L55, 56 Digestive functions of liver & bile, absorption of carbs, ions, proteins and fats Flashcards

(167 cards)

1
Q

L55

What are the main functions of the liver?

A

The liver functions in metabolism (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins), detoxification, bile production, storage (glycogen, vitamins), synthesis (plasma proteins like albumin), and immune defence via Kupffer cells.

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2
Q

L55

Where is the liver located in the body?

A

The liver lies in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, beneath the diaphragm, and is protected by the rib cage.

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3
Q

L55

What are the two sources of blood supply to the liver?

A

The hepatic artery (oxygen-rich blood) and the portal vein (nutrient-rich blood from the gastrointestinal tract).

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4
Q

L55

How does blood leave the liver?

A

Through hepatic veins, which drain into the inferior vena cava.

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5
Q

L55

What is the basic structural unit of the liver?

A

The classical liver lobule – hexagonal in shape, with a central vein and portal triads at each corner.

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6
Q

L55

What makes up the portal triad?

A

A branch of the hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile duct.

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7
Q

L55

What are Kupffer cells?

A

Specialised macrophages in the liver sinusoids responsible for removing pathogens and debris.

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8
Q

L55

How is bile formed and transported in the liver?

A

Bile is secreted by hepatocytes into bile canaliculi, which drain into bile ducts, then to the common hepatic duct.

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9
Q

L55

What is the direction of bile flow in relation to blood flow in the liver lobule?

A

Bile flows in the opposite direction to blood – from the centre of the lobule toward the periphery.

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10
Q

L55

How does the liver regulate blood glucose?

A

Through glycogenesis (formation of glycogen), glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen), and gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates).

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11
Q

L55

What proteins does the liver synthesise?

A

Albumin, clotting factors, and transport proteins like transferrin.

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12
Q

L55

What is the role of the liver in fat metabolism?

A

The liver synthesises and breaks down triglycerides, cholesterol, and lipoproteins.

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13
Q

L55

What is the liver’s role in detoxification?

A

The liver metabolises drugs and toxins using phase I (oxidation/reduction) and phase II (conjugation) reactions, making substances easier to excrete.

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14
Q

L55

What is cirrhosis?

A

Chronic liver damage leading to fibrosis and nodular regeneration, disrupting normal liver architecture and function.

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15
Q

L55

What is portal hypertension and what can it lead to?

A

Increased pressure in the portal vein, often due to cirrhosis, leading to complications like varices, ascites, and splenomegaly.

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16
Q

L55

What is the hepatic acinus and how does it differ from the classical lobule?

A

The hepatic acinus is diamond-shaped and based on blood flow between two central veins. It divides into three zones (1–3) reflecting oxygen and nutrient gradients.

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17
Q

L55

What are the functional zones of the hepatic acinus and their significance?

A

Zone 1 (periportal): Closest to the portal triad, receives most oxygen, active in oxidative metabolism and gluconeogenesis.

Zone 2 (mid-zone): Intermediate functions.

Zone 3 (centrilobular): Closest to the central vein, least oxygenated, more prone to ischaemic damage and drug-induced injury.

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18
Q

L55

What is the composition of bile?

A

Bile contains bile salts, bile pigments (mainly bilirubin), cholesterol, phospholipids, and electrolytes.

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19
Q

L55

What is the function of bile?

A

Bile emulsifies fats in the small intestine to aid digestion and absorption of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins; it also facilitates excretion of bilirubin and excess cholesterol.

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20
Q

L55

Can the liver regenerate?

A

Yes. The liver has a remarkable regenerative capacity, capable of restoring mass and function after partial hepatectomy or mild injury.

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21
Q

L55

Besides Kupffer cells, what other immune functions does the liver have?

A

The liver contains dendritic cells, natural killer (NK) cells, and lymphocytes which contribute to immune surveillance and tolerance, especially to gut-derived antigens.

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22
Q

L55

What blood tests are used to assess liver function?

A

Liver Function Tests (LFTs) include ALT, AST, ALP, bilirubin, albumin, and prothrombin time.

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23
Q

L55

What does a raised ALT or AST suggest?

A

Hepatocellular damage — ALT is more specific to liver injury.

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24
Q

L55

What does a raised ALP suggest?

A

Cholestasis or bile duct obstruction, though ALP is also found in bone.

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25
# L55 Why is bilirubin measured in liver tests?
To assess the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin — raised levels cause jaundice.
26
# L55 What are liver function tests (LFTs) and why are they done?
LFTs are blood tests that assess liver health and function. They help diagnose liver disease, monitor progression, and assess response to treatment.
27
# L55 What does ALT (alanine aminotransferase) indicate?
ALT is a cytosolic enzyme primarily found in hepatocytes. Raised ALT suggests hepatocellular injury and is liver-specific.
28
# L55 What does AST (aspartate aminotransferase) indicate?
AST is found in liver, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle. Elevated AST suggests hepatocellular injury but is less specific than ALT.
29
# L55 What does a high AST:ALT ratio suggest?
An AST:ALT ratio >2:1 is often associated with alcoholic liver disease.
30
# L55 What does alkaline phosphatase (ALP) indicate?
ALP is raised in cholestasis (bile flow obstruction) and may also be elevated in bone disease. ALP is produced by bile duct epithelial cells.
31
# L55 What does gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) indicate?
GGT is raised in cholestasis and is also a marker of alcohol use. A raised ALP with raised GGT supports hepatic origin.
32
# L55 What does raised bilirubin suggest?
Impaired uptake, conjugation, or excretion of bilirubin by the liver, or increased production (e.g. haemolysis). Causes jaundice when levels are high.
33
# L55 What is the difference between conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin?
Unconjugated: Bound to albumin, not water-soluble, raised in haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome. Conjugated: Water-soluble, raised in cholestasis or hepatocellular dysfunction.
34
# L55 Why is albumin measured in LFTs?
Albumin reflects the liver’s synthetic function. Low levels suggest chronic liver disease, malnutrition, or nephrotic syndrome.
35
# L55 Why is prothrombin time (PT) important in liver disease?
PT assesses clotting factor production (which are made by the liver). A prolonged PT indicates impaired liver synthesis and correlates with liver failure severity.
36
# L55 What does serum ammonia indicate in liver disease?
Ammonia accumulates when the liver fails to convert it to urea. High levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy.
37
# L55 Why is urea often low in liver failure?
Because the liver cannot synthesise urea from ammonia, leading to hyperammonaemia and reduced blood urea nitrogen.
38
# L55 What is hepatic encephalopathy and how is it related to liver function?
A decline in brain function due to accumulation of toxins (especially ammonia) that the liver fails to clear. Symptoms range from confusion to coma.
39
# L55 What are the types of jaundice and how do they relate to liver function?
Pre-hepatic: Due to haemolysis (↑ unconjugated bilirubin) Hepatic: Due to liver cell damage (mixed conjugated/unconjugated) Post-hepatic: Due to obstruction of bile flow (↑ conjugated bilirubin)
40
# L55 What does a liver ultrasound help detect in liver disease?
Structural abnormalities like cirrhosis, fatty liver, biliary obstruction, and liver tumours.
41
# L55 Why might an AST rise in muscle injury?
AST is not liver-specific. It can rise in myocardial infarction or skeletal muscle damage, so context is key.
42
# L55 Which enzyme is the most specific indicator of hepatocellular injury? A. AST B. ALT C. ALP D. GGT
Answer: B. ALT
43
# L55 Which cell type in the liver is responsible for phagocytosis and immune surveillance? A. Hepatocytes B. Kupffer cells C. Stellate cells D. Endothelial cells
Answer: B. Kupffer cells
44
# L55 In the hepatic acinus model, which zone is most susceptible to ischaemic damage? A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 3 D. Central vein
Answer: C. Zone 3
45
# L55 What is the role of bile salts in digestion? A. Breaking down proteins B. Neutralising stomach acid C. Emulsifying fats D. Absorbing glucose
Answer: C. Emulsifying fats
46
# L55 Which of the following would most likely cause a raised conjugated bilirubin level? A. Gilbert’s syndrome B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Obstructive jaundice D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Answer: C. Obstructive jaundice
47
# L55 An isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) with normal ALT and AST could suggest: A. Cirrhosis B. Acute hepatitis C. Bone disease D. Alcoholic liver disease
Answer: C. Bone disease
48
# L55 Which two tests together help distinguish hepatic from bone sources of raised ALP? A. AST and ALT B. GGT and ALP C. Bilirubin and albumin D. PT and ALT
Answer: B. GGT and ALP
49
# L55 A patient with chronic liver disease presents with oedema and low oncotic pressure. Which blood test result best explains this? A. Low ALT B. High GGT C. Low albumin D. High ammonia
Answer: C. Low albumin
50
# L55 Which of the following best reflects the liver’s synthetic function? A. GGT B. Prothrombin time C. ALT D. Bilirubin
Answer: B. Prothrombin time
51
# L55 What is the likely cause of encephalopathy in advanced liver failure? A. Hyperkalaemia B. Elevated urea C. Hyperammonaemia D. Hypoglycaemia
Answer: C. Hyperammonaemia
52
# L55 A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol misuse has an AST:ALT ratio of 3:1. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Viral hepatitis B. Autoimmune hepatitis C. Alcoholic liver disease D. Biliary atresia
Answer: C. Alcoholic liver disease
53
# L55 A 60-year-old woman has a raised ALP, GGT and conjugated bilirubin. Which condition is most likely? A. Gilbert’s syndrome B. Acute hepatitis C. Primary biliary cholangitis D. Haemolytic anaemia
Answer: C. Primary biliary cholangitis
54
# L55 Which liver structure is the site of nutrient-rich blood entering from the intestines? A. Hepatic artery B. Hepatic vein C. Portal vein D. Central vein
Answer: C. Portal vein
55
# L55 In which situation would the measurement of serum ammonia be most useful? A. Suspected hepatitis B B. Biliary colic C. Suspected hepatic encephalopathy D. Fatty liver disease
Answer: C. Suspected hepatic encephalopathy
56
# L55 What is the primary function of stellate (Ito) cells in the liver under normal physiological conditions? A. Producing albumin B. Storing vitamin A C. Phagocytosing bacteria D. Secreting bile salts
Answer: B. Storing vitamin A
57
# L55 What key event causes stellate cells to contribute to liver fibrosis? A. Hepatic ischaemia B. Exposure to alcohol C. Activation following liver injury D. Inhibition of bile secretion
Answer: C. Activation following liver injury
58
# L55 Which zone of the hepatic acinus receives the most oxygenated blood? A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 3 D. Portal triad
Answer: A. Zone 1
59
# L55 Which of the following is least likely to be a direct consequence of hepatic dysfunction? A. Coagulopathy B. Hyperglycaemia C. Encephalopathy D. Hypoalbuminaemia
Answer: B. Hyperglycaemia
60
# L55 What is the most likely explanation for prolonged PT in liver failure? A. Malabsorption of calcium B. Platelet destruction C. Decreased synthesis of clotting factors D. Increased bilirubin
Answer: C. Decreased synthesis of clotting factors
61
# L55 A patient has elevated unconjugated bilirubin but normal liver enzymes and no signs of haemolysis. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Gilbert’s syndrome B. Obstructive jaundice C. Hepatitis A D. Cirrhosis
Answer: A. Gilbert’s syndrome
62
# L55 A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue and pruritus. LFTs show raised ALP and GGT, with positive antimitochondrial antibodies. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Autoimmune hepatitis B. Primary biliary cholangitis C. Wilson’s disease D. Haemochromatosis
Answer: B. Primary biliary cholangitis
63
# L55 In acute liver failure, what would you expect to happen to urea levels and why? A. Increase due to GI bleeding B. Decrease due to impaired ammonia conversion C. Stay the same D. Increase due to protein catabolism
Answer: B. Decrease due to impaired ammonia conversion
64
# L55 Which of the following best differentiates between intrahepatic and extrahepatic cholestasis? A. ALT B. ALP C. GGT D. Imaging (e.g. ultrasound)
Answer: D. Imaging (e.g. ultrasound)
65
# L55 In hepatocellular injury, which pattern of LFT results is typical? A. High ALP, high GGT, normal ALT B. High ALT, high AST, mild ALP rise C. Normal ALT, raised bilirubin D. Low albumin, normal enzymes
Answer: B. High ALT, high AST, mild ALP rise
66
# L56 Where does carbohydrate absorption primarily occur?
In the small intestine, especially the jejunum.
67
# L55 How are glucose and galactose absorbed?
Via SGLT1 (Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 1), a secondary active transporter using the Na⁺ gradient.
68
# L56 How is fructose absorbed?
Via GLUT5, a facilitated diffusion transporter.
69
# L56 Which transporter exports all monosaccharides to the blood?
GLUT2 on the basolateral membrane.
70
# L56 What are the final digestion products of proteins?
Amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides.
71
# L56 How are amino acids absorbed?
Via sodium-dependent active transport systems.
72
# L56 How are di- and tripeptides absorbed?
Via PEPT1, a proton-dependent transporter.
73
# L56 What happens to absorbed di/tripeptides in enterocytes?
They are hydrolysed to free amino acids before entering the bloodstream.
74
# L56 Where is Na⁺ absorbed and by what mechanisms?
Throughout the small intestine and colon via: Na⁺/H⁺ exchangers (NHE3) Sodium channels (ENaC, especially in the colon) Na⁺-glucose and Na⁺-amino acid cotransporters
75
# L56 How is Cl⁻ absorbed?
Through passive diffusion or Cl⁻/HCO₃⁻ exchangers, coupled with Na⁺ absorption.
76
# L56 How is K⁺ absorbed?
Mainly by passive diffusion in the small intestine and secreted in the colon if needed.
77
# L56 How is calcium absorbed and regulated?
Actively in the duodenum (via TRPV6) under control of vitamin D, and passively throughout the small intestine.
78
# L56 How is iron absorbed?
Fe³⁺ is reduced to Fe²⁺ (ferrous) by duodenal cytochrome b, then absorbed via DMT1 (divalent metal transporter 1). Stored as ferritin or exported by ferroportin.
79
# L56 How much water is absorbed in the GI tract?
About 8–9 liters/day, mostly in the small intestine.
80
# L56 What drives water absorption?
Osmotic gradients created by solute (e.g. Na⁺, glucose) absorption.
81
# L56 Where is water absorption maximal?
In the jejunum, though it continues in the ileum and colon.
82
# L56 Is water absorption passive or active?
Entirely passive, following solute movement.
83
# L56 What is the role of SGLT1 in carbohydrate absorption?
SGLT1 transports glucose and galactose into enterocytes using a Na⁺ gradient (secondary active transport).
84
# L56 What powers the Na⁺ gradient used by SGLT1?
The Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase on the basolateral membrane.
85
# L56 How is fructose absorbed in the small intestine?
Through GLUT5, via facilitated diffusion.
86
# L56 What transporter helps export monosaccharides from enterocytes into the blood?
GLUT2 on the basolateral membrane.
87
# L56 How does GLUT2 contribute during high carbohydrate intake?
GLUT2 may be recruited to the apical membrane to enhance glucose/fructose absorption.
88
# L56 What are the final digestion products of proteins?
Free amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides.
89
# L56 How are amino acids absorbed?
Via Na⁺-dependent or Na⁺-independent amino acid transport systems (classified by charge and size).
90
# L56 How are di- and tripeptides absorbed?
Via the H⁺-dependent PepT1 transporter.
91
# L56 What happens to absorbed peptides inside enterocytes?
They are hydrolysed into amino acids by intracellular peptidases.
92
# L56 What else is absorbed by PepT1 apart from peptides?
Certain drugs like beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g., cefadroxil).
93
# L56 How is sodium absorbed in the small intestine?
Via Na⁺/glucose, Na⁺/amino acid cotransporters, and Na⁺/H⁺ exchangers (NHE3).
94
# L56 How is sodium absorbed in the colon?
Through ENaC, regulated by aldosterone.
95
# L56 How is chloride absorbed?
By passive diffusion and via Cl⁻/HCO₃⁻ exchangers, often coupled with Na⁺ absorption.
96
# L56 How is potassium handled in the gut?
Absorbed passively in the small intestine, secreted or absorbed in the colon depending on needs.
97
# L56 How is calcium absorbed?
Via: - Active transport in the duodenum: TRPV6 → calbindin → PMCA/NCX (vitamin D-dependent). - Passive diffusion throughout small intestine (paracellular).
98
# L56 What regulates active calcium absorption?
1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D₃ (calcitriol).
99
# L56 How is iron absorbed and transported?
Fe³⁺ is reduced to Fe²⁺, absorbed via DMT1; stored as ferritin or exported via ferroportin with help from hephaestin.
100
# L56 What regulates ferroportin activity?
Hepcidin, a liver hormone that decreases iron export during inflammation or iron overload.
101
# L56 How much water is absorbed daily by the GI tract?
Approximately 8–9 liters/day.
102
# L56 Where does most water absorption occur?
Jejunum > ileum > colon.
103
# L56 How is water absorbed?
Passively via osmosis, driven by solute (especially Na⁺) absorption.
104
# L56 What channels assist water absorption?
Aquaporins (AQP3, AQP7) present on enterocytes.
105
# L56 How does defective water absorption lead to diarrhea?
Unabsorbed solutes (e.g., lactose in intolerance) retain water in the lumen, causing osmotic diarrhea.
106
# L56 How does aldosterone affect intestinal absorption?
Increases Na⁺ absorption by upregulating ENaC in the colon.
107
# L56 What GI disorder impairs nutrient absorption due to villus atrophy?
Celiac disease – damages absorptive surfaces.
108
# L56 Why do people with lactase deficiency get diarrhea?
Undigested lactose creates an osmotic load, pulling water into the lumen.
109
# L56 What transporter is defective in cystic fibrosis affecting gut secretions?
CFTR – impairs Cl⁻ and water secretion, thickening mucus.
110
# L56 What role does SGLT1 play in nutrient absorption?
SGLT1 (Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 1) facilitates active transport of glucose and galactose in the small intestine, using the sodium gradient created by Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase.
111
# L56 How does GLUT2 function in glucose absorption?
GLUT2 facilitates the passive transport of glucose, galactose, and fructose from enterocytes into the portal circulation.
112
# L56 How is fructose absorbed in the intestine?
Fructose is absorbed by facilitated diffusion via the GLUT5 transporter.
113
# L56 What is the primary mechanism for protein absorption in the small intestine?
Proteins are absorbed as di- and tri-peptides via PepT1 (proton-dependent oligopeptide transporter) and as free amino acids via various sodium-dependent transporters.
114
# L56 What role does gastric acid play in iron absorption?
Gastric acid reduces ferric (Fe³⁺) to ferrous (Fe²⁺) iron, enhancing solubility and uptake in the duodenum via DMT1.
115
# L56 How is vitamin B12 absorbed?
Vitamin B12 binds intrinsic factor in the stomach, and the complex is absorbed in the terminal ileum via receptor-mediated endocytosis.
116
# L56 Which hormones regulate nutrient absorption in the GI tract?
Hormones like CCK, secretin, GIP, and motilin regulate GI motility and secretion, indirectly affecting nutrient absorption.
117
# L56 What diseases can impair nutrient absorption?
Conditions like celiac disease, Crohn's disease, pancreatic insufficiency, and bile acid malabsorption can significantly impair absorption.
118
# L56 How do bile acids assist in nutrient absorption?
Bile acids emulsify fats, aiding in micelle formation for absorption of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).
119
# L56 What transporter is involved in calcium absorption?
TRPV6 facilitates calcium entry into enterocytes; it is regulated by vitamin D, which also upregulates calbindin and PMCA1b.
120
# L56 What triggers the insertion of GLUT2 into the apical membrane?
High luminal glucose concentrations (post-meal) can stimulate translocation of GLUT2 to the apical membrane for rapid glucose uptake.
121
# L56 How does secretory diarrhea occur in diseases like cholera?
Cholera toxin activates adenylate cyclase → ↑cAMP → activates CFTR → excessive Cl⁻ secretion → water follows → severe watery diarrhea.
122
# L56 What’s the function of NHE3 in the intestine?
NHE3 (Na⁺/H⁺ exchanger) allows Na⁺ absorption in exchange for H⁺ secretion — also helps regulate pH and bicarbonate balance.
123
# L56 What happens to undigested lactose in lactase deficiency?
It remains in the lumen, draws water osmotically, and is fermented by bacteria → gas + diarrhea (osmotic + fermentative symptoms).
124
# L56 What is the fate of bile salts after lipid digestion?
Reabsorbed in the terminal ileum via ASBT (apical sodium-dependent bile acid transporter) and returned to the liver (enterohepatic circulation).
125
# L56 How do enterocytes prevent iron overload?
By storing excess iron as ferritin, and regulating export through ferroportin, which is inhibited by the hormone hepcidin.
126
# L56 What transporters are involved in amino acid absorption?
Multiple systems like system B⁰ (neutral AAs, Na⁺-dependent), system X⁻ (acidic AAs), system L (large neutral AAs, Na⁺-independent).
127
# L56 What enzyme is essential for disaccharide digestion at the brush border?
Disaccharidases like sucrase, lactase, and maltase; deficiency leads to malabsorption syndromes.
128
# L56 What conditions affect B12 absorption?
Pernicious anemia (loss of intrinsic factor), terminal ileum diseases (e.g., Crohn’s), or resection → B12 deficiency.
129
# L56 What role do intracellular enzymes play in nutrient absorption?
They hydrolyse absorbed di/tripeptides into amino acids and re-esterify absorbed lipids for chylomicron formation.
130
# L56 How is folate absorbed in the intestine?
Folate is absorbed primarily in the jejunum via a proton-coupled folate transporter (PCFT) in its monoglutamate form.
131
# L56 What is the role of intracellular calbindin in calcium absorption?
Calbindin binds Ca²⁺ and shuttles it across the enterocyte cytoplasm to the basolateral membrane, preventing cytotoxicity and aiding efficient transport.
132
# L56 What is the role of the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase in all absorptive processes?
It maintains the Na⁺ gradient that drives nearly all secondary active transport of glucose, amino acids, bile salts, and ions.
133
# L56 How does the colon secrete potassium?
Through apical BK (big potassium) channels, especially during high flow or aldosterone stimulation.
134
# L56 How does the intestinal microbiota influence absorption?
Microbes ferment undigested carbohydrates into short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) like butyrate, which are absorbed and contribute to colonic health and energy.
135
# L56 What are the consequences of terminal ileum resection?
Malabsorption of bile salts (→ steatorrhea), and vitamin B12 deficiency (→ megaloblastic anemia).
136
# L56 What type of diarrhea results from defective ENaC channels?
Secretory diarrhea due to impaired Na⁺ absorption, as seen in congenital chloride diarrhea or pseudohypoaldosteronism.
137
# L56 What nutrient absorption is pH-dependent in the duodenum?
Iron — acidic pH helps reduce Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺, which is more absorbable via DMT1.
138
# L56 Which transporter is responsible for glucose and galactose absorption at the apical membrane of enterocytes? A. GLUT2 B. GLUT5 C. SGLT1 D. PepT1
Answer: C. SGLT1 ✅ Explanation: SGLT1 is a sodium-dependent glucose transporter located at the apical membrane, co-transporting Na⁺ with glucose or galactose into enterocytes.
139
# L56 Fructose is absorbed in the small intestine by which transporter? A. SGLT1 B. GLUT5 C. GLUT2 D. Na⁺/Glucose cotransporter
Answer: B. GLUT5 ✅ Explanation: GLUT5 specifically facilitates facilitated diffusion of fructose across the apical membrane.
140
# L56 Which condition would impair carbohydrate absorption due to an enzyme deficiency? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Lactase deficiency C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D. Pernicious anemia
Answer: B. Lactase deficiency ✅ Explanation: Without lactase, lactose cannot be digested into absorbable monosaccharides, leading to osmotic diarrhea.
141
# L56 Which transporter facilitates absorption of di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes? A. SGLT1 B. PepT1 C. DMT1 D. FATP
Answer: B. PepT1 ✅ Explanation: PepT1 uses a proton gradient to co-transport small peptides into the enterocyte.
142
# L56 After absorption into enterocytes, small peptides are further processed by: A. Brush-border enzymes B. Cytosolic peptidases C. Pancreatic enzymes D. Bile salts
Answer: B. Cytosolic peptidases ✅ Explanation: Once inside enterocytes, di- and tri-peptides are hydrolyzed into amino acids by intracellular enzymes.
143
# L56 What drives most amino acid transport across the apical membrane of enterocytes? A. Proton gradient B. Na⁺ gradient C. ATP hydrolysis D. Osmotic pressure
Answer: B. Na⁺ gradient ✅ Explanation: Amino acid absorption is largely secondary active, using the Na⁺ gradient established by Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase.
144
# L56 Which transporter is key for apical iron uptake in enterocytes? A. Ferritin B. Ferroportin C. DMT1 D. PCFT
Answer: C. DMT1 ✅ Explanation: Divalent Metal Transporter 1 (DMT1) transports Fe²⁺ across the apical membrane into the enterocyte.
145
# L56 Calcium absorption is enhanced by which vitamin and binding protein? A. Vitamin C and albumin B. Vitamin B12 and ferritin C. Vitamin D and calbindin D. Vitamin K and transferrin
Answer: C. Vitamin D and calbindin ✅ Explanation: Vitamin D induces synthesis of calbindin, which helps shuttle Ca²⁺ across the enterocyte.
146
# L56 What is the primary function of the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase in nutrient absorption? A. Synthesizes glucose B. Drives passive Cl⁻ absorption C. Maintains sodium gradient for co-transport D. Pumps glucose directly into the blood
Answer: C. Maintains sodium gradient for co-transport ✅ Explanation: It actively expels Na⁺ to maintain low intracellular Na⁺, enabling secondary active nutrient uptake.
147
# L56 Water absorption in the small intestine primarily occurs via: A. Osmosis following active solute transport B. Passive diffusion of water channels C. Active pumping through aquaporins D. Aldosterone-stimulated channels
Answer: A. Osmosis following active solute transport ✅ Explanation: Solute absorption, especially Na⁺, creates osmotic gradients that drive water uptake.
148
# L56 In the colon, sodium is absorbed primarily through: A. Na⁺/H⁺ exchanger B. SGLT1 C. ENaC (Epithelial Na⁺ Channel) D. CFTR
Answer: C. ENaC (Epithelial Na⁺ Channel) ✅ Explanation: ENaC in the colon, regulated by aldosterone, allows passive Na⁺ entry across the apical membrane.
149
# L56 Aldosterone increases: A. Water secretion B. Cl⁻ absorption C. ENaC expression D. Glucose transporter activity
Answer: C. ENaC expression ✅ Explanation: Aldosterone enhances ENaC expression and Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase activity to increase sodium reabsorption.
150
# L56 What structure is essential for solubilizing dietary fats for absorption? A. Chylomicron B. Liposome C. Micelle D. Bilirubin
Answer: C. Micelle ✅ Explanation: Micelles, formed by bile salts, ferry lipids to the brush border for absorption.
151
# L56 After lipid absorption, triglycerides are reassembled and exported as: A. LDL B. HDL C. Chylomicrons D. Micelles
Answer: C. Chylomicrons ✅ Explanation: Lipids are packaged into chylomicrons in enterocytes for lymphatic transport.
152
# L56 Which part of the intestine reabsorbs bile salts? A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Colon
Answer: C. Ileum ✅ Explanation: Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the terminal ileum by ASBT transporters.
153
# L56 Which hormone reduces iron export by degrading ferroportin? A. Secretin B. Hepcidin C. Aldosterone D. Gastrin
Answer: B. Hepcidin ✅ Explanation: Hepcidin inhibits iron absorption by inducing degradation of ferroportin.
154
# L56 A patient with terminal ileum resection is at risk for which two deficiencies? A. Calcium and iron B. Vitamin B12 and bile salts C. Vitamin C and protein D. Glucose and water
Answer: B. Vitamin B12 and bile salts ✅ Explanation: The terminal ileum is the exclusive site for both B12-intrinsic factor complex and bile salt absorption.
155
# L56 Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by: A. Inhibiting glucose absorption B. Inhibiting ENaC C. Increasing CFTR-mediated Cl⁻ secretion D. Blocking aquaporins
Answer: C. Increasing CFTR-mediated Cl⁻ secretion ✅ Explanation: Cholera toxin raises cAMP, stimulating CFTR and leading to secretory diarrhea.
156
# L56 What transporter is involved in folate absorption? A. PepT1 B. PCFT C. ENaC D. DMT1
Answer: B. PCFT ✅ Explanation: The proton-coupled folate transporter (PCFT) facilitates folate uptake in the jejunum.
157
# L56 Which of the following is most likely to cause osmotic diarrhea? A. Secretin overproduction B. Bacterial overgrowth C. Lactase deficiency D. Low sodium diet
Answer: C. Lactase deficiency ✅ Explanation: Undigested lactose remains in the lumen, drawing water and causing osmotic diarrhea.
158
# L56 Which of the following occurs via paracellular water absorption? A. Water moves through aquaporins only B. Water is actively pumped across the membrane C. Water follows solutes through tight junctions D. Water is co-transported with amino acids
Answer: C. Water follows solutes through tight junctions ✅ Explanation: Paracellular water absorption occurs between cells, driven by osmotic gradients created by solute absorption.
159
# L56 Enterocyte polarity is critical because it ensures: A. Randomized transport of nutrients B. Uniform expression of transporters C. Directional (vectorial) absorption from lumen to blood D. Passive diffusion of all molecules
Answer: C. Directional (vectorial) absorption from lumen to blood ✅ Explanation: Apical and basolateral membranes contain distinct transporters enabling vectorial (directional) movement of substances.
160
# L56 What is the function of brush-border disaccharidases like sucrase-isomaltase? A. Break down starch to maltose B. Hydrolyze dipeptides to amino acids C. Break down disaccharides into absorbable monosaccharides D. Emulsify dietary fats
Answer: C. Break down disaccharides into absorbable monosaccharides ✅ Explanation: These enzymes at the microvilli cleave disaccharides into monosaccharides like glucose, galactose, and fructose.
161
# L56 Which transporter is involved in enterohepatic recirculation of bile salts in the ileum? A. NPC1L1 B. ASBT C. FATP4 D. DMT1
Answer: B. ASBT ✅ Explanation: Apical Sodium-dependent Bile Salt Transporter (ASBT) reabsorbs bile salts in the terminal ileum.
162
# L56 Feedback regulation of bile acid synthesis is mediated by which ileal hormone? A. GLP-1 B. CCK C. FGF19 D. Secretin
Answer: C. FGF19 ✅ Explanation: FGF19 is secreted in response to bile acid reabsorption and suppresses further bile acid synthesis in the liver.
163
# L56 A patient with chronic proton pump inhibitor (PPI) use is at increased risk of which absorption issue? A. Enhanced Ca²⁺ absorption B. Reduced iron and B12 absorption C. Increased bile salt secretion D. Increased folate absorption
Answer: B. Reduced iron and B12 absorption ✅ Explanation: Acid is required to solubilize iron and release B12 from food. PPIs reduce gastric acid and impair both processes.
164
# L56 In celiac disease, villous atrophy primarily impairs absorption in the: A. Ileum B. Colon C. Duodenum and jejunum D. Stomach
Answer: C. Duodenum and jejunum ✅ Explanation: These are the primary sites of nutrient absorption and are most affected in celiac disease, leading to malabsorption.
165
# L56 A child with greasy stools and failure to thrive is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which mechanism explains the malabsorption? A. Villous atrophy B. Decreased brush-border enzymes C. Lack of pancreatic enzymes and bile delivery D. Excess acid in the small intestine
Answer: C. Lack of pancreatic enzymes and bile delivery ✅ Explanation: CF causes thick secretions that block pancreatic ducts, impairing digestion of fats and proteins.
166
# L56 A patient presents with macrocytic anemia. What absorptive defect is most likely? A. Ileal resection B. Duodenal ulcer C. Pancreatic enzyme deficiency D. GLUT5 defect
Answer: A. Ileal resection ✅ Explanation: Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum; its loss leads to B12 deficiency and macrocytic anemia.
167
# L56 Secretory diarrhea is characterized by: A. Reabsorption of water due to lactose breakdown B. Inhibition of chloride secretion C. Active chloride secretion into the lumen D. Increased glucose-driven water reabsorption
Answer: C. Active chloride secretion into the lumen ✅ Explanation: Toxins like cholera activate cAMP, stimulating CFTR to secrete Cl⁻ and cause water loss into the gut lumen. Answer: C. Active chloride secretion into the lumen ✅ Explanation: Toxins like cholera activate cAMP, stimulating CFTR to secrete Cl⁻ and cause water loss into the gut lumen.