12-37% * possible chronic pain and increased fear of falling * some will fail to reach premorbid activity or functional level, leaving them immobile * 20% will become immobile
50
Types of urinary incontinence
1. stress 2. urge 3. mixed 4. functional 5. insensible 6. postural 7. Chronic retention 8. Nocturia 9. Over active bladder 10. Incomplete emptying/retenion
51
Stress UI
loss of urine with movement or other physical exertion like sneezing, coughing, standing up, lifting
52
Urge UI
loss or urine associated with urgency to urinate
53
Mixed UI
loss of urine due to urgency and with movement/physical exertion
54
Functional UI
physical disability or cognitive impairment leading to the inability to urinate in an appropriate place i.e placing walker too far away
55
Insensible UI
loss of urine and the individual is unaware of how it occurred i.e dementia
56
Postural UI
involuntary loss of urine resulting from change in body position
57
Chronic Retention UI
involuntary loss of urine resulting from incomplete emptying of the bladder
58
Nocturia UI
having sleep disturbed more than 1-2 times per night because of the need to urinate
59
Over-active bladder
a condition in which there is an urgency to urinate that is often accompanied by frequency and nocturia. no underlying pathology
60
Incomplete Emptying UI
bladder doe not feel empty after micturation
61
UTI prevalence
* 20% community dwelling older adults * greater than 50% of institutionalized older adults * more common in women
62
RF for UTI
* shorter urethra in women * poor toileting hygiene * bladder retention * indwelling catheter
63
Common UTI S/S
dysuria frequency urgency suprapubic pain hematuria
64
Common older adults s/s for UTI
confusion delirium falls change in cognitive status
65
what are IRFs paid under?
prospective payment systems rate is determined by outcome measures, like IRF-PAI