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VTNE > Laboratory > Flashcards

Laboratory Flashcards

1
Q

In qualitative and semi qualitative urine analysis which type of substance is exogenous?
a. uric acid
b. phenolsulfonpthalein
c. amino acid
d. hormone

A

b. phenolsulfopthalein

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2
Q

Urine samples should be analyzed within… for maximum valid information

A

30 minutes

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3
Q

Normal freshly voided urine of many samples is clear. Exceptions include which of the following species?
a. rabbit
b. horse
c. hamster
d. all

A

d. all

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4
Q

it is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. What is an adequate sample of fresh urine

A

5 ml

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5
Q

when assessing a patient’s diet, which urine specimen collection time is most helpful
a. 5 and 10 min intervals post prandial
b. 30 and 60 min intervals postpradial
c. 1-2 hr postpradial
d. 3-6 hours postpradial

A

d. 3-6 hours post

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6
Q

which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot (hint: and reptiles)

A

heparin
(mammals is EDTA)

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7
Q

to maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio sample tubes should be filled to at least…

A

90% capacity

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8
Q

Blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be…

A

lipemic

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9
Q

which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture

A

cystocentesis

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10
Q

pollakiuria is

A

frequent urination

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11
Q

a “smudge cell” is…

A

nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smearing

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12
Q

MCHM is calculated by

A

Hb conc by 100 / PCV

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13
Q

MCV is calculated by

A

PVC x 10 / total RBC

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14
Q

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is

A

defined by the mean weight of Hb contained in the average RBC

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15
Q

which is true of reticulocytes?
a. they are mature erythrocytes
b. wright’s stain causes a polychromatophilic staining or purple-red color
c. in cats only the aggregate form should be counted
d. a and c

A

c. in cats only the aggregate form should be counted

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16
Q

basophilic stippling is the presence of small blue staining granules in…

A

erythrocytes

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17
Q

which is the most representative method of urinalysis solute osmolar concentration

A

osmometry

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18
Q

NRBCs are normal to which species

A

avian and reptile

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19
Q

an increased WBC count is indicative of

A

leukocytosis

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20
Q

Toxocara canis

A

roundworm

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21
Q

ancylostoma caninum

A

hookworm

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22
Q

uncinaria stenocephala

A

hookworm

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23
Q

trichuris vulpis

A

whipworm

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24
Q

Filaroides sp

A

canine lungworm

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25
Q

spirocerca lupi

A

esophageal worm

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26
Q

dirofilaria immitis

A

heartworm

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27
Q

acanthocheilonema reconditum

A

dipetalonema

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28
Q

dicotophyma renale

A

giant kidney worm

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29
Q

racunculus insignis

A

guinea worm

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30
Q

toxocara cati

A

roundworm

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31
Q

ancylostoma tubaeforme

A

hookworm

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32
Q

aelurostrongylus abstrusus

A

feline lungworm

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33
Q

platynosomum fastosum

A

lizard poisoning fluke

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34
Q

toxoplasma gondii

A

toxoplasma

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35
Q

how is toxocara canis identified microscopically in the diagnostic stage
a. clear, smooth and thin-walled eggs
b. yellow-brown thick walled eggs with striated shells
c. dark brown thick walled egg with a pittet eggshell
d. L1 with S-shaped tail lacking dorsal spine

A

dark brown thick walled

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36
Q

Ancylostoma caninum can be contracted by which route

A

entry through the skin

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37
Q

the intermediate host of the Dipylidium caninum is the

A

flea

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38
Q

Signs that would indicate a dog has a severe infection of Otodectes cynotis would include:

A

head tilt, otitis media circling, seizures

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39
Q

Ixodes scapularis is the vector for:

A

Lyme disease

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40
Q

which of the following parasites is zoonotic
a. cystosospora canis
b. trichuris vulpis
c. parascaris equarum
d. dipylidium caninum

A

b. trichuris vulpis

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41
Q

which order do biting lice belong to?

A

mallophaga

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42
Q

which of the following is best diagnosed with the Baermann test
a. aelurostrongylus abstrusus
b. toxascaris leonina
c. ancylostoma braziliense
d. physaloptera spp

A

a. aelurostrongylus abstrusus

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43
Q

one of the great advantages of centrifugal floatation technique is to:

A

detect giardia oocysts and trichuris ova more efficiently

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44
Q

for which parasite is the cellophane tape method useful

A

oxyuris equi

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45
Q

what is the parasite that is called the “walking dandruff”

A

Cheyletiella spp

46
Q

a hexacanth is the detectable infective stage of a

A

tapeworm

47
Q

giardia and leishmania are examples of

A

flagellates

48
Q

which test is best for removing lungworm larvae from small samples of feces

A

direct smear technique

49
Q

which subgroup do tapeworms fall under

A

cestodes

50
Q

the life stage of the flea found on the skin of its host is the

A

adult stage

51
Q

the prepatent period for trichuris vulpis. is

A

3 months

52
Q

sucking lice have which characteristic

A

narrower head than the thorax

53
Q

hyostrongylus rubidis is the red stomach worm of

A

pig

54
Q

en diagnosing D. immitis on a Knotts test the microfila must be differentiated from

A

Acanthocheilonema

55
Q

whole blood contains the protein… that is not found in serum

A

fibrinogen

56
Q

what is the anticoagulant of choice for veinous samples in measuring bicarbonate levels

A

lithium heparin

57
Q

serum creatinine levels can be influenced by:

A

how well the glomeruli are filtrating

58
Q

which of the following is a non-renal cause for an increase in serum urea nitrogen

A

bleeding into the intestinal tract

59
Q

renal threshold is the:

A

level above which the kidneys can no longer remove glucose from the renal filtrate

60
Q

serum samples collected for measurement of blood glucose levels:

A

should be separated from the cells ASAP to prevent artificial decreases in values

61
Q

which of the following is considered to be the best test for evaluating exocrine pancreatic function in dogs

A

pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

62
Q

amylase breaks down:

A

starches

63
Q

indirect bilirubin is

A

lipid soluble and bound to proteins, not water soluble, calculated value

64
Q

Calculation of the A:G ratio is:

A

accomplished by dividing the serum albumin fraction by the globulin fraction

65
Q

globulin fractions can be separated by:

A

electrophoresis

66
Q

which of the following liver enzyme tests is considered a specific test for liver disease in dogs, cats and primates

A

ALT

67
Q

which of the following statements regarding liver enzyme tests is not true

A

most of these tests can be determined at room temp

68
Q

which of the serum protein functions rarely increases in a disease state

A

albumin

69
Q

bile acids:

A

are usually found in low levels in the bloodstream, will be increased before evidence of a rise in bilirubin, are removed from circulating blood by the liver

70
Q

intracellular electrolytes are:

A

phosphate/phosphorus, magnesium, potassium

71
Q

which is technically and electrolyte but is usually associated with acid-base balance

A

bicarbonate

72
Q

these two electrolytes help to control water balance in the extracellular space

A

sodium/ chloride

73
Q

which test can also be referred to as lateral flow immunoassay

A

rapid immunomigration testing

74
Q

which fat is most responsible for lipemia in samples

A

triglycerides

75
Q

Media plates are incubated with agar upside town to
prevent condensation
allow gravity to assist
protect the technician from exposure
protect colonies from light

A

prevent condensation

76
Q

vet practices may use outside microbio labs because
they need many cultures
they do not have staff trained
they are looking for difficult-to grow organisms
all of the above

A

all of the above

77
Q

a selective agar is one that

A

inhibits the growth of certain bacteria

78
Q

sterile areas of the body are those that

A

normally contain no bacteria or fungi

79
Q

a specimen for urine culture can be obtained by
free catch
steril cath
cysto
b and c

A

b and c

80
Q

blood cultures should be
inoculated immediately
taken from EDTA blood only
placed into broth first then incubated
normally growing many bac

A

placed in broth first then incubated

81
Q

fecal cultures
gen do not grow organisms
require special media
should never be gram stained
are not species specific

A

require special media

82
Q

fungal cultures
are performed using the same types of media and bac cultures
are incubated in dark at room temp
are held for one month to confirm neg results
b and c

A

both b and c

83
Q

when shipping samples for culture it is
okay to hold for a few days
normal to practice shipping in a padded envelope only
important to avoid the use of culturettes
best to refrigerate samples to stay viable

A

best to refrigerate

84
Q

the catalase test is used on g + cocci to

A

determine if it is Staph or Strep

85
Q

the Gram stain is

A

used to diff gram pos and gram neg

86
Q

gram pos colonies will

A

grow on TSA and CNA

87
Q

B hemolysis strep will show

A

complete hemolysis agar

88
Q

G negative cocci
are not often encountered
are id by use of API
include Neisseri and Moraxella
a and c

A

a and c

89
Q

On a MAC plate the lactose fermenting bac will appear

A

pink or purple

90
Q

Bordatella and Pasturella have these characteristics
g neg coccobacilli
only grow on TSA
i/d by API
all of the above

A

all of the above

91
Q

Dematophyte fungi
cause ringworm
grown in 0.9% saline
are not typically encountered
can be id to species macroscopically

A

cause ringworm in dogs and humans

92
Q

Candida infections occur when

A

a primary bacterial infection is already present

93
Q

examples of places where fungi can normally be found include

A

ears, throat, environment

94
Q

what happens during the primary immune response

A

stimulated B cells secrete IgM antibodies in the vascular system

95
Q

which is the first line of defence for containing and halting the spread of a pathogen

A

phagocytosis of intracellular pathogens

96
Q

which of the following are classified as lymphokine
NK cells
Interleukin-2
tumor necrosis factor
cytotoxic T cell

A

interleukin 2

97
Q

which immunoglobulin is found in body secretions

A

IgA

98
Q

which immunoglobulin is increased in allergic reactions

A

IgE

99
Q

Passive immunity is

A

antibodies transferred from another individual

100
Q

what is AKA serovonversion

A

active immunity

101
Q

which is false in regard to vax administration
vaccines should be given ASAP to pregnant animals
can be given IM or SQ
could cause adverse rxn
vaccines are not guaranteed to work

A

should be given ASAP to pregnant animals

102
Q

What is an antigenic drift
ability of a virus to combat immune response
changes in virus genome causing a new strain to form
adaptation of immune response to a viral infection
a and b

A

a and b

103
Q

what is NOT an adverse reaction to a vaccine
urticaria
salivation
polyphagia
dyspnea

A

polyphagia

104
Q

viruses are not classified according to:
morphology
genetic makeup
enveloped
organ affected

A

organ affected

105
Q

what is false about naked viruses
they are more susceptible to destruction
steam sterilization is preferred
naked viruses are more refractory
more tolerate of colder conditions

A

more susceptible to destruction

106
Q

which term most accurately describes the process of double-stranded DNA viral replication

A

mitosis

107
Q

Which statement is true about viral infections
once infected the patient shows CS rapidly
viral infections can predispose a pt
persistent carriers are easily I/d
viral infections do not cause cancer

A

viral infections can predispose a pt to secondary opportunistic pathogens

108
Q

specimens collected for viral testing should be stored at

A

1-4 deg celcius

109
Q

common commercial ELISA tests are not available for which of the following
parvo, heartworm, rabies , FeLV

A

rabies

110
Q

when using FA, how is viral infection best visualized

A

conjugation using antibodies in specimens from live animals

111
Q

which is the basic purpose of the direct Coombs test

A

to look for antibodies on the surfact of RBCs

112
Q

what does the RIA test detect

A

quantity of hormones or drugs or other antigens in specific species

VTNE (4 decks)

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