Laboratory Safety and Regulations Flashcards

(129 cards)

1
Q

OSHA means _____

A

Occupational Safety and Health
Administration

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2
Q

CLSI means _____

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards
Institute

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3
Q

CDC means _____

A

Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention

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4
Q

CAP means _____

A

College of American Pathologists

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5
Q

TJC means _____

A

The Joint Commission

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6
Q

The Joint Commission is formerly _____

A

JCAHO

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7
Q

An agency within the U.S. Department of Labor to set levels of safety and health for all workers in the United States

A

OSHA

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8
Q

A nonprofit organization that sets voluntary consensus standards for all areas of clinical laboratories

A

CLSI

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9
Q

A Federal agency that carries out mandated public health laws and reporting requirements

A

CDC

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10
Q

An agency that provides accreditation and proficiency testing for laboratories

A

CAP

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11
Q

An independent, not-for-profit organization that accredits and certifies health-care organizations and programs in the United States

A

TJC

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12
Q

What is/are the source for the chemical type of laboratory hazard?

A

Preservatives and reagents

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13
Q

What is/are the possible injury for the chemical type laboratory hazard?

A

Exposure to toxic carcinogen
Caustic agents

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14
Q

What is/are the source for the sharps type of laboratory hazard?

A

Needles, lancets, and broken glass

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15
Q

What is/are the possible injury for the sharps type of laboratory hazard?

A

Cuts
Punctures
Blood-borne pathogen exposure

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16
Q

What is/are the source for the electrical type of laboratory hazard?

A

Ungrounded or wet equipment
Frayed cords

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17
Q

What is/are the possible injury for the electrical type of laboratory hazard?

A

Burns or shock

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18
Q

What is/are the source for the fire/explosive type of laboratory hazard?

A

Bunsen burners
Organic chemicals

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19
Q

What is/are the possible injury for the fire/explosive type of laboratory hazard?

A

Burns
Dismemberment

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20
Q

What is/are the source for the physical type of laboratory hazard?

A

Wet floors
Heavy boxes
Patients

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21
Q

What is/are the possible injury for the physical type of laboratory hazard?

A

Falls
Sprains or strains

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22
Q

What is/are the source for the radiation type of laboratory hazard?

A

Equipment and radioisotopes

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23
Q

What is/are the possible injury for the radiation type of laboratory hazard?

A

Radiation exposure

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24
Q

What is/are the source for the biological type of laboratory hazard?

A

Infectious agent

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25
What is/are the possible injury for the biological type of laboratory hazard?
(Infections) - Bacterial, Fungal, Viral, or Parasitic
26
Identify the Risk Factor: Includes pathogens on the hands of medical personnels, invasive procedures (intubation, indwelling vascular lines, urine catheterization)
Iatrogenic Risk Factors
27
Identify the Risk Factor: Contaminated airconditioning systems, contaminated water systems, staffing and physical layout of the facility
Organizational Risk Factor
28
Identify the Risk Factor: Severity of illness, underlying state of the patient and length of stay
Patient Risk Factor
29
List down the Potential Hazards:
1. Electric shock, toxic vapors, compressed gases, flammable liquids, radioactive material, and corrosive substances 2. Mechanical trauma 3. Poisons 4. Inherent risks of handling biologic materials
30
List down the Primary Cause of Accidents:
1. Unsafe Acts (not always recognized by personnel) 2. Unsafe Environmental Conditions
31
First rule of self protection is _____
Alertness at all times
32
Safety begins with the recognition of hazards and is achieved through:
1. Application of common sense 2. Safety-focused attitude 3. Good personal behavior 4. Good housekeeping in all laboratory work and storage areas 5. Continual practice of good laboratory technique
33
Preventive Measures:
* Annual safety reviews * Safety drills * General consciousness * Appropriate orientation to safety rules * Safe work environment
34
Heat sterilization time and temperature
250 degree Celsius for 15 minutes
35
Preferred amount and time of Ethylene Oxide for inactivation:
450/500 mg/L at 55 to 60 degree Celsius
36
Percentage of Glutaraldehyde for inactivation
2% Glutaraldehyde
37
Percentage of Hydrogen peroxide for inactivation
10% Hydrogen peroxide
38
Safety showers must deliver how many gallons of water per minutes?
30-50 gallons
39
Safety showers deliver 30 - 50 gallons of water per minute at _____
20-50 pounds per square inch (psi)
40
Expel noxious and hazardous fumes from chemical reagents
Fume Hoods
41
How do we check the airflow direction?
By placing a tissue paper at the opening of the hood
42
This is done to locate no flow or turbulent areas in the working space
Smoke Testing
43
Remove particles that may be harmful to the employee who is working with potentially infectious biologic specimens
Biosafety Cabinet
44
All Clinical Laboratory should have:
Chemical Hygiene Plan Exposure Control Plan Copy of MSDS
45
Disinfect the spill site using approved disinfectant or _____ using appropriate contact time
10% bleach
46
Identify the Category of Exposure: Daily exposure to blood and body fluids
Category I
47
Identify the Category of Exposure: Regular exposure to blood and body fluids
Category II
48
Identify the Category of Exposure: No exposure to blood and body fluids
Category III
49
How many Categories of Exposure is there?
Three Categories of Exposure
50
In the NFPA Labeling System, what color designates flammability?
Red
51
Red color in the NFPA Labeling System indicates _____
Flammabiliy
52
In the NFPA, what color indicates Health Hazard?
Blue
53
Blue color in the NFPA Labeling System indicates _____
Health Hazard
54
In the NFPA, what color indicates Reactivity Level?
Yellow
55
Yellow color in the NFPA Labeling System indicates _____
Reactivity Level
56
In the NFPA, what color indicates Special Considerations/Personal Protection?
White
57
White color in the NFPA Labeling System indicates _____
Special Considerations/Personal Protection
58
Communicates chemical hazard information through the use of colors, numbers and letters of the alphabet
Hazardous Materials Identification System (HMIS)
59
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Intended to be used by employers and workers
HMIS
60
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Intended to be used by emergency response personnel
NFPA
61
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Bar shape
HMIS
62
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Diamond shape
NFPA
63
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Covers both acute and chronic health hazards
HMIS
64
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Only covers acute health hazards
NFPA
65
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Shows recommended PPE
HMIS
66
Identify if HMIS or NFPA: Used to display other special hazards
NFPA
67
SDS Section 1
Identification
68
SDS Section 2
Hazard Identification
69
SDS Section 3
Ingredient Information
70
SDS Section 4
First Aid Procedures
71
SDS Section 5
Fire-fighting Procedures
72
SDS Section 6
Accidental-release Measures
73
SDS Section 7
Handling and Storage
74
SDS Section 9
Exposure Controls and Personal Protection
75
SDS Section 10
Stability and Reactivity
76
SDS Section 11
Toxicological Information
77
SDS Section 12
Ecological Information
78
SDS Section 13
Disposal Consideration
79
SDS Section 14
Transport Information
80
SDS Section 15
Regulatory Information
81
SDS Section 16
Other Information, Including Date of Preparation or Last Revision
82
Identify the Section on SDS: Identification
Section 1
83
Identify the Section on SDS: Hazard Identification
Section 2
84
Identify the Section on SDS: Ingredients Information
Section 3
85
Identify the Section on SDS: First Aid Procedures
Section 4
86
Identify the Section on SDS: Fire-fighting Procedures
Section 5
87
Identify the Section on SDS: Accidental-release Measures
Section 6
88
Identify the Section on SDS: Handling and Storage
Section 7
89
Identify the Section on SDS: Exposure Controls and Personal Protection
Section 8
90
Identify the Section on SDS: Physical and Chemical Properties
Section 9
91
Identify the Section on SDS: Stability and Reactivity
Section 10
92
Identify the Section on SDS: Toxicological Information
Section 11
93
Identify the Section on SDS: Ecological Information
Section 12
94
Identify the Section on SDS: Disposal Considerations
Section 13
95
Identify the Section on SDS: Transport Information
Section 14
96
Identify the Section on SDS: Regulatory Information
Section 15
97
Identify the Section on SDS: Other Information, Including Date of Preparation or Last Revision
Section 16
98
The temperature at which sufficient vapor is given off to form an ignitable mixture with air
Flash Point
99
Injurious to the skin or eyes by direct contact or to the tissue of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts if inhaled or ingested
Corrosive Chemicals
100
Spontaneously explode or ignite or that evolve heat or flammable or explosive gases
Reactive Chemicals
101
Radiation monitoring utilizes film badge or survey meter. The maximum permissible dose is _____
5000 mrem/year whole body
102
A test that involves wiping laboratory surfaces with moistened absorbent material and the radiation contained in each wipe is counted
Wipe Test/Leak Test
103
Compressed Gases Hazards
Danger of Fire Explosion Asphyxiation Mechanical Injuries
104
Identify the Class of Fire: Ordinary combustible: Wood, Paper, Cloth, etc
Class A
105
Identify the Class of Fire: Flammable Liquids/Gasses and Combustible Petroleum Products
Class B
106
Identify the Class of Fire: Energized Electrical Equipment, Motors, Switches
Class C
107
Identify the Class of Fire: Combustible/Reactive Metals (Mg, Na, K)
Class D
108
Identify the Class of Fire: Detonation
Class E
109
What type of Fire Extinguisher is used for Class A type of Fire?
ABC Dry Chemical Halotron Water Foam
110
What type of Fire Extinguisher is used for Class B type of Fire?
ABC Dry Chemical BC Dry Chemical Purple K Carbon Dioxide Halotron Foam
111
What type of Fire Extinguisher is used for Class C type of Fire?
ABC Dry Chemical BC Dry Chemical Purple K Carbon Dioxide Halotron
112
What type of Fire Extinguisher is used for Class D type of Fire?
Dry Powder
113
What type of Fire Extinguisher is used for Class K type of Fire?
Wet Chemical
114
_____ requires that all health-care institutions post evacuation routes and detailed plans to follow in the event of a fire
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)
115
The "R" in the RACE acronym means _____
Rescue
116
The "A" in the RACE acronym means _____
Activate
117
The "C" in the RACE acronym means _____
Contain
118
The "E" in the RACE acronym means _____
Extinguish
119
How to operate the Fire Extingusiher?
PULL pin AIM noozle SQUEEZE trigger SWEEP noozle
120
Most widely used cryogenic fluids (liquefied gases) in the laboratory
Liquid Nitrogen
121
Help eliminate bumping/boil over when liquids are heated
Glass Beads
122
Enumerate the Hierarchy of Controls from the Most Effective to the Least Effective
Elimination Substitution Engineering Controls Administration Controls Personal Protective Equipment
123
Completely remove the hazard from the workplace or the process, thus eliminating the risk entirely
Elimination
124
Replace the hazardous material, process, or equipment with a safer alternative.
Substitution
125
Implement physical modifications to the workplace or equipment to isolate workers from the hazard or reduce exposure.
Engineering Controls
126
Develop and implement safety policies, procedures, and training to reduce the likelihood of exposure to hazards.
Administrative Controls
127
Provide workers with appropriate PPE, such as gloves, respirators, or protective clothing, to protect against the identified hazard.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
128
What is the 4 Basic Waste Disposal Technique?
Flushing down the drain Incineration Landfill burial Recycling
129
Special waste from health care facilities
Medical Waste