Laboratory Flashcards
1
Q
In qualitative and semi qualitative urine analysis which type of substance is exogenous?
a. uric acid
b. phenolsulfonpthalein
c. amino acid
d. hormone
A
b. phenolsulfopthalein
2
Q
Urine samples should be analyzed within… for maximum valid information
A
30 minutes
3
Q
Normal freshly voided urine of many samples is clear. Exceptions include which of the following species?
a. rabbit
b. horse
c. hamster
d. all
A
d. all
4
Q
it is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. What is an adequate sample of fresh urine
A
5 ml
5
Q
when assessing a patient’s diet, which urine specimen collection time is most helpful
a. 5 and 10 min intervals post prandial
b. 30 and 60 min intervals postpradial
c. 1-2 hr postpradial
d. 3-6 hours postpradial
A
d. 3-6 hours post
6
Q
which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot (hint: and reptiles)
A
heparin
(mammals is EDTA)
7
Q
to maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio sample tubes should be filled to at least…
A
90% capacity
8
Q
Blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be…
A
lipemic
9
Q
which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture
A
cystocentesis
10
Q
pollakiuria is
A
frequent urination
11
Q
a “smudge cell” is…
A
nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to cell during smearing
12
Q
MCHM is calculated by
A
Hb conc by 100 / PCV
13
Q
MCV is calculated by
A
PVC x 10 / total RBC
14
Q
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is
A
defined by the mean weight of Hb contained in the average RBC
15
Q
which is true of reticulocytes?
a. they are mature erythrocytes
b. wright’s stain causes a polychromatophilic staining or purple-red color
c. in cats only the aggregate form should be counted
d. a and c
A
c. in cats only the aggregate form should be counted
16
Q
basophilic stippling is the presence of small blue staining granules in…
A
erythrocytes
17
Q
which is the most representative method of urinalysis solute osmolar concentration
A
osmometry
18
Q
NRBCs are normal to which species
A
avian and reptile
19
Q
an increased WBC count is indicative of
A
leukocytosis
20
Q
Toxocara canis
A
roundworm
21
Q
ancylostoma caninum
A
hookworm
22
Q
uncinaria stenocephala
A
hookworm
23
Q
trichuris vulpis
A
whipworm
24
Q
Filaroides sp
A
canine lungworm
25
spirocerca lupi
esophageal worm
26
dirofilaria immitis
heartworm
27
acanthocheilonema reconditum
dipetalonema
28
dicotophyma renale
giant kidney worm
29
racunculus insignis
guinea worm
30
toxocara cati
roundworm
31
ancylostoma tubaeforme
hookworm
32
aelurostrongylus abstrusus
feline lungworm
33
platynosomum fastosum
lizard poisoning fluke
34
toxoplasma gondii
toxoplasma
35
how is toxocara canis identified microscopically in the diagnostic stage
a. clear, smooth and thin-walled eggs
b. yellow-brown thick walled eggs with striated shells
c. dark brown thick walled egg with a pittet eggshell
d. L1 with S-shaped tail lacking dorsal spine
dark brown thick walled
36
Ancylostoma caninum can be contracted by which route
entry through the skin
37
the intermediate host of the Dipylidium caninum is the
flea
38
Signs that would indicate a dog has a severe infection of Otodectes cynotis would include:
head tilt, otitis media circling, seizures
39
Ixodes scapularis is the vector for:
Lyme disease
40
which of the following parasites is zoonotic
a. cystosospora canis
b. trichuris vulpis
c. parascaris equarum
d. dipylidium caninum
b. trichuris vulpis
41
which order do biting lice belong to?
mallophaga
42
which of the following is best diagnosed with the Baermann test
a. aelurostrongylus abstrusus
b. toxascaris leonina
c. ancylostoma braziliense
d. physaloptera spp
a. aelurostrongylus abstrusus
43
one of the great advantages of centrifugal floatation technique is to:
detect giardia oocysts and trichuris ova more efficiently
44
for which parasite is the cellophane tape method useful
oxyuris equi
45
what is the parasite that is called the "walking dandruff"
Cheyletiella spp
46
a hexacanth is the detectable infective stage of a
tapeworm
47
giardia and leishmania are examples of
flagellates
48
which test is best for removing lungworm larvae from small samples of feces
direct smear technique
49
which subgroup do tapeworms fall under
cestodes
50
the life stage of the flea found on the skin of its host is the
adult stage
51
the prepatent period for trichuris vulpis. is
3 months
52
sucking lice have which characteristic
narrower head than the thorax
53
hyostrongylus rubidis is the red stomach worm of
pig
54
en diagnosing D. immitis on a Knotts test the microfila must be differentiated from
Acanthocheilonema
55
whole blood contains the protein... that is not found in serum
fibrinogen
56
what is the anticoagulant of choice for veinous samples in measuring bicarbonate levels
lithium heparin
57
serum creatinine levels can be influenced by:
how well the glomeruli are filtrating
58
which of the following is a non-renal cause for an increase in serum urea nitrogen
bleeding into the intestinal tract
59
renal threshold is the:
level above which the kidneys can no longer remove glucose from the renal filtrate
60
serum samples collected for measurement of blood glucose levels:
should be separated from the cells ASAP to prevent artificial decreases in values
61
which of the following is considered to be the best test for evaluating exocrine pancreatic function in dogs
pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity
62
amylase breaks down:
starches
63
indirect bilirubin is
lipid soluble and bound to proteins, not water soluble, calculated value
64
Calculation of the A:G ratio is:
accomplished by dividing the serum albumin fraction by the globulin fraction
65
globulin fractions can be separated by:
electrophoresis
66
which of the following liver enzyme tests is considered a specific test for liver disease in dogs, cats and primates
ALT
67
which of the following statements regarding liver enzyme tests is not true
most of these tests can be determined at room temp
68
which of the serum protein functions rarely increases in a disease state
albumin
69
bile acids:
are usually found in low levels in the bloodstream, will be increased before evidence of a rise in bilirubin, are removed from circulating blood by the liver
70
intracellular electrolytes are:
phosphate/phosphorus, magnesium, potassium
71
which is technically and electrolyte but is usually associated with acid-base balance
bicarbonate
72
these two electrolytes help to control water balance in the extracellular space
sodium/ chloride
73
which test can also be referred to as lateral flow immunoassay
rapid immunomigration testing
74
which fat is most responsible for lipemia in samples
triglycerides
75
Media plates are incubated with agar upside town to
prevent condensation
allow gravity to assist
protect the technician from exposure
protect colonies from light
prevent condensation
76
vet practices may use outside microbio labs because
they need many cultures
they do not have staff trained
they are looking for difficult-to grow organisms
all of the above
all of the above
77
a selective agar is one that
inhibits the growth of certain bacteria
78
sterile areas of the body are those that
normally contain no bacteria or fungi
79
a specimen for urine culture can be obtained by
free catch
steril cath
cysto
b and c
b and c
80
blood cultures should be
inoculated immediately
taken from EDTA blood only
placed into broth first then incubated
normally growing many bac
placed in broth first then incubated
81
fecal cultures
gen do not grow organisms
require special media
should never be gram stained
are not species specific
require special media
82
fungal cultures
are performed using the same types of media and bac cultures
are incubated in dark at room temp
are held for one month to confirm neg results
b and c
both b and c
83
when shipping samples for culture it is
okay to hold for a few days
normal to practice shipping in a padded envelope only
important to avoid the use of culturettes
best to refrigerate samples to stay viable
best to refrigerate
84
the catalase test is used on g + cocci to
determine if it is Staph or Strep
85
the Gram stain is
used to diff gram pos and gram neg
86
gram pos colonies will
grow on TSA and CNA
87
B hemolysis strep will show
complete hemolysis agar
88
G negative cocci
are not often encountered
are id by use of API
include Neisseri and Moraxella
a and c
a and c
89
On a MAC plate the lactose fermenting bac will appear
pink or purple
90
Bordatella and Pasturella have these characteristics
g neg coccobacilli
only grow on TSA
i/d by API
all of the above
all of the above
91
Dematophyte fungi
cause ringworm
grown in 0.9% saline
are not typically encountered
can be id to species macroscopically
cause ringworm in dogs and humans
92
Candida infections occur when
a primary bacterial infection is already present
93
examples of places where fungi can normally be found include
ears, throat, environment
94
what happens during the primary immune response
stimulated B cells secrete IgM antibodies in the vascular system
95
which is the first line of defence for containing and halting the spread of a pathogen
phagocytosis of intracellular pathogens
96
which of the following are classified as lymphokine
NK cells
Interleukin-2
tumor necrosis factor
cytotoxic T cell
interleukin 2
97
which immunoglobulin is found in body secretions
IgA
98
which immunoglobulin is increased in allergic reactions
IgE
99
Passive immunity is
antibodies transferred from another individual
100
what is AKA serovonversion
active immunity
101
which is false in regard to vax administration
vaccines should be given ASAP to pregnant animals
can be given IM or SQ
could cause adverse rxn
vaccines are not guaranteed to work
should be given ASAP to pregnant animals
102
What is an antigenic drift
ability of a virus to combat immune response
changes in virus genome causing a new strain to form
adaptation of immune response to a viral infection
a and b
a and b
103
what is NOT an adverse reaction to a vaccine
urticaria
salivation
polyphagia
dyspnea
polyphagia
104
viruses are not classified according to:
morphology
genetic makeup
enveloped
organ affected
organ affected
105
what is false about naked viruses
they are more susceptible to destruction
steam sterilization is preferred
naked viruses are more refractory
more tolerate of colder conditions
more susceptible to destruction
106
which term most accurately describes the process of double-stranded DNA viral replication
mitosis
107
Which statement is true about viral infections
once infected the patient shows CS rapidly
viral infections can predispose a pt
persistent carriers are easily I/d
viral infections do not cause cancer
viral infections can predispose a pt to secondary opportunistic pathogens
108
specimens collected for viral testing should be stored at
1-4 deg celcius
109
common commercial ELISA tests are not available for which of the following
parvo, heartworm, rabies , FeLV
rabies
110
when using FA, how is viral infection best visualized
conjugation using antibodies in specimens from live animals
111
which is the basic purpose of the direct Coombs test
to look for antibodies on the surfact of RBCs
112
what does the RIA test detect
quantity of hormones or drugs or other antigens in specific species
