LAFD Numbers Flashcards

TB 5, 20, 31, 35, 38, 44, 60, 61, 62, 65, 67, 74, 92, 104, 108, 111, 130, 136, 140, 164, 165, 169 DB 05-08, 11-12, 13-04, 14-04, 15-11, 15-17, 15-19, 20-09 Book 6 Lesson 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24 Book 8 Module 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 Book 29 Ch. 1, 2, 3, 4, 9 Book 77, 100, 101 Volume 2, 5 Volume 3 3/1, 6/2, 6/3, 6/4, 6/7, 6/8, 6/11, 7/1 (1363 cards)

1
Q

Fuel conservation of at least ___% is possible through proper vehicle operation, use, maintenance, and trip planning

A

10%

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2
Q

____% improvement in fuel economy could be achieved through a combination of training, speed control, and rewards for utilizing proper driving habits

A

17.4%

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3
Q

Maximum speed limit of ___ mph

A

55

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4
Q

Most autos get ___% better mileage at ___ mph than ___ mph

A

18%
50; 65

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5
Q

Average vehicle on road today gets best fuel economy at approximately ___ mph

A

45

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6
Q

Increasing speed from ___ to ___ mph, fuel economy dropped by ___%

A

40;
70;
25%

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7
Q

If delay is over ________, turn off engine

A

1 minute

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8
Q

Recommended time for warming up an engine is __________

A

30 seconds to 1 minute

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9
Q

“Jack rabbit” starts can burn over ___% more gas than normal acceleration

A

50%

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10
Q

Varying speed only ___ mph can reduce economy by as much as ___%

A

5;
10%

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11
Q

For every __ pounds under recommended tire pressure, lose about __% in fuel economy

A

2;
1%

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12
Q

Out-of-tune engine can drop mileage by a minimum of ___%

A

10%

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13
Q

Lexan is used in temperatures ranging from ____ to ____ F

A

-60 to 280

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14
Q

Lexan will soften at ____ F

A

350

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15
Q

Lexan has a normal thickness of ___” to ____”

A

1/8” to 1/4”

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16
Q

Lexan on special installs may be ____”

A

1-1/4”

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17
Q

6-battery system batteries are rated at ____ CCA at ___ F

A

950;
0

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18
Q

6-battery system batteries have a reserve capacity of ___ minutes at ___ A draw per hour

A

190 mins;
25 A

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19
Q

Diesel engines draw approximately __ A per cubic inch when starting

A

2 A

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20
Q

__ of __ batteries are used to start heavy apparatus

A

5 of 6

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21
Q

Combined use of 800 MHz Radio, UHF/VHF radio, and MDT, causes a constant __ A per hour draw on battery system

A

8 A

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22
Q

Automatic battery charger on-board apparatus is ___ A

A

40

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23
Q

All apparatus have been installed with “low voltage warning system”. Audible warning device activates anytime batteries fall below ___ V.

A

12.2

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24
Q

When apparatus is out of service for extended period of time, over ____ hours or battery charger cannot be plugged in, radio “cut off switch” must be turned off to avoid running down batteries

A

10

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25
2-stage Holmatro power units provide what pressures at 1st & 2nd stage?
3,000 psi 10,500 psi
26
Hydraulic fluid for Holmatro is __-weight
22
27
Holmatro PPU 15 weighs ___ lbs
35
28
Holmatro PPU 15 horsepower
2.5
29
Holmatro PPU 15 RPM
4500
30
Holmatro PPU 15 fuel tank capacity
1.3 quarts
31
Holmatro PPU 15 hydraulic fluid capacity
2000 cc
32
Holmatro DPU 30 weight
58 lbs
33
Holmatro DPU 30 horsepower
3.0
34
Holmatro DPU 30 RPM
3600
35
Holmatro DPU 30 fuel tank capacity
1.5 quarts
36
Holmatro DPU 30 hydraulic fluid capacity
3000 cc
37
Holmatro spreaders model number
3260 UL
38
3 models of Holmatro cutters
3020 UL 3035 NCT 4020 NCT
39
3020 UL cutting force
62,400 lbs
40
3020 UL opening
5-1/4"
41
3020 UL weight
27-1/2 lbs
42
3035 NCT cutting force
57,320 lbs
43
3035 NCT opening
5-5/8"
44
3035 NCT weight
33-1/2 lbs
45
4020 NCT cutting force
208,000 lbs
46
4020 NCT opening
7-1/8"
47
4020 NCT weight
37-1/2 lbs
48
Holmatro telescopic rams model numbers
3340 3350
49
Telescopic rams 1st & 2nd stage force
1st - 49,210 lbs 2nd - 18,210 lbs
50
3340 ram retracted and extended length
12" to 23"
51
3340 ram weight
24 lbs
52
3350 ram retracted and extended length
21" to 50-1/4"
53
3350 ram weight
37 lbs
54
Holmatro hoses are ____ long
32'
55
Working pressure of Holmatro hoses
10,500 psi
56
Burst pressure of Holmatro hoses
42,000 psi
57
Weekly check of Holmatro units includes running them for ___ minutes
15
58
Cutter hinge bolt torque is ___ ft-lb
75
59
Weekly check of Holmatro hoses, hold trigger handle of tool for ___ seconds to check for leaks along hose and couplers
5-10 seconds
60
Hot Stick is ___ long and ___ diameter
20-1/2" 1-3/4"
61
Hot Stick takes __ AA batteries
4
62
Hot Stick weighs slightly over __ lb with batteries
1
63
Hot Stick Detection Distances for single conductor 6' above ground (120V / 60 Hz & 220V / 50 Hz)
High = 15' Low = 3' Front-focused = 0.5'
64
Hot Stick Detection Distances for conductor laying in wet soil (120V / 60 Hz & 220V / 50 Hz)
High = 3' Low = 0.5' Front-focused = 0.1'
65
Hot Stick Detection Distances for overhead distribution line (7.2kV / 60 Hz & 16kV / 50 Hz)
High = 210' Low = 70' Front-focused = 20'
66
Hot Stick Detection Distances for overhead transmission line (46kV / 60 Hz)
High = > 500' Low = > 200' Front-focused = > 70'
67
Hot Stick has __ operational settings
4
68
Apparatus position and personnel must maintain at least __ span (distance between __ poles) from affected wire/pole. Distance between __ undamaged poles will provide best margin of safety
1; 2; 2
69
Turn Hot Stick to HIGH, listen for series of rapid beeps and LED flash lasting approximately __ seconds indicating Hot Stick is ready for use
3
70
Hot Stick requires no warm up and is ready for use in __ seconds after turning on
5
71
Hot Stick is tested to continuously operate for ___ hours by manufacturer
300
72
Ready Reserve fleet includes ___ fully equipped engines and ___ fully equipped BLS Ambulances
21; 26
73
In-and-Out Repair: A repair made on apparatus that is expected to be completed within no more than __ hours
8
74
When Ready Reserve is placed out of service for more than __ hours, Station Commanders shall “change-over” the Ready Reserve apparatus into a Reserve apparatus
8
75
Ready Reserve may be used for a max of __ hours to replace Front-line placed out-of-service for mechanical repairs. Front-line that cannot be repaired within __ hours shall be replaced by Change-over into a Reserve
8; 8
76
MFC shall not allow more than __ companies to be either NAV and/or CAV
15
77
MFC shall not allow more than a total of __ BLS and __ ALS RAs to be either NAV and/or CAV
8; 8
78
Truck apparatus Total Fleet: Front-line: Ready Reserve: Reserve Threshold:
63 42 0 5
79
Engine apparatus Total Fleet: Front-line: Ready Reserve: Reserve Threshold:
204 90 21 31
80
RA apparatus Total Fleet: Front-line: Ready Reserve: Reserve Threshold:
207 124 26 46
81
According to NFPA, approximately _____ structure fires in vacant/abandoned buildings every year resulted in an average of ____ firefighter injuries annually
31,000 4,500
82
1998-2007, total of __ firefighters were fatally injured in abandoned building structure fires
15
83
LA Department of Building and Safety is responsible for abatement of buildings which constitute a nuisance, are hazardous, or in a substandard condition based on provisions of Chapter ___ of Los Angeles Building Code
89
84
Vacant/abandoned building placards __” x __” min size with red background, white reflective stripes, and white reflective border with __” for hazard identification symbols
24" x 30" 6"
85
If the owner chooses to install the placards or use a private company, please have the owner notify the Fire Marshal's office, in writing, within __ days of the date of this letter
14
86
Vacant/abandoned building placard stripes and border shall have a __” minimum stroke
2"
87
For NFPA 704 placards, if multiple hazards exist, the __ worst hazards indicated in that space with most severe on top
2
88
Every above ground tank used for haz mat storage on at least __ sides of any container (in lieu of posting each tank in an area with more than __ tank, the area itself may be posted as approved by LAFD)
2; 1
89
NFPA 704 warning signs must be conspicuously posted at any location within/outside a building where haz mat are stored, processed, or used, shall be conspicuously lettered on a contrasting background with letters at least __” in height. Every sign shall name material or hazard classification
3"
90
NFPA 704 warning signs are required in any area where hazardous materials are stored, processed, or used shall have a sign conspicuously posted in letters no less than __” high on a contrasting background reading “No Smoking” or open flame within __ feet as required by Fire Chief
3" 25'
91
Establish a safe zone for MTA CNG buses at __ feet minimum
50
92
To stop fuel flow to engine of CNG buses, turn BLACK handle __ turn to stop fuel flow to engine
1/4
93
On MTA CNG buses, slide both battery disconnect switches to “OFF” position to disable __ and __ volt electrical power to all bus components.
12; 24
94
In Drop Method, cut inside and parallel to purlins ____ inside of purlins to avoid hitting metal hangers
4-6"
95
When extending a center rafter louver against construction: Make head cut as long as extended hole, make parallel cut approximately ___ long
3-1/2'
96
Outside/inside cuts on a center rafter louver should be ___ inside rafter
2-3"
97
Head cut on a center rafter louver should locate a minimum of __ rafters
3
98
When dicing, do not span __ rafter(s)
2
99
During dicing, after chainsaw operator makes ___ cut, puller can start pulling boards
3rd
100
In a 45-degree Inspection Cut, when the saw makes contact with a rafter, roll over the rafter and continue the cut for approximately __
6-10"
101
Normal and most common size of plywood type sheathing is _____
4' x 8'
102
Nailing blocks will usually be found every ___
4'
103
Center rafter cut uses __ cuts
4
104
__ of the 100 average deaths to firefighters are due to flashover
85
105
Effective ventilation will accomplish __ main objectives
4
106
There are __ categories of RIC
2
107
When __ or more Rapid Intervention Companies are assigned, IC shall consider assigning a Rescue Group Supervisor
2
108
__ individuals must be on scene to initiate interior firefighting operations
4
109
Evacuation signal is short blasts of air horn for __ + __ pause for a total of __
10 sec; 10 sec; 50 sec
110
According to Book 101, MFC will advise IC of elapsed time on incident clock every __
15 minutes
111
Most commonly used mutual aid frequency is OES White ____
2 & 3
112
RIC Kit includes a __ intermediate pressure hose and __ drop bag line
10' 150'
113
Of the 4 individuals initially on scene at an incident, only __ of __ backup personnel outside the IDLH may be engaged in other duties
1 of 2
114
IC shall, as a minimum, designate at least __ RIC upon the arrival of additional resources above the original structure assignment
1
115
Nozzle fan search method is used with a drop bag with knots every __
6'
116
4 basic methods used to tether between personnel utilize a __ nylon strap
12'
117
Members should consider changing to 1-hour bottles if time permits, but changing over shall be carefully conducted so that only ___ is always available to initiate rapid rescue during the change over process. When Task Force is assigned RIC, only 1 company at a time should change over to 1-hour bottles
1/2 of the company
118
Apparatus radio is __ watts
35
119
Metro-rail channels available in repeat are:
2, 4, 6, 7, 12, 15, 16, 17
120
F-tel phones are located at each standpipe outlet every ___ in Metro-Rail tunnels
250'
121
Metro-Rail cross passages are located every ___
750'
122
Depending on type of vehicle, it will take ____ for air to reach brakes after you press the foot pedal
1/4 to 1 second
123
Average weight of a triple is __ tons, weight has increased due to 500 gallon tanks
16
124
Average weight of a truck is __ tons
24
125
Average height of a triple is ___
10'
126
Average height of a truck is ____
10'-6"
127
Average width of newer trucks & triples is _____
9'-9"
128
Average length of a triple is ___
27'
129
Average length of a truck is ___
52'
130
Excessive rear overhang on older trucks, approximately ___ from tiller wheel
15'
131
Excessive front overhang on some triples is as much as ____ from front wheel hub
7'-4"
132
Modern apparatus have more powerful engines of approximately ___ HP
445
133
Southern California Rapid Transit District has introduced into service a fleet of __ new methanol powered buses
30
134
Methanol DOT ERG Number: __
28
135
Methanol is produced by one of __ methods
3
136
Methanol is not gasohol. Gasohol is gas with ____% methanol or ethanol
1% to 10%
137
Vapor density of methanol is ___. ___ times density of air
1.11; 1.1
138
Methanol will mix with water, unlike diesel/gas. Mixture of methanol and water is still flammable when diluted with approximately __ parts water to __ part methanol
5; 1
139
Evaporation of liquid at room temperatures creates a potentially explosive methanol-air mixture when methanol content reaches ___ volume
6.0%
140
Methanol-air mixtures containing more than __% volume do not flash because they are too rich to burn
36%
141
A fire hazard exists if the storage temperature of methanol in contact with air approaches the flash point of __ C (__ F)
11 C / 52 F
142
Methanol-water mixture is still a flammable liquid by OSHA definition (flash point ___ F) with as little as __% methanol by volume or __% by weight
100 F 21% 25%
143
Luminosity of burning pure methanol is about _____ of a comparably sized gas fire
1/3000
144
AFFF/ATC: For larger spills/fires of methanol. S&M has ___ gallons in supply available
700
145
New SCRT district bus fleet will be comprised of __ types of buses
2
146
Max vehicle lengths of SCRT methanol buses:
35' & 40'
147
Max vehicle height of SCRT methanol buses:
9'-11"
148
Max vehicle width of SCRT methanol buses:
8'-6"
149
Engine crankcase capacity of SCRT methanol buses:
25 quarts
150
Transmission capacity of SCRT methanol buses:
36 quarts
151
Steering system capacity of SCRT methanol buses: ___ quarts w/o wheelchair lift, ___ quarts w/ lift
6.5; 10.5
152
Rear axle capacity of SCRT methanol buses: __ pints
22 pints
153
Fuel tank capacity of SCRT methanol buses:
285 gallons
154
Components of methanol buses on-board fire/explosion suppression system include __ dual-spectrum infrared sensors mounted in the engine compartment, __ directed discharge nozzles at top and bottom of engine compartment, and __ __ lb Halon _____ cylinders mounted beneath the chassis
3; 2; 2; 20 lb; 1301
155
Infrared sensors in SCRT methanol buses recognize light wave lengths of methanol fire flames and trigger release of 1st cylinder of Halon into engine compartment. After __ second delay, 2nd Halon cylinder will discharge
15
156
Search and rescue using a 1" line procedure may be used by any combination of __ or more companies
2
157
For search and rescue with a 1" line, load 1” line and instruct engineer to pump ____ psi
200 to 250
158
150’ of 1” line, with 200 psi engine pressure and spray tip removed from a ___ shut off butt will deliver ___ gpm
5/8" 65 gpm
159
160
There are estimated to be over ____ marijuana dispensaries in LA
1,000
161
Humidity in marijuana grow operations can reach ___%
100%
162
Sub-standard electrical services and wiring in marijuana growing operations can use up to __ times the power of an average residence. Ballasts used to run high intensity grow lights can maintain a charge for up to __ minutes after being disconnected
10; 15
163
Atmosphere less than ____% oxygen is oxygen deficient
19.5%
164
All members within ___’ of a structure used for illegal marijuana cultivation shall wear full PPE & SCBA
30'
165
LAFD resources will encounter marijuana grow operations in one of ___ ways
2
166
IC’s standard operation shall include the concept of risk management per NFPA ____
1500
167
A Mayday can be initiated by a member when their life is in danger and situation cannot be corrected in __ seconds
30
168
If after __ “Mayday” attempts on the Tac channel the member does not receive acknowledgement, they shall activate the Emergency Alert Button and declare the Mayday again verbally
2
169
Once a member is or realizes someone else is in a “Mayday” situation, it is imperative to give simple but pertinent info using __ “Ws” method
3
170
Survival breathing technique is performed by extending exhalation __ times that of inhalation
2
171
When possible, member in distress shall point light at a __ degree angle and shine it outward where a rescuer may see it
45
172
IC initiates Emergency Traffic tones for __ seconds
3
173
It has proven more efficient/effective by conducting a PAR/CAR in __ Division(s) or Group(s) at a time
1
174
When conducting outside drills, officers are responsible for maintaining coverage within their respective first-in districts, as well as the company’s readiness to respond within __ seconds for EMS, and __ seconds for fire suppression or other related incidents
60; 80
175
In large or complex first-in districts where extended travel times may exceed __ minutes or more, responsible Officers shall put in place contingency plans to avoid any unduly delayed responses in their districts
10
176
All requests for entry to downtown high-profile, high-risk target buildings/facilities shall be made by Station Commander __ hours in advance
24
177
Upon arrival to a downtown high rise for training, the Commanding Officer should enter through main entrance with no more than __ members and coordinate entry of their company
2
178
A size-up consists of __ operations and focuses on __ areas
3; 4
179
Mill/timber construction members may be ___ for strength
8x8
180
A single lightweight truss structural member can span __
70'
181
Standard for lightweight construction is ____ and ____
2x3s and 2x4s
182
Conventional construction utilizes a minimum of ____
2x4s
183
The ability to accurately estimate the amount of time that a structure can be considered structurally strong is dependent on __ factors
3
184
Gable rafters are ____
2x6 or larger
185
Gable rafter spacing is
16-24", up to 36" on steep pitch
186
Gable ridge borad is ___
1x6 OR lack of resulted in 2x6 rafters butted together
187
Gable roof decking is __ for newer roofs instead of ____
3/8" or 1/2" plywood; 1x4 or 1x6 spaced sheathing
188
Lightweight gable roof uses ____ wood trusses held together by metal gusset plates
2x3 or 2x4
189
Most common metal gusset plates are __ gauge with __ penetration
18; 3/8"
190
__ gauge "roof truss clips" may be found nailed to the bottom chord every ___ trusses
18; 3-5
191
Common on-center spacing for lightweight gable truss rafters is __
24"
192
Hip roof ridge board is ___
2x6 or larger
193
Hip roof rafters are ___. Rough cut ___ or ___ are used on older structures with steep pitched roofs
2x6 or larger; 2x3 or 2x4
194
Hip roof rafters are ___ on-center or up to ___ on steep-pitched roofs
16-24"; 36"
195
Bridge truss roofs are used in commercial buildings built during the ______
1930s & 40s
196
Bridge truss members are ___
2x12
197
Bridge truss rafters are ____
2x6 or larger
198
Bridge truss / bowstring arch / tied truss sheathing is _____
1x6 straight (pre-33) or diagonal (post-33), plywood if modified for Earthquake Ordinance
199
Bowstring arch roofs are used on small/large commercials built in the ____
1930s/40s/50s
200
Bowstring arch truss members are ___, some have multiple beams forming __ truss arch(es)
2x12 or 2x14; 1
201
Bowstring arch rafters are
2x6 or larger
202
Lamella arch framing is ___ with steel plates/bolts at junctions
2x12
203
Lamella arch decking is ___
1x6
204
Tied truss top chords are laminated _____
2x12s or large members
205
Tied truss rafters are ____
2x10 or larger
206
Tied truss tie rods are ___ in diameter
5/8"
207
Sawtooth rafters are ___ or larger with wood and/or metal supports for bracing
2x8
208
Sawtooth sheathing sloping portion is covered with ___ sheathing, or __ in newer roofs
1x6; 1/2" plywood
209
Sawtooth roofs are constructed the same today as it was during the ______
1930s/40s
210
Conventional flat roof rafters are ___
2x6 or larger
211
Conventional flat roof sheathing is ___ or ____ in newer applications
1x6; 3/8" - 5/8" plywood
212
Wooden I beam chords are ____ but ___ are common
2x4s; 2x3s
213
Wood I beam stem may be ____ or chip-board
3/8" plywood
214
Wooden I beam spacing is ___ on-center
24"
215
Nailing blocks are placed perpendicular to top chords ___ apart
4'
216
Open web roof steel web are ___ cold rolled steel tubing with ends pressed flat into semicircular shape
1-2"
217
Open web steel pins up to ___ are driven through chord members and flattened ends of web member
1"
218
Open web spacing is ___ on-center
24"
219
Open web spans are up to ___ using a single ____ or two ____ as top and bottom chord members
70' 2x4; 2x3s
220
Metal gusset plate trusses are ___ held by metal gusset plate connectors
2x4s
221
Metal gusset plate spans may be up to ___ found in flat roofs
80'
222
Metal gusset plate decking is __, dwellings us ___
1/2" plywood 3/8" or 1/2" plywood
223
Panelized roof beam size is ___
6x36
224
Panelized roof beam spacing is ____
12' to 40'
225
Panelized roof beams may be bolted together to provide lengths well in excess of ___
100'
226
Purlins are ___ in size
4x12
227
Purlins are ___ on-center
8'
228
Panelized 2x4 joists are __ on-center
24"
229
Panelized beam span supports of __ hollow steel pipe may be found
4"
230
Open web bar joist top/bottom chords are ___ steel
1/8"
231
Open web bar joist web supports are solid __ steel bar
5/8"
232
Large buildings may have open web bar joists used as girders spaced up to __
45'
233
Open web bar joists are spaced __ apart to accept corrugated metal decking covered by alternating layers of tar and tar paper
8'
234
Open web bar joist decking of ___ with ___ joists are gaining popularity
1/2" plywood 2x4
235
Steel begins to lose its strength at ____ degrees
1000
236
Ligthweight concrete roof is an air entrained mixture of sand, cement, and occasionally pea gravel pumped over ____ wire mesh to a thickness of ___
4x4 or 6x6; 3-4"
237
Metal beams can expand __ per 100' which can push out walls
9"
238
Concrete tilt-up buildings can be up to __ stories in height
5
239
Brick buildings before _____ are "an accident looking for a place to happen" but after ____ are very stable
1930s 1930s
240
Pre-33 URM building exterior walls are __ thick
13"
241
Pre-33 URM building parapets can be __ above the roof line and __ or more if used as a facade
3' 5'
242
Post-33 brick building exterior walls were required to be __ thick
9"
243
What year was the Long Beach Earthquake?
1933
244
What year was the Tehachapi Earthquake?
1959
245
What year was the Sylmar Earthquake?
1971
246
Post-1959, a ___concrete bond beam cap was required to be laid on top of lowered parapet walls along public ways and exits
4-6"
247
Post 1959 parapet walls should not be higher than __ including the bond beam cap
16"
248
Post 1959 exterior walls drilled at the roof rafter level and a steel anchor bar/rod was installed every __ and attached to the existing roof rafter
4'
249
URM buildings will share all or a portion of __ trademarks
6
250
Every ___ row of bricks, one row will have been laid "on-end", referred to as the "king row" for additional strength
4th to 7th
251
Earthquake Ordinance Modifications include metal straps across the width of the roof and attached to opposing walls. Usually __ the length of the building back from the front and rear walls and ___ from walls
1/3; 3-4'
252
There are __ important areas of facades
4
253
Bungalow & Balloon Construction was common during the ____
1920s, 30s, 40s
254
Bungalow & Balloon Construction was primarily utilized in single family dwellings and multi-story habitational occupancies up to __ stories
4
255
Bungalows commonly used rough cut __ studs/rafters
2x4
256
Bungalow construction used _____ rafters for roof structural members and a ridge that is __ (or ___ butted together)
2x3 or 2x4; 1x6 2x4
257
Curtain construction can be about __% faster than conventional construction
60%
258
What are the 3 time periods to classify buildings?
Pre-1933 1933 to late 1950s 1950s to present
259
Impact of lightweight construction on fireground decisions, must address __ areas
4
260
The ___ company on-scene of a high rise incident shall be Fire Attack
1st
261
Fire Attack at a high rise incident is responsible for checking __ floor(s) below the fire floor for the suitability of Staging
2
262
It has proven effective to have Staging monitor __ radio channel(s)
2 1 for Logistics to order equipment/supplies and 1 for Tac/Command channel to IC/Ops for additional resources
263
Base shall be established a minimum of ___ away from a high rise incident structure at a high rise
264
Normal 1st alarm assignment for a reported fire in a high rise structure is: __ fire companies (__ trucks and __ engines) __ airborne engine company component (task force) __ BLS RA(s) __ ALS RA(s) __ EMS Battalion Captain(s) __ BC
5; 2 & 3 1 1 1 1 1 Squad in specific 1st-in districts
265
In a high rise incident, a minimum of a __ member initial fire attack team shall ascend to the reported floor
4
266
Supplying water to the building standpipe system at a high rise fire will be the responsibility of the ___ arriving 200 series engineer, except when the ______ arriving companies are single engine companies, in which case the engineer of the ___ arriving company has the responsibility for water supply
1st; 1st and 2nd; 2nd
267
Staging at a high rise incident should be established utilizing a company from the ___ alarm assignment
1st
268
Base at a high rise incident may be established by available engineers from the ___ alarm assignment, or by a greater alarm company
1st
269
At a high rise incident, __ BC assumes IC __ BC may be assigned Division Supervisor __ AC will relieve IC
1st; 2nd; 1st
270
There are __ main objectives of overhaul
5
271
Firefighting gear provides protection from products of combustion in __ forms
2 Respiratory protection (SCBA) Skin absorption (turnouts)
272
IC responsible for documenting all hazards/risks, areas involved, and any mitigation measures using ICS ____ Incident Action Plan Safety Analysis
215A
273
Complete Overhaul: Minimal PPE may be considered when occupancy has been well ventilated for a minimum of ___
1 hour
274
Overhaul piles shall be established in a location that will minimize any inconvenience to the public, and at a minimum of __ feet away from any part of a structure
10
275
Firefighters are __% more likely to be diagnosed with cancer than the general population
14%
276
Cancer accounts for roughly __% of LODD
60%
277
Use a minimum of __ member(s) to restrain a patient successfully - __ for each upper extremity and __ for both lower extremities
3; 1; 1
278
Patients suffering from positional asphyxia are found to be profoundly hyperthermic on arrival to the hospital, with body temperatures often exceeding ___ F
105
279
It is vital to attempt to ID and reverse the __ causes of agitation that may be reversible in the field
2; hypoglycemia and hypoxia
280
A taser delivers a brief _____ V jolt of electricity
50,000
281
Restrained extremities shall be evaluated for pulse quality, nerve, and motor function and documented every __ minutes on the F-902M
15
282
“First responders who use a personal device to capture photographic images of a deceased person is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine not exceeding $_____ per violation”
$1,000
283
Average triple apparatus weighs
20 tons
284
Aerial ladder truck is roughly __ times the length of a triple apparatus
2
285
NFPA ____ is the Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Rescue Incidents
1670
286
There are __ types of technical rescue incidents
7
287
ICS was developed in response to problems encountered in a series of major wildland fires in southern California in ____
1970
288
Moderate duration US&R incidents are ___ hours long
6 to 8
289
Normal acceptable span of control is from __ to __, with __ being ideal
3 to 7; 5
290
Rescue Team and Back-up Rescue team may be an entire company or __ person/people depending on the US&R incident
1
291
Rigging Crew, Cutting Crew, or Ventilation may be __ or more individual(s) or an entire company in a US&R incident
2
292
In US&R incidents, a rescuer is connected by air hose, up to a maximum of ___ feet in length, to the air manifold.
300
293
US&R Task Force is located in each division at stations:
3, 5, 27, 85, 88, 89
294
Heavy Rescue ___ is dispatched to all US&R incidents.
56
295
The 1st arriving unit at a technical rescue should provide edge protection for trenches, evacuations, or below grade confined spaces using ___ lumber when available
2x8 or 2x10
296
Nearly __% of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers associated with secondary entries
60%
297
The on-scene assessment of a confined space rescue is divided into __ areas
3
298
OSHA records show that __% of all confined space injuries/deaths are related to atmospheric condition
90%
299
Confine space refers to any atmosphere that may expose workers to risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness from any of the following: 1. Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of __% of its LEL 2. Combustible dust at or exceeding its LEL (approximately __’ of visibility) 3. Atmospheric oxygen less than ____% or greater than ____%
10% 5' 19.5% / 23.5%
300
PPE provides protection against __ groupings of hazards in technical rescues
2 Physical and environmental
301
There are __ main categories of respiratory protection in technical rescues
2 SCBA & Supplier Air Respirators
302
__ factors limit the use of SCBAs in confined space
3 size, usable quantity of air, and weight
303
At high rise operations, plan for early relief, __ minutes, for fire control personnel
10 to 15 minutes
304
At a high rise incident, Staging is normally __ floors below the fire, should be announced on fireground tactical channel
2
305
At a high rise incident, Air Ops Helispot should be at least __ from involved building. Normally helicopters should remain a minimum of ___ feet from the involved building while in flight and away from the command post
1/2 mile 500 feet
306
Operations Section Chief at a high rise supervises __ things
10 Fire Attack Staging Search/Rescue Rapid Intervention Air Ops Medical Evacuation Ventilation Salvage Overhaul
307
At a high rise, the __ company on scene is Fire Attack and the __ company on scene is Lobby. Lobby Officer becomes IC
1st; 2nd
308
Fire Attack at a high rise should retain __ copy of building inventory sheet and __ set(s) of keys
1; 1
309
At a high rise incident, Fire Attack Officer shall evaluate the __ floors below the reported fire floor for its use as staging and communicate to IC
2
310
At a high rise incident, when more than __ company(s) is assigned to rapid intervention operations, a BC should be assigned as the Rapid Intervention Group Supervisor
1
311
At a high rise incident, occupant evacuation of the fire floor and __ floor(s) above and below has been sufficient
2
312
At a high rise incident, once occupants have been evacuated, police assistance should be requested to assist in directing evacuees to a safe location, at a minimum ___ feet from the affected structure
200
313
At a high rise incident, __ companies should be kept at Base for each company in Staging
2
314
At a high rise incident, Ground Support Unit should consider __ member per __ floor(s) and __ officer per __ members
1 member per 2 floors 1 officer per 4 or 5 members
315
High rise buildings designed for human occupancy are of __ types
2
316
A high rise building is defined as a building over __’ in height, measured from ground level access to the floor level of the highest floor intended for occupant use
75'
317
Class III Combination Standpipe System: Is a combined standpipe/sprinkler system with an on-site water supply and pump. Outlets are all ____” and required to have an ___" reducer
2-1/2" 1-1/2"
318
Buildings constructed since 1974 and over 75' must have at least __ approved means of egress from each floor
2
319
Buildings constructed before 1974 must have at least __ approved exit(s) from each floor
2
320
Buildings constructed before 1974 must have some type of smoke control. This may be openable windows, tempered glass breakout panels on at least __ sides, or a modified HVAC system capable of exhausting smoke outside the building without spreading it onto additional floors
2
321
Pre-1960 will have a Class I Dry Standpipe (____"), with water supplied by fire department pumpers, and a Class II Standpipe (____") supplied from the domestic water system
2-1/2" 1-1/2"
322
Buildings 1960-1974 that exceed 150’ in height will have a Class III Combination (Wet) Standpipe System with ______ outlets, an on-site fire pump to maintain a working pressure in the system.
2-1/2" and 1-1/2"
323
Buildings constructed before 1974 must have a building communication system if building is ____ or more in height. This is a __-way(s) communication system
150' 1-way
324
Department’s Fire and Safety Education Unit administers a program, required under Title __ of CA Administrative Code, where occupants of all high rise buildings are trained in emergency pre-fire planning & evacuation.
19
325
High rise buildings are required to have a minimum of __ fire drill(s) annually
1
326
Danger to building occupants at high rise fires could develop from __ sources
3
327
High rise buildings are designed with __-hour fire resistance between floors and around vertical openings
2
328
Some high rises house more than ____ people during peak time periods
5,000
329
For a working fire, relocate occupants from the fire floor and at least __ floors above and below to a safe location, preferable below the fire
2
330
In most high rise situations, we can provide for occupant safety and Fire Department access by clearing __ floors
5
331
When evacuations are underway at a high rise prior to fire department arrival, beginning at the ___ floor, firefighters must make their way to each landing and attempt to control existing occupants
2nd
332
When evacuations are underway at a high rise prior to fire department arrival, occupants __ floors above/below should be assisted to remaining stairwell which shall be designated as the evacuation stairwell
2
333
Info about occupants in assembly area of a high rise incident will be especially important for those occupants who vacated the fire floor and __ floors above
2
334
Firefighters in PPE, breathing apparatus, high-rise hose packs, and forcible entry equipment require approximately __ per floor to ascend stairs
1 minute
335
Fire reported on or below the __ floor, stairwell shall be used
6th
336
Officer in charge of Fire Attack Team at a high rise should give an assessment of conditions found in the stairwell every ___ floors, and if elevators are used, during the precautionary stops every __ floors
4 or 5 floors; 5 floors
337
Book 100 - When preparing to advance __ lines simultaneously, flake __ up and __ down the stairs to minimize chance of them becoming entangled
2; 1; 1
338
Standpipe pressure in a high-rise is controlled by __ means
3 pressure regulating devices, pressure restricting devices, or orifice plates
339
Pressure regulating devices control pressure: Volume of an outlet can increase to supply more than __ line, as long as gpm does not exceed set limit which is normally ___ gpm
1; 300
340
Orifice plate controls pressure by restricting volume and is limited to its design requirements for supply ___ gpm
200
341
Fire can “wrap around” center core buildings, can be prevented by coordinating __ hose lines, __ to attack the fire and __ to prevent the fire from wrapping around the core
2; 1; 1
342
If 1 business occupies __ or more consecutive floors at a high rise, __ of which is the fire floor, you should be alert for the possibility of an additional stairwell
2; 1
343
Flashover point for petrochemical synthetics in high rises may be as low as ___ F
700
344
Department members shall not test voltage systems exceeding ____ volts. TB 92
1,000
345
Voltage tester may be used to test AC or DC voltages ranging from ____ volts. TB 92
1 to 999
346
Voltages of ___ volts or more will be indicated by a pulsating buzzer warning. TB 92
500
347
Voltage tester is powered by __ __ battery TB 92
1 9V
348
TB 92 - Voltage tester automatic voltage range is ____
1 to 999 volts
349
TB 92 - Voltage tester battery life is approximately ____ tests until "low battery" sign appears
3,000
350
TB 92 - If input voltage to be tested is greater than __ volts (AC/DC) the tester switches on automatically. If less, push 2 test prods together and push "test" button, which also provides for a manual battery test
4
351
TB 92 - A ___ second audible signal will sound when tester reads a stabilized voltage which is when the hold button should be activated
2.5 second
352
TB 92 - Anytime a member has any indication that the voltage to be tested is ___ volts or more, goggles & rubber electrical gauntlets with leather gloves shall be worn
600
353
TB 92 - For voltages of ___ or less, firefighting gloves shall be worn
600
354
TB 92 - Any voltage over __ V should be considered energized
10
355
TB 136 - LAX is the ___ busiest airport in the world and ranked ___ in cargo with ____ tons of air cargo handled annually
5th; 11th; 2.1 million
356
TB 136 - Over ______ passengers travel through LAX annually.
61.5 million
357
TB 136 - __ passenger and __ cargo carriers serve LAX
80; 20
358
TB 136 - LAX has __ terminals with more than ___ aircraft parking spaces
9; 140
359
TB 136 - LAX consists of _____ acres with __ east/west runways
1500; 4
360
TB 136 - Runways __ L/R and __ L/R are north of Century Blvd Runways __ L/R and __ L/R are south of Century Blvd
6, 24 7, 25
361
TB 136 - Aircraft landing eastbound are landing on Runways ___, westbound use ____
6 or 7; 24 or 25
362
TB 136 - Approximately ____ takeoffs/landings daily at LAX
1800
363
TB 136 - __ major categories of aircraft crashes
2
364
Airbus A380 has __ decks, cargo with __ passenger cabin decks above. Higher level will have more survivability. TB 136
3; 2
365
Data shows that when passengers exit via the aircraft emergency chutes, an __% injury rate will occur with no hazard present. TB 136
8%
366
Additional resources for an airport emergency: __ ALS RA __ BLS RA __ TF __ BC __ EMS __ Haz Mat TF __ US&R TF __ Heavy Rescue
15 ALS 5 BLS 8 TF 4 BC 5 EMS 1 HazMat TF 1 US&R TF 1 Heavy Rescue
367
Criteria for requesting additional resources at an airport incident includes having over ___ passengers. TB 136
200
368
Ops __ is the call sign for the LAX Airfield Supervisor. TB 136
44
369
LAX has __ Security Access Points. TB 136
5
370
LAX airport has over ___ other Airfield Operational Area access points on tenant leasehold property. TB 136
120
371
Numbering convention for LAX gates (TB 136) ___ series on north side ___ series on east side ___ series on south side ___ series on west side
100; 200; 300; 400
372
At LAX, Alert __ incidents indicate the aircraft is showing warning lights or minor malfunction. TB 136
2
373
At LAX Alert __ incidents involve major malfunctions, crash, or crash is imminent. TB 136
3
374
Initial response for Alert 2 LAX Incident. TB 136
ARFF 80/180/280/380, E 51, BC 4
375
Initial response for Alert 3 LAX Incident. TB 136
ARFF 80/180/280/380, E 51, TF 95, RA 95, TF 5, EMS 4, BC 4
376
Fire service has __ primary incident objectives during the initial stages of a low-impact aircraft crash where potential for survivors exist. TB 136
3
377
At an airport incident, ARFF 180 positions the apparatus approximately __ off the nose of the aircraft. TB 136
50 yards
378
It will take approximately __ hours before Information Technology Agency (ITA) and LAWA can complete the setup with telephone/data lines at Fire Station 5. TB 136
3
379
Aircraft landing speeds exceed ___ knots/hr. TB 136
150
380
Airbus A380 can carry up to ___ passengers plus flight crew. TB 136
800
381
IC should consider the need to establish __ medical groups at airport incidents. TB 136
2
382
At airport incidents, only __ Transportation Control Officer will be assigned regardless of the number of Medical Groups. TB 136
1
383
Medical Supply Cache and Emergency Backboard Trailer, with __ backboards, is stored in a hanger immediately west of Fire Station 80 and north of USCB LAX Air Station. TB 136
90
384
Perimeter around aircraft at a LAX incident should be ___. TB 136
300'
385
Title __ of CA Administrative Code provides requirements for operation of elevators under fire and emergency conditions. Book 100
24
386
Automatic elevators having a total travel of more than ___ (or more than ___ after _________) may be recalled to lobby by sensing devices or by a 3-positon key operated “Emergency Service” switch in the lobby. Book 100
50' 25' after 10/6/1975
387
Minimum of __ "Emergency Service" switch(es) per bank of elevators is required. Book 100
1
388
All automatic elevators having a travel of __ feet or more above the lowest grade level may be recalled to lobby by smoke detectors or by a 3-position “Emergency Service” switch in lobby. Book 100
70
389
Elevator ascent only when reported location is above the ___ floor. Book 100
6th
390
Elevators should not be taken closer than __ floor(s) below reported fire floor or __ floor(s) below the lowest indicated alarm floor location. Book 100
2; 2
391
If building equipped with split bank, do not use an elevator that services the fire floor is a lower bank reaches within __ floor(s) of the fire floor. Book 100
5
392
If Light Force is 1st on scene and assumes fire attack, __ member(s) may be assigned to operate the elevator and __ members can assume Fire Attack. Book 100
1; 4
393
No more than __ personnel, with equipment, shall be permitted in any 1 elevator at a time during Phase __ operations to prevent exceeding weight capacity of elevator and allow for maneuverability should need for forcible exit be required. Book 100
6; Phase II
394
The elevator operator shall make precautionary stops every __ floors to test and confirm elevator is properly operating in Phase __ mode. Book 100
5; Phase II
395
Elevators after ________ must have a separate “Call Cancel” button for use by emergency personnel. Book 100
10/15/1985
396
Elevators installed since ____ are required to be recalled to the lobby. Book 100
1986
397
Buildings post ____ are required to employ a stairshaft ventilation system. Book 100
1974
398
Stairwell pressurization fans must provide not less than __ CFM while maintaining a positive pressure of not over __ lbs on interior doors. Book 100
50 CFM 25 lbs
399
Pressure generated by a fire can be up to __ times atmospheric pressure. Book 100
3
400
Pre-____ high rises are required to have openable windows. Book 100
1960
401
Post-1960 high rises are required to have tempered glass on at least __ sides of the building (At corners and at __ intervals or less). Book 100
2 sides 50'
402
Post-1974 high rises are required to have tempered glass on __ sides of the building (At corners and at __ intervals or less). Book 100
4; 50'
403
Tempered glass windows in high rises are identified by __” luminous or reflective decals in lower corner “For Fire Department Use”. Book 100
3"
404
Post-____, the requirement of smoke control systems in high rises eliminated requirement of the installation of tempered glass. Book 100
1996
405
For ventilation purposes, stairshafts can be placed into __ categories. Book 100
2 Open to interior only and provide roof access, open to exterior and provide roof access
406
407
Natural airflow within building stairshafts is virtually static in buildings up to __ stories. Buildings over __ stories will naturally flow minimal air in an upward direction. Book 100
25; 25
407
Pre-1960 firefighting systems consisted of __ things. Book 100
3
407
Natural air currents of ____ mph, can be created by simply opening a door at the bottom and roof of a stairshaft in a high rise. Book 100
3 to 6
407
Water turbine blowers produce significantly less noise and will provide more than __ times the CFM of air per minute that a like-sized gas blower. Book 100
2
407
High-rises after ____ are required to employ an emergency smoke control system comprised __ things. Book 100
1974; 3 Pressurize stairshaft, mechanical smoke removal system, and tempered glass or openable windows
407
There are __ types of water systems, depending on year of construction. Book 100
3
407
Cross ventilation operations are effective up to __ floors. More than __ may require additional blower in the pressurized stairshaft to supply additional air. Book 100
25; 25
407
There are __ types of standpipe systems. Book 100
4 Class I, II, III, and Combined
407
At a high rise, portable blowers should be placed ___ feet back from doorway and angled back at least __ degrees, regardless of size. Book 100
4 to 6 feet 5 degrees
408
Pre-1960 had a height limit of ___ or approximately __ stories due to threat of earthquakes. Book 100
150'; 13
409
Class I Standpipe Systems are found in __ types of buildings. Book 100
3 Pre-60 4+ stories 1960-1974 4+ stories and not exceeding 150' Post-1974, 4+ stories and not exceeding 150'
410
Dry Standpipe risers are __ diameter pipe depending on building height. Book 100
4-6"
411
Dry standpipe risers must flow ___ gpm per riser. Book 100
500
412
Dry standpipe risers will have __ 2-1/2" inlets at the FDC, depending on building height and if standpipes are interconnected. Book 100
2 to 4
413
Dry standpipe outlets are provided at every floor level and roof landing of required enclosed stairways, fire escapes, and smoke towers, except ___ floor. Book 100
1st
414
Dry standpipe outlets are based on requirement that every point within the structure must be reachable by a ___’ stream of water from a nozzle attached to ___’ of hose. Book 100
30' stream to 100' of hose
415
Pre-_____ outlets of Dry and Wet Standpipe Systems are straightaway gate or globe valves. Book 100
1960
416
Class II (wet) standpipe systems are required in buildings __ or more stories in height (__ or more after _____). Book 100
3; 4, 1983
417
Class II standpipe systems have __ outlets. Book 100
1-1/2"
418
Pre-1960 wet standpipe risers are ___ depending on height and year. Book 100
1-1/2" or 2-1/2"
419
Wet standpipe water flow requirements at roof outlets for: Pre-1948 1948-1959 1960-1970 1970-present
20 gpm @ 8 psi 35 gpm @ 12 psi 35 gpm @ 15 psi 35 gpm @ 30 psi
420
What year were height restrictions removed from buildings? Book 100
1960
421
After ____, standpipes were required in the stairshafts. Book 100
1960
422
Code changes in 1960 were broken down into requirements for buildings that did not exceed ____’ in height and those that exceeded ___’ in height. Book 100
150', 150'
423
Post-1960 under ___’ had same requirements as pre-1960 except that standpipes were required to be in the stairshafts instead of exterior. Book 100
150'
424
Buildings post-____ over ___ in height are required to have Combination Standpipe Systems. Book 100
1960; 150'
425
426
Combination standpipe system outlets are ____. Book 100
1-1/2" (2-1/2" with 1-1/2" reducer) with hose/nozzle for occupants and 2-1/2" outlets for Fire Department
427
2-1/2" outlets of combination standpipe systems may have 100' of single-jacketed, unlined 2-½” hose with a 1” tip attached to 2-½” outlets on each floor above the ___ floor (chart says ___ floor and above). Book 100
5th
428
Combination standpipe systems require __ separate sources of water. Book 100
2
429
For combination standpipe systems, since water is supplied from the domestic system, __ back flow (clapper) valves are required. Book 100
2
430
Combination standpipe risers are __ and must flow ____ per riser. Book 100
6"; 1000 gpm
431
At the __ floor and above, some 2-1/2" outlets of combination standpipe systems have 100' of 2-1/2" unlined, linen hose and a 1" straight stream tip, marked "Fire Department Use Only". Book 100
5th
431
Combination standpipe risers have a required flow of ___ gpm at each 2-1/2" outlet. Book 100
300
432
Combination standpipe outlets _______ over 150', the ____ outlets have globe valves with orifice plates. Book 100
1960-1974; 2-1/2" and 1-1/2"
432
Orifice plates in combination standpipe systems are calibrated to supply ___ gpm at __ psi through 100' of 2-1/2" hose with a 1" tip. Book 100
200 gpm; 45 psi
432
Combination standpipe risers will have __ inlets OR if there are 3 or more standpipes will have __ inlets. Book 100
4; 6
433
Combination standpipe outlets ______ under 150' are gate or globe valves. Book 100
1960-1974
434
On a 1-1/2" wet standpipe system as part of a combination standpipe system, if the static pressure on 1-1/2" outlet exceeds ___ psi, a pressure reducing valve must be installed to reduce nozzle pressure to __ psi. Book 100
70; 50
435
___ outlets are not required in combined sprinkler standpipe systems. Book 100
1-1/2"
435
To produce __ psi nozzle pressure through 100’ of 1-½” hose flowing __ gpm, requires ___ psi at the outlet. Book 100
50 psi 52 gpm 68.5 psi
436
In 1974, the ___ requirement for high-rise buildings was reduced to buildings over ___. Book 100
150' to 75'
437
High-rise definition: Any building over ___ in height measured to the floor of the top floor level designed for occupant use from the lowest level of Fire Department access. Book 100
75'
437
Buildings post-1974, over ___ in height, will have a Combined Sprinkler-Standpipe System, directly connected to a water supply and equipped with 2-½” outlets for use by Fire Department. Book 100
150'
438
In 1974 - Major change in Building Code required buildings over __’ to be fully sprinklered. Code still requires buildings over ___’ to have a Combination Standpipe System, and those that don’t exceed ___’ are only required to have a Dry Standpipe System (in the stairshafts). Adding the sprinkler requirement to these 2 requirements yields __ different configurations of buildings built after 1974. Book 100
75' 150' 150' 3
439
Combined sprinkler standpipes are required to flow ____ gpm per riser and have __ inlets (250 gpm each) or if 3 or more risers then __ inlets are required. Book 100
1000 gpm 4; 6
440
Combined sprinkler standpipes water supply may come from a looped system for economic reasons except during _____. Book 100
1983-1988
441
Exception to the “looping” requirement from 1983-1988 was due to City adopting the Uniform Building Code in ____. Book 100
1983
442
Buildings 1983-1988 will be found not looped and sprinklers supplied by only __ riser(s). Book 100
1
443
Buildings post 1974 exceeding ___’ have a Pressure Reducing Valve (PRV) system to reduce standpipe pressure to working pressure. Book 100
75'
444
Pre-set pressures on Pressure Regulating Devices are required to provide __ psi flowing ___ gpm. Book 100
80-125 psi 300 gpm
445
446
Tests have shown pressure only varies slightly when using ___ lines off a pressure regulating device outlet. Book 100
1 or 2
447
Post-1974 buildings over ___’, wet standpipe outlets with hose are not required provided there are 2-½” to 1-½” reducers with cap/chain on the 2-½” outlets. Book 100
75'
448
When more than __ standpipe is provided in buildings 75'-150' from 1974 to present, they shall be interconnected at the bottom. Book 100
1
449
Pressure Restricting Devices are found in buildings 75'-150', 1974 to present when static pressures are ___ psi. Book 100
135 to 150 psi
450
Beginning ____, new high-rises were required to have an on-site water supply to act as a safety in the event of an earthquake. Book 100
1974
451
For sprinklered buildings, 75’ to 150’, on-site water must supply calculated fire flow requirements of most demanding rectangular area of the building for ___ minutes, plus an additional ___ gpm for the total standpipe. Book 100
30 minutes; 100 gpm
452
Post-1974 buildings 150’ to 275’, on-site water is calculated on standpipe demand and sprinkler demand is ignored. Requirements are ___ gpm for 1st riser plus ___ gpm for each additional riser, for ___ minutes. Book 100
500 gpm 250 gpm 30 miniutes
453
Post-1974 buildings over 275', the minimum on-site water requirement is ______, and increases up to ______ max. Book 100
45,000 gallons 105,000 gallons
454
Code requires on-site water to be maintained automatically and requires __ methods to fill the tank. Book 100
2
455
1 method to fill on-site water tanks is a minimum __ diameter pipe to fill in not more than __ hours or after 1983 a __ pipe to fill in __ hours. Book 100
2" in 12 hours 6" in 8 hours
456
Buildings less than 75', 1974 to present have the same requirements as buildings under ___ from _____ to ____. Book 100
150' 1960 to 1974
457
Buildings under construction __ or more stories shall have not less than __ standpipe for use during construction and shall be installed when progress is not more than ___’ in height above grade. Book 100
6; 1; 50'
458
For buildings under construction, where height requires installation of a Combination Standpipe (exceeds ___’ in height), fire pumps and water main connections shall be provided to serve the standpipe including temporary inlets, normally _____. Book 100
150' 2" to 2-1/2"
459
For buildings under construction, where height requires installation of a combination standpipe, up to ___ this will be a dry standpipe, once it exceeds that height, a temporary manually started fire pump shall be installed. Book 100
150'
460
Standpipes for buildings under construction shall be extended as construction progresses to within __ floor(s) of the highest point having secure decking or flooring. Book 100
1
461
Purpose of fire pump test valves is to permit a periodic test of the building fire pump which is required to pump ___% of its rated capacity. Book 100
150%
462
A vertical shaft turbine pump is a centrifugal pump with __ or more impellers discharging into __ or more bowls. Book 100
1; 1
462
Pressure maintenance pumps should be sized to make up the allowable hourly leakage rate within __ minutes or __ gpm, whichever is larger. Book 100
10 minutes; 1 gpm
462
Jockey pump should be set to operate at a pressure of __ psi higher than main pump starting pressure. Book 100
5-10 psi
462
Emergency power was not required in buildings between _____. Book 100
1960-1974
462
Prior to 1974 there was generally only __ fire pump. Book 100
1 electrical
462
Since 1974, buildings over 275' are required to have __ fire pump(s), __ electric and __ diesel. Book 100
3; 1 electric & 2 diesel
462
Each diesel fire pump engine shall be provided with __ storage battery units. Each shall have the capacity to maintain cranking speed throughout a __-minute cycle (ie 15 seconds crank, 15 seconds rest, in ___ consecutive cycles). Book 100
2; 12-minute 6
463
Diesel engine overspeed shutdown devices shall shut down the engine at a speed approximately ___% above rated engine speed and must be manually reset after overspeed shutdown. Book 100
20%
463
Diesel engine governors must be capable of regulating the engine speed within a range of ___% between shutoff and maximum load condition of the pump. Book 100
10%
464
Diesel engine fuel supply shall be a minimum __-hour for new high-rises post 1974 and __-hour for existing high rise 1960-1974. Book 100
8-hour 4-hour
465
Policy in LA is STOP pressure __ psi below system pressure and START __ psi below system pressure. Book 100
10 psi; 50 psi
466
Run-out timers for fire pumps is normally set for ___ minutes for electric and ___ minutes for diesel pumps. Book 100
7-10 minutes 30 minutes
467
4-position selector switch on engine drive controllers has __ manual start push buttons for manually cranking the engine. Book 100
2
468
Overcrank lamp on a fire pump engine controller: If engine fails to start at end of __ crank attempts (__ 15-second crank periods separated by __ 15-second rest periods) the overcrank lamp will be lit and alarm will sound. Book 100
6; 6; 5
469
Fire pump engine drive controller loss of ___ volts results in loss of charger output. Book 100
115
470
Engine drive controllers on fire pumps have __ green lights. Book 100
3
471
For sequential starting of fire pumps, if water requirements call for more than 1 pumping unit to operate, units shall start at intervals of __ seconds. If pressure in system stays at START pressure for ___ seconds, then 2nd pump will start, if stays there for ___ seconds the 3rd pump will start. Book 100
5 to 10 seconds; 4 to 6 seconds; 6 to 8 seconds
472
The automatic transfer switch on fire pumps has __ pilot lights. Book 100
2
473
Acceptance test for fire pump controllers shall perform not less than __ automatic and __ manual operations during the acceptance test and shall be operated for a period of at least __ minutes at full speed during each of the tests. Book 100
10; 10; 5
474
For annual tests of fire pump assembly, pumps required to pump ___% of rated capacity and at a pressure of not less than ___% of its rated pressure for a minimum of ___ minutes. Book 100
150% 65% 15 minutes
475
476
Vane type water flow switches minimum flow rate for alarm is ___ gpm (equal to __ sprinkler head) and operates in __ seconds. Book 100
4 to 10 gpm; 1; 20 to 60 seconds
477
Vane type water flow switches have an automatic retard to prevent false alarms and is adjustable from __ to approximately __ seconds. Book 100
0 to 90
478
Vane type water flow switches have __ switches. Book 100
2
479
Valve tamper switches will activate within __ turns when valve is operated from full open towards closed position. Book 100
2
480
Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program was created in ____ to amend LA Building Code, its purpose directed toward upgrading fire and life safety systems in “existing” nonresidential high-rise buildings, referring to structures over ___’ constructed prior to July ____ (office, industrial, or commercial type buildings). Book 100
1988; 75'; 1974
481
Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program requires upgrades such as fully sprinklered and have a firefighting water system to at least __ stairwell. Book 100
1
482
___ buildings in LA that were affected by this 1988 Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program, __ were granted a variance. Book 100
356; 40
483
Selected buildings to remain vacant above the 1st floor may be exempt from compliance and could be given extensions of up to __ years for the Commercial High-Rise Sprinkler Retrofit Program. Book 100
11
484
In completed retrofit buildings, __ types of PRVs that firefighters will come in contact with. Book 100
2
485
High-Rise Unit of FPB limits duration of time a portion of a system can be taken out of service (between ___ hours). Book 100
4 to 6 hours
486
There are over __ elevator manufacturers. Book 29
60
487
There are __ types of elevators. Book 29
2
488
Drum type cable elevators consists of a car attached to __ or more cables that pass around a winding drum to a moving counterweight. Book 29
1
489
There are __ types of traction equipment on traction elevators. Book 29
2 High speed direct traction/gearless type traction AND geared traction type
490
Drum type cable elevators are restricting to ___' lifts and slow speeds due to limitations in the length/diameter of the winding drum. Book 29
150'
491
Hydraulic elevators are generally limited to __-story buildings. Some less modern hydraulic elevators may travel over __ stories using cables and counterweights. Book 29
6; 6
492
Equipment room for hydraulic elevators is normally located at the lower level of a building but can be at any floor or ___ feet away from the elevator shaft. Book 29
50 to 100 feet
493
Freight elevators can be as large as ____ and have a carrying capacity of up to __ tons. Book 29
12' x 14' 3 tons
494
Modern elevators use __ sets of door for operation and passenger ingress/egress. Book 29
2
495
Gib blocks are __" wide x __" high x __" thick and installed every __". Book 29
3" x 1" x 1/2" 18"
496
A centrifugal force governor is provided on most elevators to guard against overspeeding (when a car travels in excess of __% of top speed, governor will activate a safety stop device). Book 29
20%
497
For elevator rescues, turn off power for a least __ seconds and then back on again. Book 29
30
498
On hydraulic (and some cable), hoistway doors will open if elevator is __” above or below floor level. Book 29
6"
499
On some cable elevators, hoistway door will open if elevator is __” above or below floor level. Book 29
18"
500
Hydraulic elevators generally have __ valves. Book 29
3 1 to raise, 1 to lower, and 1 that will level the car to a floor landing
501
Discontinue bleeding hydraulic fluid from a hydraulic elevator by rotating valve clockwise until seated when car is level or within __” of floor landing. Book 29
6"
502
For lowering cable elevators, __ member(s) should be on the floor where passengers will be removed and __ member(s) in equipment room with __ claw tools and a pipe wrench (or large channel locks). Book 29
1; 2; 2
503
When a lowering a cable elevator car, once it is level or within __" of the floor landing, discontinue rotation of the shaft. Book 29
18"
504
Side emergency exits on elevators are usually at least __" wide and __' high, will open inward, and are either hinged or removable. Book 29
16" x 5'
505
Elevator access panels from blind floors may be every __ floor(s) or __' apart. Book 29
3; 80'
506
As a result of Sylmar and Northridge earthquakes, over ____ elevators were put out of service. Book 29
1,000
507
An escalator traveling between ___ feet per minute can carry as many as ____ passengers per hour. Book 29
90 to 120 FPM 5,000
508
The blind section is the part of an elevator shaft that for __ or more consecutive floors has no hoistway doors to access the floors. Book 29
3
509
All cable elevators are counterbalanced and hydraulic elevators over __ stories need to be counterbalanced as well. Book 29
6
510
An express elevator has no hoistway doors to access __ or more consecutive floors. Book 29
3
511
The pick-up arm clutch, vane, cam, or bayonet is located on the hoistway door and actuates a door roller that operates a door latch. They are generally __" long on hydraulic elevators and __" long on cable elevators. Book 29
14" 36"
512
Total loss due to a structure fire is a result of __ factor(s). Book 100
2 Direct and indirect loss
513
A 2" line at 200 gpm adds nearly ____ lbs per minute of weight to a structure. Book 100
1,670
514
A 2-1/2" line at 325 gpm adds nearly ____ pounds per minute of weight to a structure. Book 100
2,800
515
Skyline Elevator Rescue Kit consists of __ components. TB 111
4 Skyline Elevator pick bag Equipment room bag Step stool Skyline pole
516
Elevator pick bag consists of __ items. TB 111
13 Side Picks - Small, Medium, Large Top Picks - Standard, Thin, Tall Kone Picks - Left, Center, Right, Hook ThyssenKrupp Pick Otis Rake Pick Bi-parting Freight Pick Elevator Rescue Paddle 1 Klein screwdriver with ⅜” tip and 8” shank Pelican flashlight 3410M 2 door wedges (red) 2 Stratton wedges (black) 2 pieces of salvage cord 3 AA batteries
517
When picking above the elevator car, it is necessary for __ member(s) to remain at the floor level the car is stalled on. TB 111
1
518
Side picks are most commonly used on __ manufacturers. TB 111
6 GAL, Mitsubishi with linkage, Old Otis, Otis with linkage, Fujitec, and Westinghouse door locks
519
Old Otis interlock is located at the top portion of the hoistway door. Pickup rollers are usually located ____ from the leading edge of the door. On center opening doors, the pickup rollers are located ____ from the center-opening split of the doors. TB 111
8"-12" 8"-12"
520
Top picks are used with __ manufacturers. TB 111
6 GAL, Schindler, Mitsubishi w/o linkage, Dover, older ThyssenKrupp with no plate, and some Westinghouse door locks
521
The kone pick may enter the interlock box which has up to ___ volts AC when energized. TB 111
230
522
On ThyssenKrupp elevators, there is a small slot in the plate which is located approximately ___ from the leading edge of the door. TB 111
3" to 4"
523
Elevator rescue paddle consists of __ parts. TB 111
3 Handle, shaft, paddle
524
Elevator equipment room bag consists of __ items. TB 111
13 14” Pro Tool Bag Milwaukee 18” aluminum pipe wrench Crescent 16” tongue and groove pliers 2 pairs of gloves Pelican flashlight 3410M Zak tool (shove knife) Pry tool (EOD robotics) Klein 5-in-1 multi-bit screwdriver 2 Stratton wedges (black) 2 master locks w/ keys 2 Lockout Hasp 1-½” OSHA Lockout tags “Do Not Operate” tags
525
Skyline pole bag consists of __ items. TB 111
6 Pole Bag 4’-8’ extension poling tool 4’ poling tool Skyline Pole hook Pelican 1910 flashlight AAA batteries
526
Poling an elevator can be accomplished in __ ways. TB 111
3 Poling across, down, or up
527
When poling an elevator car, if the car floor is greater than __' above or below the landing it may be necessary to use alternate evacuation procedures or a roof top exit to remove entrapped occupants. TB 111
3'
528
The elevator rescue kit step stool may hold up to ___ lbs. TB 111
300
529
To clean the Skyline ERK bag, machine room, bag, and pole bag, mix __ of mild laundry detergent or non-antibacterial dish soap in a spray bottle. TB 111
2 TBSP
530
Elevator equipment room bag consists of a __" pro tool bag, __" Milwaukee aluminum pipe wrench, and __" Crescent tongue and groove pliers. TB 111
14" 18" 16"
531
Klein screwdriver in the Elevator Pick bag has a __" tip and __" shank. TB 111
3/8" tip 8" shank
532
Air bags have __ benefits. Volume 3
3 speed of deployment, ease of operation, and rated lifting capacity
533
There are __ air bag systems in use. __ bag rated at __ tons and __ bag rated at __ tons. Volume 3
2 3 bag @ 56-ton 7 bag @ 236-ton
534
What size bags are in the 56-ton airbag system? Volume 3
(1) 12-ton, (2) 22-ton
535
When using the battering ram on a brick wall, remove __ brick(s) with a pickhead axe or other tool. Then use forked end to remove rest of bricks, giving a slight lifting motion as it strikes the brick. Remove __ at a time, starting just below the first brick removed and working downward. Hole should be diamond shaped so not to excessively weaken the wall. Volume 3
1; 1
535
What size are bags are in the 236-ton airbag system? Volume 3
(1) bag each of 12, 17, 22, 32, 35, 44, 74
536
Pickhead axe should strike wood with an angle of about __ degrees between side of axe had and surface being cut. Volume 3
60
537
What size is the aluminized ceramic blanket? Volume 3
6' x 8'
538
There are __ types of blowers, __" and __". Volume 3
2; 18" and 24"
538
The hoe edge of the Mcloud should be kept sharp, maintaining a straight cutting surface with a level edge of approximately __ degrees. Volume 3
45
538
Floor runner is __' x __' waterproof cotton duck, found folded to a __' width and rolled. Volume 3
6' x 18' 3'
539
When using the brush hook, cut the main stem of brush at about a __ degree angle. Volume 3
45
539
The head of a Pulaski is a single unit with __ axe blade(s) and __ grubbing hoe blade(s). Volume 3
1; 1
539
Main cutting edge of the brush hook can be used to cut branches up to __" in diameter. Volume 3
3"
540
Light cord are __' long. Volume 3
50'
540
What sizes does the claw tool (hayward) come in? Volume 3
30" and 42"
540
When positioning a chock block next to a tire, keep __ hand(s) on the apparatus so that any movement of the rig can be felt. Volume 3
1
541
Canteens come in what sizes? Volume 3
1 and 2 quarts
542
Quarts light is a ___ watt unit mounted on a telescopic tripod or aerial ladder. Volume 3
500
542
Mattress carrier is ___' x ___'. Volume 3
6-1/2' x 9-1/2'
542
Hose sling consists of __ snap hook(s) that lock automatically. Volume 3
2
543
Hydrolator is a tool with ___" male threads use to release standpipe clapper valves. Volume 3
2-1/2"
544
Pneumatic power chisel can cut through ___" mild steel plate, mild steel bolts __" in diameter, and various thicknesses of sheet metal. Volume 3
1-1/4" 3/4"
545
Portable generator is used to furnish power for ___ volt lights and there are various models ranging up to ____ watts. Volume 3
110 volt 3500 watts
546
Portable (handheld) radio is __ watt, __ channel microprocessor that operates in the ___ MHz frequency band and programmed with __ fire department channels. Volume 3
3 watt 40 channel 800 MHz 18 channels
547
Redwood plug tapered to less than __" at the tip may be used to plug sprinkler heads and small diameter tubing. Volume 3
1/2"
548
Rescue air cushion is made of nylon/plastic and designed to rescue people from heights up to ___'. Volume 3
100'
549
The size of rescue air cushion for up to 70' is __' x __' x __' and for up to 100' is __' x __' x __'. Volume 3
15' x 20' x 8' 18' x 25' x 9'
550
Rescue air cushion is inflated by __ high volume electric blowers. Volume 3
2
551
Rescue air cushion can be deployed by a Task Force in __ minutes. Volume 3
2
552
Rubber gauntlet gloves are exchanged and tested with _____ volts of electricity every __ days by DWP. Volume 3
10,000 volts 60 days
553
Rubbish carriers are ___' square. Volume 3
4-1/2'
554
There are __ types of salvage covers, __' x __' in size. Volume 3
2: rubber-coated cotton duck and lightweight plastic coated nylon 12' x 18'
555
Salvage hooks are heavy gauge wire preformed into the basic shape of the number __. Volume 3
2
556
Salvage pan is ___" x __" x __". Volume 3
32-1/2" x 18" x 5"
557
How many handsaws are in a set? Volume 3
3 crosscut saw, plumber's saw, and hacksaw
558
Chainsaw should be operated by __ members (except during starting). Volume 3
2
559
What are the models of rotary saw? Volume 3
K-950 and K-1200
560
Rotary saw uses __ types of blades in __ sizes: Abrasive metal: Abrasive masonry: Carbide tip wood: Dry cutting diamond: Volume 3
4; 2 Abrasive metal 12"/14" Abrasive masonry 12"/14" Carbide 12"/14" Diamond 14"
561
Sprinklers vary in temperature rating with the average being ___ degrees. Volume 3
165
562
Shultz shut-off can be used in __ methods. Volume 3
2
563
There are __ types of squeegees, __" curved used only to push and __" straight to push or pull. Volume 3
2; 36" 24"
564
There are __ type(s) of staple gun. Volume 3
2 squeeze and hammer
565
Nylon straps are __" wide. Volume 3
1"
566
Submersible pump has ___" male hose connections at both ends. Volume 3
1-1/2"
567
Submersible pump shall not be operated from a portable generator of less than ____ watts due to starting current requirements. Volume 3
2500
567
Submersible pump has a ____ increaser with ___" elbow to permit use of a larger discharge line. Volume 3
1-1/2" to 2-1/2" increaser 2-1/2" elbow
568
Light water is a synthetic foam forming liquid designed to be used at a ratio of __ parts concentrate to __ parts fresh or seawater (__% solution). Volume 3
6; 94 6%
569
Light water is more than __ times as effective as protein type foams on open surface gasoline fires. Volume 3
3
569
__ wooden wedges may be used to temporarily plug fused sprinkler heads. Volume 3
2
570
What size tips are provided with the 2-1/2" portable monitor?
1-1/2", 1-3/4", and 2"
571
Wet water anti-siphon sprayer metering disk is normally set at #__ and approximately __ psi supplied to the sprayer. Volume 3
#1 40 psi
572
For the 2-1/2" portable monitor, normally (1) __" line is connected to a ____ gated wye and then (2) ___" lines with shut-offs are connected to the monitor's intake manifold. Volume 3
4" line 4" to 2-1/2" wye 2-1/2" lines
573
2-1/2" portable monitor main body has __ packing at joints, inlet has __ swivel females with clapper valves, and platform has __ parts hinged. Volume 3
3; 3; 3
574
Lightight manifold inlet of 2-1/2" portable monitor has __ swivel females with clapper valves and horizontal rotation is ___ degrees. Volume 3
2; 360
575
Wagon battery is generally provided with tips ranging from ___" to ___". Volume 3
1-1/2" to 2"
576
Apparatus should be spotted a sufficient distance away to permit the wagon battery stream to enter the building at approximately a __ degree angle. Above the ___ floor this is impractical and effectiveness decreases beyond this point. Volume 3
30 degree 3rd floor
577
Ladder pipe assembly contains a ___" in-line shut-off, __" gate valve shut-off cluster, ___" stream straightener, smooth bore nozzles, and a turbo master spray nozzle (____ gpm). Volume 3
2-1/2" 4" 2-1/2" 1000 gpm
578
The 2-1/2" Bresnan distributor is of the revolving type, designed to throw water __ feet in diameter, has __ orifices, and will supply ___ to ___ gpm. Volume 3
30 feet 9 orifices 600 to 800 gpm
579
Smooth bore nozzle sides for the ladder pipe assembly are ___, ___, ___. Volume 3
1-1/2", 1-3/4", and 2"
580
The 3 sizes of siphon ejectors are ___, ___, ___. Volume 3
2-1/2", 1-1/2", and 1"
581
Water gun has a capacity of ___ gallons, tank is maintained under air pressure __ to ___ psi, and to refill, release all pressure by holding upside down and opening valve, unscrew threaded ring __ turn(s), gently break seal by rocking handle. Volume 3
2-1/2 gallons 90-110 psi 2 turns
582
Carbon dioxide extinguisher is pressurized to ___ pounds, has a safety disk which will rupture if subjected to continued temperature exceeding ___ F, has a net content of __ lbs, a discharge time of approximately __ seconds, and shall be recharged when contents have been reduced to __ lbs or less. Volume 3
800-900 psi 135 F 20 lbs 60 seconds 15 lbs
583
Carbon dioxide is ___ times as heavy as air. Volume 3
1-1/2
584
Carbon dioxide liquid changes to gas with an expansion ratio of ____. Volume 3
450:1
585
Dry chemical extinguisher discharges __ lbs of dry chemical, is approximately __ times as effective as CO2 on hydrocarbon fires, and discharge time with valve fully open is __ seconds. Volume 3
20 lbs 2 times 10 seconds
586
Dry powder extinguisher has a net capacity of __ lbs. Volume 3
20
587
What sizes of caps (fittings) are there on the LAFD? Volume 3
4" cap with winged lugs 2-1/2", 1-1/2", 1"
588
What sizes of double female fittings are there? Volume 3
1”, 1-½”, 2-½”, 2-½” x 4”, and 4”
589
What sizes of double male fittings are there? Volume 3
1”, 1-½”, 2-½”, and 4”
590
What sizes of increasers are there? Volume 3
¾” to 1”, 1” to 1-½”, 1-½” to 2-½” and 2-½” to 4”
591
What sizes of plug fittings are there? Volume 3
2-1/2" and 4"
591
What sizes of reducers are there? Volume 3
1” to ¾”, 1-½” to ¾”, 1-½” to 1”, 2-½” to 1-½”, and 4” to 2-½”
592
A wye is any fitting with __ connection(s) with female threads and __ connection(s) with male threads. Volume 3
1; 2
592
A siamese fitting has __ or more connections having female threads and __ connection having male threads. Used to merge __ or more lines into __ line. Current size in use is ___". Volume 3
2; 1 2; 1 2-1/2"
593
What sizes of wyes are there? Volume 3
1” to 1”, 1-½” to 1”, 1-½” to 1-½”, 2-½” to 1-½”, 2-½” to 2-½” and 4” to 2-½”
594
Flat stretcher can aid in transportation of more than __ patient(s) in an ambulance. Volume 3
1
595
There are __ types of nozzles. Volume 3
2 straight stream and spray
596
What sizes of straight stream nozzles are there? Volume 3
2", 1-1/4", 1-1/8", 1"
597
What sizes of spray nozzles are there? Volume 3
2", 1-1/2", 1", garden hose
598
What sizes of shut-off butts are there? Volume 3
2", 1-1/2", 1"
599
According to Volume 3, you should connect the 4-way valve to the ___" outlet on a hydrant if available. Volume 3
2-1/2"
600
According to Volume 3, all connections of the 4-way valve have standard __" hose threads.
2"
601
The pressure-reducing valve comes in __ sizes: ___ & ___. Volume 3
2; 2-1/2" and 3-1/2"
602
The knob controls on the pressure reducing valve are graduated from __ to ___ in __ psi increments. Volume 3
0 to 300 in 20 psi increments
603
To lubricate the pressure-reducing valve, remove the oil plug and place ___ drop(s) of engine oil in the oil hole. Volume 3
4-5
604
The Gastech and MSA Tri-Testers are used to test for Hydrogen Sulfide in ____, oxygen deficient atmospheres from ____% and lower explosive limits (LEL) of a combustible atmosphere from ____%. Volume 3
ppm; 0-30% 0-100%
605
Chlorine cylinder patch kit sizes are: A = B = C = Volume 3
A for 100 and 150 lb cylinders B for 1-ton containers C for railroad cars and tank trucks
606
The decontamination solutions kit contains __ chemical solutions to use with water to neutralize chemical contamination due to exposure to hazardous materials. Volume 3
5
606
The tanker drilling kit includes an air drill with ____" bit, grounding cables, cribbing, redwood plugs, hose couplers, and the __’ diameter __’ stinger. Volume 3
3-1/2" 3' diameter 8' stinger
607
Entry team members on Haz Mat incidents wear a minimum of __ layers of gloves. Volume 3
1st: Latex 2nd: Viton or butyl 3rd: Nitrite or equivalent
608
A PBI knit aluminized glove is used as the __ glove when wearing a flash suit in flammable atmospheres by Haz Mat teams. Volume 3
4th
609
The hazardous materials jumpsuits (red) are ___% Nomex. Volume 3
100%
610
The CAMEO system used by Haz Mat Companies has __ important modules, one of which will search through over ____ chemicals for a match on partial information. Volume 3
3: Code Breaker, Response Information, and ALOHA 2,500 chemicals
611
Ropes (lines) are made of synthetic fibers, range in size from __" to __" in diameter and in lengths to ___’. Volume 3
1/4" to 3/4" 300'
612
A long prusik is __' long and a short prusik is __' long. Volume 3
6' 5'
613
Anchor strap is __" x __'. Volume 3
2" x 7'
614
Engine companies carry __ size large harness(es) and __ small medium harness(es). Volume 3
2; 0
615
Truck companies carry __ size large harness(es) and __ small medium harness(es). Volume 3
2; 1
616
There are __ types of rear strap supports on harnesses. Volume 3
2 1 with a “D” ring for fall protection and 1 with just back support
617
Brake bar rack has __ aluminum bars and welded eye is rated to _____ lbs. Volume 3
6; 10,000
617
Picket ratings for: Single picket 1-1 1-1-1 2-1 3-2-1 Volume 3
700 lbs 1400 lbs 1800 lbs 2000 lbs 4000 lbs
617
Steel "D" shaped carabiners are rated at ____ lbs. Volume 3
9,000
618
For rappelling or lowering operations over __' a brake bar rack should be used due to twisting of the rope. Volume 3
75'
619
Lifeline rope is rated at _____ lbs and weighs __ lbs per 100'. Volume 3
10,000 lbs 7 lbs
619
On a brake bar rack, start with __ bars for a single person load and __ bars for a 2-person load. Volume 3
4; 5
620
Minimum number of bars on a brake bar rack for any operation is __. Volume 3
3
621
Abrasion guards are __" long. Volume 3
18"
621
To tie-off a brake bar rack, wrap __ times over yoke and through brake bar rack pulling bars together, then tie off with __ half-hitch(es) in front of brake bar rack. Volume 2
2; 2
621
Pickets should be __’ in length, __" round steel stock, pounded __' into the ground at a __ degree angle away from the object. Volume 3
3' 1" 2' 15 degree
622
High strength core (kern) can carry up to __% of the load with cover (mantle) designed primarily for protection against abrasion. Volume 3
90%
623
Various widths of webbing range from __" to __". Volume 3
1/2" to 2"
623
NFPA safety factor for ropes is __, resulting in a ___ lbs working load, exceeding the NFPA standard of ___ lbs. Volume 3
15; 666; 600
623
Accessory cord is __ mm and rated at ____ lbs. Volume 3
8; 3,630 lbs
624
NFPA ____ is the standard for 1 and 2 person rescues. Volume 3
1995
624
LAFD webbing is __” spiral weaved tubular and folded over flat webbing rated at ____ lbs. Volume 3
1" 4,000 lbs
624
KM-III rope has a melting point of ___ F. Volume 3
450 F
625
To tie a load releasing hitch, start with an overhand knot, leaving a __" tail. There should be a __" to __" space between carabiners, __ to __ wraps around the line, and __ lines require tightening at the end. Volume 3
2" 4" to 5" 3 to 6 wraps 6 lines
626
Knot efficiency of an eye splice is __%. Volume 3
10%
626
Drop line is ___' of ___" Dacron braided line with a snap device attached to 1 end. Volume 3
150' 5/16"
626
Equipment line is ___' of __" diameter rope with a factory eye splice on 1 end and a crown split or whipping on the other end. It has a _____ lb breaking strength and working load is ____ lbs. Volume 3
150' of 5/8" diameter 13,000 lb 2,600 lbs
627
The outer jacket of equipment line is multiplex polyester fiber (Dacron) within which __% of the strands are blue. Volume 3
25%
627
Equipment line has a double braid construction has inner core of braided polyester which carries __% of the load. Volume 3
80%
627
20' extension ladder uses a __" halyard and 35' extension ladder uses a __" halyard. Volume 3
3/8" 5/8"
628
Knot efficiency of a square knot is __%. Volume 3
50%
628
Knot efficiency of a timber hitch and half hitch is __%. Volume 3
35%
629
Knot efficiency of an overhand knot is __%. Volume 3
55%
630
Knot efficiency of a bowline and clove hitch is __%. Volume 3
40%
630
For safety, a completed knot should have a minimum __” tail. Volume 3
18"
631
To bring an empty hose line up, a timber hitch should be tied __’ back of the nozzle. Volume 3
6'
632
To bring an empty hose line down, a timber hitch should be tied __’ back of the nozzle and a half hitch behind the nozzle and around the nozzle tip. Volume 3
6'
632
To bring a loaded line up, a running bowline should be tied __’ back of the nozzle, a half hitch __’ back of the nozzle, and a half hitch __” back of the nozzle. Volume 3
12' 6' 6"
633
To raise a roof ladder, same as other ladders except wraps around both beams are taken below the ___ rung from the top; secure bitter end to running line with a bowline knot and place half hitch over the open hooks. Volume 3
3rd
634
To bring a loaded line down, a running bowline should be tied __’ back of the nozzle, a half hitch __’ back of the nozzle, a half hitch __" back of the nozzle, and a half hitch around the nozzle tip. Volume 3
12' 6' 6"
634
To raise a ladder, with the rungs down, take a warp around each beam below the proper rung, secure bitter end of the running line with a bowline knot. To determine proper rung, divide the length of the ladder by __ and multiply by __. Volume 3
5; 2
635
1 of the 2 alternate methods of sending small lines aloft involves grasping the dropline, making a loop approximately __", and making an overhand knot. Then run the loop through the bale of the shut-off, then put the loop over the nozzle tip. Volume 3
12"
636
Bangor ladder knot consists of __ half hitches with a bight tied on the ___ or most convenient rung. The 2nd half hitch also secures the hanging part of the halyard. Volume 3
2; 4th
637
638
When raising small hand lines aloft in multi-storied structures (up to ___ floor), the most practical method is use of dropbag lines. To attach the dropline to the hose, use a loop formed from a bight in the running line. The loop is then placed over the hose ___" behind the nozzle. Volume 3
5th 12" to 18"
638
638
638
PREVIOUS LAFD policy states elevators shall not be used until it is determined that entire shaft is not threatened by fire, the exception being buildings with splint banks of elevators, which may be used if highest floor served by the elevator shaft terminates a minimum of __ floors below the reported fire floor. TB 140
5
638
Elevator Emergency Service is divided into __ phases. TB 140
2 "Recall Phase" & "Override Phase"
639
Elevators shall not be taken closer than __ floors below reported fire floor or __ floors below lowest indicated alarm floor location. TB 140
2; 2
639
If building has split bank elevators, do not use an elevator that services the fire floor if a lower bank reaches within __ floors of fire floor. TB 140
5
640
All lobby openings for elevator doors shall be protected with __ minute automatic-closing fire assemblies with magnetic hold-open devices for door closure actuated by any initiating device located on the floor. TB 140
45
640
Fire attack team shall consist of a minimum of __ members. TB 140
4
640
No more than __ personnel with equipment shall be permitted in any 1 elevator at a time to prevent exceeding weight capacity. TB 140
6
640
When selecting the desired floor of termination, select a minimum of __ additional floors, for precautionary checks, below the designated exit floor. If determined elevator will be used for ascent, precautionary stops shall be made every __ floors in order to test and confirm elevator is properly operating in Phase II as designed. TB 140
2; 5
640
Transitional Attack should be considered with fire or high velocity turbulent smoke indicative of imminent flashover presenting from any door or window with consideration given to __ things. TB 164
5 1. Fire conditions at the point of access make it unsafe to enter 2. Entry is delayed by forcible entry challenges 3. Ventilation is delayed or non-existent 4. Water supply is delayed or insufficient 5. Excessive storage or packrat conditions
640
Salvage operations include __ things. Volume 3
8 1. Placing of waterproof covers and/or plastic to protect stock, furniture, fixtures, and machinery from water and debris 2. Use of waterproof covers and/or plastic to “bag” floors to retain water 3. Diverting and removing water from a building 4. Controlling the flow of water from sprinkler systems 5. Moving contents where it is not possible to provide protection within the affected area 6. Placing of blowers and/or using built-in ventilating systems to remove smoke 7. Drying machinery, furniture, stock, etc 8. Providing temporary covering for roofs or other openings to protect contents and interior of buildings from the elements
640
When folding a salvage cover, start with the finished side up and fold to __ of its full width. Then fold end in approximately __" and repeat. Volume 3
1/4 8-10"
640
When carrying 2 salvage covers at the same time, the ___ cover is most easily carried on the forearm and hip opposite the shoulder being used. Volume 3
2nd
640
For a 1-Member Throw of a salvage cover, with palm down, reach in with right hand next to body and grasp __ top folds. Volume 3
3 or 4
641
When sealing floors with salvage covers, a __’ minimum lap up walls should be considered. Volume 3
1'
642
There are __ most common configurations of window drains. Volume 3
2 Window Drain with Ladder Pike Pole Drain
643
According to Volume 3, high pressure air up to ____ psi is reduced down to breathable pressure. Volume 3
5000
643
SCBA consists of __ major component groups. Volume 3
10
643
SCBA backpack has __ integrated carrying handles with carabiner attachment points rated at ____ lbs. Volume 3
3; 1000
643
SCBA backpack is designed to transfer __% of the load to the hips. Volume 3
60%
644
SCBA harness and cylinder weigh approximately ___ lbs. Volume 3
30.25
644
SCBA backpack uses __ Duracell "C" batteries. Volume 3
4
644
On the SCBA, an amber LED flash every __ seconds indicates a good battery and every __ seconds indicates a low battery. Volume 3
10; 2
645
SCBA air cylinder has a max working pressure of ____ psi. Volume 3
4,500
646
SCBA cylinder pressure gauge is graduated in ____ psi increments from __ to ____ psi and a full bottle range is _____ psi. Volume 3
1000; 0 to 6000; 4000 to 5000
646
45 minute air cylinder has ____ cubic feet of air and 60 minute air cylinder has ___ cubic feet of air. Volume 3
65.6; 87
647
SCBA bottle minute rating is based on breathing __ liters per minute. Volume 3
40
648
SCBA air cylinder is hydrostatically tested every __ years. Volume 3
5
648
"LFD" indicator is on __" luminescent band on air cylinders. Volume 3
2"
648
1st stage regulator lowers cylinder air pressure to a nominal ___ psi and has a relief valve that actuates when pressure exceeds ____ psi. Volume 3
115; 200 to 225
648
Low pressure SCBA audible alarm activates at ____ psi and continues to sound until air pressure drops below ___ psi. Volume 3
1035 to 1215; 200
648
When air cylinder pressure reaches below __% of capacity, LED representing __ started to flash for approximately __ seconds. Volume 3
50% 1/2 20
649
The SCBA has __ battery status indicators. Volume 3
3; HUD bottom right, backpack top right, and PASS device
649
Depress the red "ALARM" button on the SCBA PASS device for __ sec to put into full alert. Volume 3
1-2
650
Lack of movement for __ seconds will activate the staged alarm, with volume increasing every __ seconds with full alarm at ___ seconds. Volume 3
20; 5; 30 to 45
651
Minimum decibel requirement for the SCBA PASS device is __ decibels, Warrior provides ___ in full alarm. Volume 3
95; 97 to 103
652
Buddy breather is a __" intermediate pressure hose. Volume 3
39"
653
On the VAS, __ push of the button is push to talk and __ consecutive depressions yields hands free continuous use. Another __ depressions turns the VAS off. Volume 3
1; 2; 2
654
VAS requires __ AAA batteries. Volume 3
3
655
Escape filter cartridge can be used for up to __ minutes and is "one time use only". Volume 3
15
656
During SCBA daily checks, the air pressure gauge on each side of the air cylinder should be within ___ psi of each other. Volume 3
500
657
When SCBA is in storage, amber LED on backpack and PASS will flash once every __ seconds to indicate a usable battery condition. Volume 3
10
658
Disinfect the SCBA facepiece in a warm suitable sanitizing solution, such as hypochlorite with __ TBSP of chlorine bleach per gallon of water for ___ minutes. Volume 3
2; 2 to 3
659
There are __ classifications of ladders. Volume 3
4 Extension, straight, roof, collapsible
660
What sizes of extension ladders are there? Volume 3
12, 14, 20, 35
661
What sizes of straight ladders are there? Volume 3
16, 20, 24
662
What sizes of roof ladders are there? Volume 3
10, 12, 14, 16, 20
663
What sizes are the 1-member straight and extension ladders? Volume 3
10, 12, 14, 16
663
What sizes of collapsible ladders are there? Volume 3
10'
664
What sizes are the 2-member straight and extension ladders? Volume 3
20 & 24
665
What sizes are the 3-member straight and extension ladders? Volume 3
35
666
What sizes are the 2-member roof ladders? Volume 3
10, 12, 14
667
What sizes are the 3-member roof ladders? Volume 3
16, 20
668
Ladders should be inspected periodically and after use for __ things. Volume 3
5 1. Marred, worn, cracked or splintered parts 2. Shoes worn smooth 3. Worn, frayed, or loose halyards 4. Loose tie-rods and beam bolts 5. Racked, peeled, or blistered finish
669
When ventilating using a ladder, turning the ladder so that only __ beam strikes the glass will reduce the possibility of glass sliding down the beams. Volume 3
1
669
The proper climbing angle of a ladder is approximately __ degrees. To obtain this angle, the base of the ladder should be placed at a distance from the building or objective equal to approximately __ the desired height. Volume 3
70 1/4
669
When necessary, ladders of wood construction may be carefully scraped and lightly sanded. Minimum of __ coats of clear finish, per Department specs, should then be applied as a means of preserving wood and facilitating inspection. Sand lightly between coats. Volume 3
2
670
Curl the 12' extension ladder with the fly section up, base to member's right, using the ___ rungs from the top and place outside foot ___" in front of the ladder. Volume 3
3rd and 4th 18-24"
670
Extension ladders should normally be extended ___ above windowsills or fire escape balcony railings and a MINIMUM of ___ or more above parapet walls and roofs. Volume 3
1' 3'
671
Uses of 16' straight ladder are __ story roofs and __ story windows. Volume 3
1; 2nd
671
12' extension ladder is made of two __ sections. Volume 3
7'
672
Uses of 24' straight ladder are __ story roofs, __ story windows, and fire escape balconies. Volume 3
1; 2nd
673
Uses of 20' straight ladder are __ story roofs, __ story windows, and sometimes the lowest fire escape balcony. Volume 3
1; 2nd
674
24’ straight is normally raised by __ member(s), but in an emergency situation may be raised by __ member(s) using __ foot straight ladder evolutions. Volume 3
2; 1; 20
674
Curl the 14' extension ladder with the main section up, base to member's left, using the ___ rungs from the top. Volume 3
3rd and 4th
674
14' extension ladder is made of two __ sections. Volume 3
9'
675
35' extension ladder is used for __ story roofs, __ story windows, and fire escape balconies. Volume 3
2nd and some 3rd 2nd and 3rd
675
Curl the 20' extension ladder with the main section up, base to member's left, using the __ and __ rungs from the top. Volume 3
4th and 6th
675
20' extension ladder uses are __ story roofs, __ story windows, and occasionally lowest fire escape. Volume 3
1; 2nd
675
20' extension ladder is made of two __ sections. Volume 3
12'
676
35' extension ladder is made of two __ sections. Volume 3
20'
677
35' extension ladder is normally raised by __ members. Volume 3
3
678
Roof ladders are carried in the same manner as ___ straight ladders or ___ extension ladders. Volume 3
16' and 20' 14' and 20'
679
When raising the 10' and 12' roof ladders (__ member), grasp the ___ rung from the hooks with 1 hand and open hooks towards straight side of beams with other hand. Volume 3
1-member 2nd rung
680
When raising a 10' and 12' roof ladder, proceed up the ground ladder and place arm between ___ or more convenient rungs on roof ladder. Volume 3
2nd and 3rd
681
When raising 16' and 20' roof ladders (__ members), top member climbs ground ladder and places arm between ___ rungs of roof ladder, top member steadies roof ladder, base member climbs ground ladder until their head is even with ___ rung below feet of top member. Volume 3
2-members 2nd and 3rd rungs 2nd rung
682
Every authorized emergency vehicle shall be equipped with at least 1 steady burning red warning lamp visible from at least ____ feet to the front of the vehicle to be used as provided in DMV vehicle code. Book 8
1000
683
When driving the hills, an operator shall give audible warning with the horn of the motor vehicle upon approaching any curve where the view is obstructed within a distance of ___ feet along the highway. Book 8
200
684
No vehicle, except other emergency vehicles, shall follow within ___ feet of an emergency vehicle (responding). Book 8
300
685
Vehicles in a business or residence district may not be left on a highway unattended on a grade exceeding __% without blocking the wheels. Book 8
3%
686
Vehicles over _____ GVWR shall have a retarder. Book 8
31,000
687
When a clutch is slipped for more than about ___ seconds heat will build up and damage will occur. Book 8
1-1/2 seconds
688
Compression stroke of gas engine produces ___ psi. Book 8
70-125
689
Compression stroke of diesel engine produces approximately ___ psi. Book 8
500
690
In a diesel engine, each pound of pressure exerted on air increases the temperature by about __ F. Book 8
20
691
At top of the compression stroke in a diesel engine, the temperature in the chamber will be about ____ F. Book 8
1,000
692
Clutch brake consists of __ stationary member(s), __ fiber disc(s), and __ revolving member(s). Book 8
2; 2; 1
693
Some transmissions have __ countershafts. Book 8
2
694
The torque converter has __ function(s). Book 8
2 1. Acts as a fluid coupling to smoothly connect engine power through oil to the transmission gear train 2. Multiplies torque from engine when additional performance is desired
695
Torque converter has __ basic elements. Book 8
3 Pump (driving member) Turbine (driven/output member) Stator (reaction member)
696
Torque converter is capable of multiplying engine torque by ___ to 1 with engine at full throttle, transmission in gear, and vehicle standing still. Book 8
2.2
697
Due to fluid slippage between pump and turbine in a torque converter, a ratio of ___ can never be achieved unless turbine-pump are located up, hence need for a lock-up clutch. Book 8
1:1
698
Planetary gearing is made up of __ constant mesh, straight spur gear planetary sets. Book 8
4
699
In planetary gearing, there are __ rear sets. Book 8
3 intermediate, low, and reverse-range planetaries
700
The planetary acts singly or together to provide __ forward speed(s) and __ reverse speed(s). Book 8
4; 1
701
Most pumping apparatus have main pump between transmission and rear-end, so __ drive shafts are required: __ between road transmission and the front of the pump transmission, and __ from rear of pump transmission to rear-end. Each has universal joints and a slip joint. Book 8
2; 1; 1
702
Common final drive ratio for LAFD apparatus is ___ to 1 = 4 revolutions of propeller shaft to 1 revolution of rear wheels. Book 8
4.11
703
Most use Hotchkiss type drive where the open propeller shaft is used with __ universal joint(s) and __ slip joint(s). Book 8
2; 1
704
Passenger vehicles such as emergency sedans, plug buggies (rated below __ ton) have semi-floating drive axles which means wheels are attached directly to end of axles and stress caused by turning/skidding/shock are applied directly to axle itself. Book 8
3/4
705
Heavy apparatus, ambulances, pickup trucks (above __ ton) generally have fully floating drive axles where the wheels aren’t attached directly to the end of the axles but are attached to a hub which rides on the axle housing through wheel bearings. Stress caused by turning/skidding/shock are applied directly to axle housing which is designed to carry heavy loads. Only turning effort of torque is applied to axle therefore axle can be removed and replaced without removing the wheel. Book 8
3/4
706
The clutch has __ use(s). Book 8
2 1. Must be slipped to get the apparatus rolling from 0 MPH to speed at which engine is at idling RPM 2. To disconnect engine from drive train while shifting gears
707
When cruising, choose a gear that will cruise the engine at 200-300 RPM lower than the 90% speed, which will reduce __ things. Book 8
200-300 RPM 90% 4 1. engine wear 2. power losses caused by the fan drive-line and accessories 3. noise 4. fuel consumption
708
Shifting quadrant in cab is divided into _ positions. Book 8
6
709
Gear ___ is used for all normal driving conditions. Book 8
1-4
710
Gear ___ is used when road/load/traffic conditions make it desirable to restrict the automatic shifting to a lower range. Provide progressively greater engine braking power. Book 8
1-3
711
Gear ___ is the same as gear ___ but with added braking power and lower speed. Book 8
1-2; 1-3
712
Gear __ is low gear and should be used when pulling through mud and driving up steep grades or when doing slow maneuvering. Book 8
1
713
Fluid filters including oil, transmission, coolant, and fuel are changed every __ months or when necessary. Book 8
12
714
According to Book 8, battery switch position is number __ or "A" battery on odd numbered days and number __ or "B" battery for even numbered days. Book 8
1; 2
715
Pre-heater cords on diesel apparatus are plugged in and maintain engine coolant above ___ F. Book 8
120
716
Weekly preventative maintenance included operating A/C units at least once a week for __ minutes. Book 8
10
717
On the airhorn pump, Fiamm and Grover on RAs emergency sedans, keep the reservoir full with SAE-__ engine oil (Grovery only) and put __ drop(s) of engine oil in each oil cup (if equipped). Book 8
30; 2
718
The transmission fluid on RAs should be maintained to a fluid level to __" below "Add" mark on dip-stick. Book 8
1/4"
719
The slack adjuster lever should never go beyond __ degrees. Book 8
90
720
When testing the brakes on light apparatus, after idling for several minutes, push brake pedal down as far as it will go, if it travels more than __ between released position and floor, call shops for adjustment. Apply brake with about __% of normal pressure for ____ mins, if pedal depresses to floor, request inspection by mechanic. Book 8
1/2; 30% 1.5 to 2 mins
721
When checking drive belts on light apparatus, check for wear/tension, deflection should be less than __” measured midway between pulleys. Book 8
1/2"
722
The dry vacuum test should develop a max vacuum of __" of mercury minimum. Book 8
20"
723
To check the steering gear and connections, position front wheels straight with all weight on tires, have assistant move the wheel with short, fast motions, approximately __" on wheel, back and forth. Book 8
6" to 8"
724
When inspecting the steering wheel on heavy apparatus, inspect for breaks/cracks, test for looseness by standing on floorboard or sitting in seat, take hold of wheel with both hands, 1 on each side, pull up and then push down. Have assistant look for movement of steering wheel up and down on column. Then pull with 1 hand/push with other and repeat ___ times.
2 or 3
725
To check the tires on heavy apparatus, the measuring device is calibrated in increments of ___". Reading under number __ indicates a depth under __". Book 8
1/32" 4 1/8"
726
Air Compressor Air Filter Unit bolts should be tightened by applying strength of index finger on a __" wrench. All companies should keep on hand __ spare filter-to-compressor gaskets. Book 8
4" 2
727
Heavy apparatus are ___ in^3 or over shall be lubricated and receive an oil change a ____ miles or __ months, whichever occurs first. Oil filter shall be changed every __ months. Book 8
465 cubic inches 2,000 miles or 4 months 12 months
728
For Reserve Heavy apparatus, lubricate and change oil at ____ miles or __ months, oil filter every __ months. Book 8
2,000 miles 6 months 12 months
729
Apparatus for EMERGENCY USE shall be lubricated at ____ miles or __ months, whichever occurs first. Engine oil & filter shall be changed at ____ miles or 4 months, whichever occurs first. Book 8
2,000 miles or 4 months 3,000 miles or 4 months
730
Light vehicle operator should schedule the following with light vehicle shops: Engine tune-up every ____ miles. Transmission maintenance every ____ miles. Appointments should be made approximately ___ miles before actual mileage is recorded on odometer. Book 8
12,000 20,000 500
731
Lubrication of the differential on light vehicles uses ____ multi-grade. Book 8
90-140
732
Engine oil for light vehicles is ____ multi-grade. Book 8
15W-40
733
On light vehicles, more wear occurs in an engine immediately after a cold start than in ___ miles of travel. Book 8
100
734
For light vehicle preventive maintenance, if the engine is warm, press down accelerator __ of travel and hold. Do not crank engine for more than __ seconds at a time or you could damage the starter. Book 8
1/3 15 seconds
735
Light apparatus voltages with ignition on, engine not running of ___ V indicates batteries are OK. Book 8
12.2 - 12.8
736
Light apparatus voltages with no electrical load with ignition on, engine not running, below __ V indicates recharge batteries. Book 8
12
737
Light apparatus voltage of __ V with the engine running (for __ min or more) at approximately ____ RPM indicates the charging system is OK. Book 8
14 - 14.8 V 1 min 1000 RPM
738
Light apparatus voltages with no electrical load, engine running approximately ____ RPM and below ___ V indicates the belt tension should be checked, if OK then call shops. Book 8
1000 13.8
739
On light apparatus, typical ranges of specific gravity for battery cell with respect to ability to crank engine at ___ F are as follows: 100% charged = 75% = 50% = 25% = very little useful capacity = discharged =
1.280 1.250 1.220 1.190 1.160 1.130
740
Engine oil on light apparatus should be checked while the engine is warm but at least __ minutes after engine shut down. Book 8
5
741
Light apparatus transmission fluid should be checked with engine running at slow idle and vehicle level, and should be ___ below "ADD" mark. Book 8
1/8 to 3/8
742
Light apparatus bimonthly checks on the front disc brakes include locating the screw jack beneath vehicle at front of lower control arm approximately __” away from ball joint, turn clockwise to raise to touch control arm, loosen all lugnuts, when lining is worn to approximately ___ ” or slightly thicker than steel section of brake pad, notify shops. Book 8
6" 3/32"
743
Bimonthly, check both sides of light apparatus front disc brake rotors for excessive scoring, scoring not exceeding ____" in depth is allowable. Book 8
0.015"
744
Bimonthly on light apparatus, after driving approximately ___ miles, retorque front disc brake lug nuts to ___ ft-lbs. Book 8
200 miles 100 ft-lbs
745
Bimonthly on light apparatus, check the lining of the rear brakes for replacement when worn down to approximately ___" or the thickness of a steel shoe. Book 8
5/32"
746
High rise hose pack hose comes in ___' lengths with ___" couplings. TB 62
50' 1-1/2"
747
High rise hose pack hose can be bent to within __" before it will kink. TB 62
12"
748
At 200 gpm, the friction loss per 100' of high rise hose pack hose is __ psi. TB 62
35
749
High rise hose pack consists of: __ 50' sections of lightweight blue hose __ 1-1/2" complete 200 gpm spray nozzle __ 2-1/2" x 1-1/2" reducer __ 2' ladder straps TB 62
2 1 1 5
750
The pigtail consists of: 1 __' section of lightweight 2-1/2" hose 1 2-1/2" x _____" gated wye 1 lightweight folding spanner __ ladder straps TB 62
8' 1-1/2" 2
751
High rise hose packs are made using a ___ minute air bottle. TB 62
30-45
752
The single layer method produces a high rise hose pack __" taller than the double layer method. TB 62
8"
753
To make a high rise hose pack, place the female coupling of the 1st section about __" below the gauge on the air bottle. TB 62
10"
754
High rise hose pack weighs __ lbs compared to __ lbs for 100' of old 2-1/2" hose. TB 62
38 lbs 64 lbs
755
Single layer high rise hose pack is __" tall x __" wide Double layer high rise hose pack is __" tall x __" wide TB 62
40" tall x 22" wide 32" tall x 16" wide
756
1960-1974 Class III standpipe systems will have 2-1/2" hose with a 1" straight tip in hose cabinets above the ___ floor. TB 62
4th (Discrepancy to Book 100)
757
Post-1974 Combined Standpipe Sprinkler System uses Pressure Reducing Valves when pressure is greater than ___ psi. You can encounter orifice plates on this system where system pressure falls below ___ psi, typically the top ___ floors. TB 62
150; 150; 6 to 8
758
The friction loss at 200 gpm per 100' of 1-3/4" hose is ___ psi and per 100' of 1-1/2" hose is ___ psi. TB 62
50 psi 130 psi
759
Orifice plates can be found in __ locations. TB 62
4 1. Soldered to outlet itself 2. Soldered to male end of drip-cock 3. Behind gasket on drip-cock 4. Behind gasket on 2-1/2" hose
760
Failure to remove an orifice plate on combination standpipe systems will restrict the flow from the outlet to ___ gpm at a minimum of ___ psi residual pressure. TB 62
200 gpm 50 psi
761
If the orifice plate on a combination standpipe system has been removed, the outlet should be opened ___ turns, then adjusted from there. If the orifice plate has not been removed, open the valve fully. TB 62
1-1/2
762
Service test pressure of high rise hose pack hose is ___ psi. TB 62
300
763
Each department apparatus shall be assigned __ cellular telephone. Volume 3
1
763
Salvage covers shall be removed from apparatus and replaced with clean, dry covers at least once each __ calendar months or within __ hours when damp or dirty. Make proper entries on F-___ (Hose and Salvage Cover Record) and F-2. Salvage covers removed to comply with the __ calendar month change shall be wetted, properly dried, and inspected. Volume 3
2; 24; F-128; 2
764
Combustible gas indicators are assigned to all Battalion sedans, Fireboats __ and __, and to the Fire Prevention Bureau. Volume 3
2 and 4
764
When gurneys are occupied, a minimum of __ member(s) is necessary to operate gurney to ensure patient safety and gurney stability. Volume 3
2
764
Dry chem extinguisher checks shall be recorded once a month and entered on the F-____ (Equipment Check Record). Volume 3
F-973
765
Fabric jacketed hose shall be removed from apparatus and replaced with clean, dry hose at least once each __ calendar months. Volume 3
3
766
__ bed(s) of hose will be changed at a time. Volume 3
1
767
Fabric jacketed hand lines shall be changed within __ hours when damp or dirty. Volume 3
24
768
Horizontal movement of large streams of water (____” or larger hose) from an aerial, shall not exceed __ degrees in either direction from an “in-line” position with beam and truss. Volume 3
2-1/2"; 15 degrees
768
Damaged hose forwarded to S&M shall be clean, dry, rolled, and tied in __ places. Volume 3
2
769
Maximum period between hose tests shall be __ months. Volume 3
12
770
1" double jacketed hose shall be tested at ___ psi. Volume 3
400
771
All rubber lined double jacketed hose (except __”), bypasses and soft suctions, single jacketed ladder pipe hoses, all synthetic nitrile “all rubber” hoses and 1” rubber reel hose, shall be tested at ___ psi. Volume 3
1" 300
772
Hose testing shall be recorded on F-___, Annual Hose Test Record
129
773
Duration of hose tests shall be __ minutes at required pressure and length of hose test is ___ feet maximum at __ outlet(s). Volume 3
5; 300; 1
774
Fire Stations _______ are required to underline the numbers on hose that they label on the male couplings. Volume 3
6, 9, 66, 99, 89, 68, 98, 86
775
All hose shall be identified by station number, applied lengthwise on plain side of hose and to right of both male and female couplings, from right to left starting __” from coupling with ___” stencils. Volume 3
6" 1-1/2"
775
Station Commanders who determine hose is in need of replacement because of excessive wear or because __ year service life has been reached (refer to F-___, Hose Inventory Record) shall contact Equipment Engineering officer at S&M. Volume 3
10; F-121
776
__” all-rubber ladder pipe hose is color-coded RED. Volume 3
3"
777
___” all-rubber high rise pigtails are color coded either BLUE or RED. Volume 3
2-1/2"
778
__” all rubber high-rise hose is color coded BLUE. Volume 3
2"
779
___" synthetic double jacketed hose is color coded YELLOW.
1-3/4"
780
Minimum diameters of landing sites are ___ feet for larger helicopters (H-____) and ___ feet for smaller helicopters (H-___). Volume 3
100 feet for H-1, 2, 3, 4 60 feet for H-5, 6
781
Landing and takeoff angle for helicopters, if possible, should not be greater than __ degrees. Volume 3
25
782
Effective implementation of positive pressure ventilation is based on __ factors. Book 29
5 Entrance opening, airflow between openings, exhaust opening, weather, training and communication
783
Positive pressure has proven effective AGAINST winds (leeward to windward) of up to __ mph. Book 29
25
784
For single blower placement, small blowers (___”) need to be moved back from entrance openings while larger blowers (___”) can be placed closer. Book 29
18" 24"
784
A second blower in series increases capacity of first blower by approximately ___%. Book 29
10%
785
If 2 blowers of unequal CFM are used in series, place larger about __' back from opening and use smaller blower behind larger blower to cover entrance opening with air. Book 29
2'
786
For placing blowers in series, if the area in front of an entrance is limited to ___’, place smaller blower in entrance opening and larger blower ___’ back from door. Book 29
3' to 4' 3' to 4'
787
Concentrations of CO within range of ____ ppm are easily obtainable during overhaul operations. Book 29
500 to 1200 ppm
787
788
Up to ___ ppm of CO can be inhaled for 1 hour without appreciable effects. Book 29
500
788
Up to ___ ppm of CO inhaled for 1 hour will cause some appreciable effects. Book 29
700
789
Up to ____ ppm of CO inhaled for 1 hour is dangerous. Book 29
1200
790
Concentrations of ____ ppm of CO and over are fatal in less than 1 hour. Book 29
4000
791
Positive pressure ventilation can reduce CO of ____ ppm to approximately ___ to ___ ppm. Book 29
1,000 130 to 220
792
A single ___” blower is adequate for an average, ____ square feet, single family dwelling. Book 29
18" 2000
793
If any fire does begin to accelerate or spread, it can easily be controlled by turning the blower ___ degrees away from the opening. Book 29
90
794
Approximately __% of Department's fire responses involve motor vehicles. TB 5
20%
795
Control of emissions from evaporation of fuel has been required in car models since ____. TB 5
1970
796
Hydraulic energy absorbing bumpers consist of a gas chamber filled with a mixture of inert, non-flammable nitrogen/helium gas pressurized to ___ psi and a hydraulic fluid chamber filled with a petroleum based fluid. TB 5
150
797
Hydraulic bumper travel is up to __". TB 5
3"
798
Unusually high pressure from fire conditions may result in the sudden release of a hydraulic bumper assembly, up to __ feet. TB 5
25
799
Mechanical bumper travel is up to __". TB 5
4"
800
Flash point of gasoline is ___ F. TB 5
-45 F
801
Specific gravity of gasoline is __. TB 5
0.8
802
Flash point of diesel #2 is ___ F. TB 5
125 F
803
Specific gravity of diesel #2 is ____. TB 5
Less than 0
804
Working within __ feet of any vehicle fire constitutes working in an IDLH. TB 5
30
805
Recorded BLEVES have occurred within __ minutes of fire exposure. TB 5
10
806
All members shall have a thorough knowledge of methods used to produce effective streams (lessons __ through __ of AOTM). Volume 3
9 through 12
807
Visitors will be permitted to ride on apparatus only when proper approval is obtained (F-____ Visitor Waiver). Volume 3
F-1109
808
Firefighters shall complete a Driver’s Training Program of a written exam administered by Division Driver Training Coordinator covering modules ____ of Driver’s Training Manual, and _____ of AOTM prior to advancement to Firefighter III. Volume 3
1-8 3, 4, 22
809
Apparatus is not considered off duty under conditions where response could be made without a delay of more than __ seconds. Volume 3
60
810
Each station will have __ extra F-620 packets. Volume 3
2
811
In case of an accident, make no statements written or verbal to anyone except authorized investigators in accordance with AB-___. Volume 3
220
812
When a member is learning to tiller, a minimum of __ training sessions shall be held with the trainee in place in an observer position behind a Firefighter certified to tiller. Volume 3
3
813
Each tiller training session shall be limited to __ hour(s) per member and confined to 1st alarm district of Station where apparatus is housed. Volume 3
1
814
Lubrication products for apparatus lubrication include engine oil __-__. Volume 3
15-40
815
Power lube equipment should have a maximum air pressure of __ psi. Volume 3
60
816
All preventative maintenance/lubrication shall be accomplished during first __ weeks of appropriate month. Volume 3
2
817
F-377 and F-377RA shall arrive in Battalion Office no later than day prior to battalion inspection or the ___ of the month, whichever is first. Volume 3
15th
818
Heavy apparatus have an engine displacement of ___ cubic inches or more. Volume 3
465
819
For front-line emergency heavy apparatus, if company travels over _____ miles annually, apparatus shall be lubricated monthly during first __ weeks of the month. Volume 3
12,000 2
820
For front-line emergency heavy apparatus, if company travels less than _____ miles annually, apparatus shall be lubricated once every __ months on even months. Volume 3
12,000 2
821
Oil change on front-line emergency heavy apparatus shall have oil changed every ____ apparatus miles. Volume 3
4,000
822
Aerial ladders and related components on front-line heavy apparatus shall be lubricated a minimum of every __ months or sooner if needed due to high use. 1 of the lubrications may be in preparation for annual ladder test. BCs shall be notified shift before so it may be inspected during lubrication. Volume 3
2
823
Front-line emergency light apparatus, if company travels over _____ miles annually, apparatus shall be lubricated monthly during first __ weeks of the month. Volume 3
12,000; 2
824
Front-line emergency light apparatus that travel less than _____ miles annually shall be lubricated once every __ months on even months. Volume 3
12,000 2
825
Front-line emergency light apparatus shall have oil changed every ____ miles and filter every ____ miles. Volume 3
4,000 4,000
826
Both Reserve Heavy & Light Apparatus shall be lubricated every __ months. Volume 3
4
827
At no time shall reserve apparatus & non-emergency light apparatus preventative maintenance or lubrication exceed __ months except with approval of BC. Volume 3
4
828
Both Reserve Heavy & Light Apparatus shall have oil changed every ____ miles OR __ months. Volume 3
4,000 miles or 6 months
829
F-377 on reserve apparatus shall be completed once every __ months according to schedule developed by Station Commander. At no time shall F-377 exceed __ months except with approval of BC. Volume 3
2; 2
830
Non-emergency light apparatus shall be lubricated once every __ months and oil/filter shall be changed every ____ apparatus miles. Volume 3
4; 4,000
831
Repair for leaking air brake systems shall be requested when low pressure warning device operates when apparatus has not been run for __ hours or less. Volume 3
12
832
Air brake system shall be checked at least each __ month(s) to determine if an adjustment is needed. Volume 3
2
833
During drafting drills, the strainer end of suction shall be kept at least __” from bottom of reservoir and __” or more below surface of water. Volume 3
12" 24"
834
Pumps, aerials, and other power operated features shall be operated on all apparatus at least once each __ days and recorded on F-___. Volume 3
30 F-974
835
After a fuel delivery has been made to a station, wait __ hours before pumping gas and __ hours before pumping diesel. Volume 3
12; 24
836
Smoking shall not be permitted within 25 feet of gasoline pumps or motor vehicle being refueled. Volume 3
25
837
Small engines shall have fuel tanks drained every __ days and replenished with fresh fuel. Volume 3
30
838
With 5 gallons of gas, add __ ounces of 50:1 oil. With 1 gallon of gas, add __ ounces of 50:1 oil. Volume 3
16; 3
839
Single fire stations should mix a __ gallon supply at a time and hold remaining oil in reserve, Task force stations should mix a __ gallon supply. Volume 3
1; 5
840
Reserve engines have "___" series numbering Reserve trucks have "___" series numbering Reserve ambulances have "___" series numbering Reserve Aircraft Firefighting Apparatus and Special Reserves have numbering starting with "___". Volume 3
400 500 600 700
841
Apparatus in Shops for repair may be activated as needed during large scale emergencies and will be identified by numbering “___” through “___”. Volume 3
701 through 712
842
Each Saturday before ____, any commander or individual having a reserve apparatus in service as relief, or commander of any station having a reserve apparatus in quarters in reserve, shall so notify Metro. Volume 3
0800
843
Front-line apparatus shall be identified using white reflective adhesive material affixed directly to the apparatus: Front & Rear: ___" Side: ___" Top: ___"
7-1/2" 9" 15-3/4"
844
Community titles designating areas served will also be solely provided by S&M. Reflective lettering for this purpose shall be ___" tall, contrasting color, and be placed on the ___” reflective stripe on each side of the apparatus
4-1/4" 6"
845
Requests for helicopter flights should be submitted at least __ days before. Volume 3
5
846
Reciprocating saw is for cutting wood up to ___" thick and metal up to ___" thick. TB 38
12" 3/4"
847
Milwaukee sawzall blade goes from __ to ____ SPM with a ___" stroke. TB 38
0 to 3000 SPM 1-1/4"
848
Porter-Cable Tiger Saw reciprocates from __ to ____ SPM. TB 38
0 to 2600
849
Milwaukee sawzall model number is ___. TB 38
737
850
Reciprocating saw kit consists of a __' power cord modified with a ___ amp twist lock receptacle. TB 38
10' 30 amp
851
Reciprocating saw blade 9668 should have __ blades in the kit, is __" x __" x ___ in size, and has __ TPI. TB 38
10 9" x 7/8" x .062 6 TPI
852
Reciprocating saw blade 1568 should have __ blades in the kit, is __" x __" x ___ in size, and has __ TPI. TB 38
5 12" x 3/4" x .062 6 TPI
853
Reciprocating saw blade 9608 should have __ blades in the kit, is __" x __" x ___ in size, and has __ TPI. TB 38
10 9" x 7/8" x .062 10 TPI
854
Reciprocating saw blade 1108 should have __ blades in the kit, is __" x __" x ___ in size, and has __ TPI. TB 38
5 12" x 3/4" x .062 10 TPI
855
Reciprocating saw blade 6348 should have __ blades in the kit, is __" x __" x ___ in size, and has __ TPI. TB 38
2 6" x 3/4" x .035 4 TPI
856
Reciprocating saw blade 6188 should have __ blades in the kit, is __" x __" x ___ in size, and has __ TPI. TB 38
2 6" x 3/4" x .035 18 TPI
857
Reciprocating saw blade 80ORG should have __ blades in the kit and is __" x __" x ___ in size. TB 38
2 8" x 3/4" x .042
858
Milwaukee sawzall has a speed control dial limits SPM that the saw can operate with a setting of ___. TB 38
1-5
859
Milwaukee sawzall handle can rotate continuously in either direction and locks at __ degree increments, or __ positions. TB 38
45 degree 8
860
When cutting angle, I-beam, or channel type metals with the reciprocating saw, try to keep at least __ teeth in contact with the work at all times. TB 38
3
861
The ____, ___" sawzall blade with __ TPI is best suited for cutting A, B, and C posts in vehicle extrication. TB 38
960R 9" 10 TPI
862
Each station commander shall perform a drive-through inspection of their inspection district once _________. Book 84
calendar quarter 3 months
863
Drive-through inspections of their district shall also identify any new multi-unit (__ units or more) occupancies still in the framing stages. Book 84
16
864
A report of the hazardous conditions noted and corrective action taken during a drive-through of a station's inspection district shall be forwarded to the Battalion Commander having responsibility for the district inspected, within ___ days of the date of each inspection. Book 84
10
865
Fire Station has responsibility to inspect Group B buildings that are less than __ stories in height and less than _____ square feet. Book 84
4; 40,000
866
Awning under a fire escape drop ladder shall have a ___” x ___” opening in the awning under the drop ladder. This opening may be closed by a snap-on canvas cover. Book 84
24" x 24"
867
Required extinguishers, depending upon their weight, shall be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than __’ above the floor (less than __ lbs) or __’ above the floor (greater than __ lbs). Book 84
5' 40 lbs 3.5' 40 lbs
868
Decisions on actions taken in Fire Control Room will normally be made by __ entities. Book 100
3 IC, Lobby Control, Systems Control
869
It is good practice is to write Lobby & Fire Control Room phone numbers on a copy of the Building Inventory (there should be __ unplasticized copies). Book 100
6
870
If possible, give __ copy of Building Inventory to initial Fire Attack Team along with __ stairwell or master key. Book 100
1; 1
871
There should be __ removable and __ permanently attached sound powered telephone handsets in the Fire Control Room. Book 100
6; 1
872
Public address system provides communication to rooms with an occupancy load of __ or more. Book 100
50
873
Models of rotary saws include Partner K-____, and Husqvarna K-____ & K-____. TB 44
K-950 K-960 K-970
874
LAFD has __ types of ___" rotary saw blades. TB 44
4 14"
875
All companies shall have at least __ of each rotary saw blade type available. TB 44
1
876
Rotary saw blades shall be a minimum of __" to remain in front line service. TB 44
12"
877
Rotary saw blades smaller than __" may be used for training purposes and blades smaller than __" shall be sent into the shops for replacement. TB 44
12" 9"
878
Combination "Combi" rotary saw blade has a continuous cutting depth of ___". TB 44
4-3/4"
879
During starting procedures for the K-970 rotary saw, press air purge diaphragm __ times, which pumps fuel through to the carburetor and makes fewer pulls required for starting. TB 44
6
880
For rotary saw flooding procedure, pull starting cord and cycle the saw quickly about ___ times. TB 44
4-5
881
Options for carrying the rotary saw aloft include using a __' utility strap. TB 44
12'
882
To make 50:1 2-stroke fuel, use ___ oz of oil for 1 gallon of gas, ___ oz of oil for 2.5 gallons of gas, and ___ oz oil for 5 gallons of gas. TB 44
2.6 oz 6.5 oz 13 oz
883
Do not make more than __ month(s) worth of 2-stroke fuel at a time. TB 44
1
884
To make 2-stroke fuel, fill the container with __ the amount of gas, add entire amount of 2-stroke oil, mix, then add the remaining gas. TB 44
1/2
885
During rotary saw weekly checks, depress the throttle fully for ___ seconds to bring up RPMs and allow saw to return to idle before repeating the process ___ times. TB 44
1-2 seconds 2-3 times
886
Only perform a monthly check on __ rotary saw(s) at a time. TB 44
1
887
Monthly checks for the rotary saw include checking that the electrode gap is ___" (___ mm). TB 44
.020" (0.5 mm)
888
The rotary saw blade continues to rotate up to ___ after the engine has stopped. TB 44
1 minute
889
Sparks from the rotary saw can be thrown up to ___'. TB 44
30'
890
There are over ______ hillside structures in the city. TB 156
400,000
891
There are __ categories of hillside homes. TB 156
3 Descending, Ascending, Cantilever
892
Descending hillside homes are usually a minimum of __ stories and offer __ story(s) at street level and at least __ store or more below grade. TB 156
2; 1; 1
893
Cantilever hillside homes were originally built in the early ____. TB 156
1900s
894
Contemporary hillside homes can have __ or more stories. TB 156
2
895
The Command channel at a high rise incident is to be used by the IC, Department Staff, and MFC, and is normally channel __. Book 100
11
896
The Incident Command Channel at a high rise incident is normally not utilized until a ___ alarm assignment has arrived on scene. Book 100
2nd
897
There are __ assignments that should use the Incident Command Channel at a high rise incident. Book 100
7 IC General Staff Command Staff Operations Division Supervisors Group Supervisors Staging
898
There are __ assignments that should use the Logistics Tac Channel at a high rise incident. Book 100
5 Logistics Chief Lobby Base Ground Support Communications
899
At a high rise incident, staging will monitor __ channels. Book 100
2 Command and Logistics channels
900
At a high rise incident, when necessary to operate out of more than __ stairwell(s) on a fire floor, the Division Supervisor assigned to that floor will use the allocated fireground tactical channel to communicate with companies under their command. Book 100
1
901
Consideration should be given to assigning __ officer(s)/company(s) to supervise the secondary stairwells. Book 100
1
902
Since Division/Group Supervisors have to monitor more than 1 radio channel, if the position is assigned to a Task Force Commander, they should use a member from the Light Force to assist with radio communications and company accountability, and the remainder of the company will operate using an Acting Captain and ___ member(s). Book 100
2 or 3
903
At a high rise incident, if the need arises to utilize multiple channels in excess of what MFC can provide, consideration should be given to request the use of the Mutual Aid Frequencies _____. These channels can only be used in direct mode and cannot be monitored or recorded by MFC. Book 100
19 to 24
904
Helicopters at a high rise can be deployed for __ things. Book 100
3 Evacuation Observation Deployment of personnel and equipment
905
There are __ things that should be included in the request to MFC for a helicopter at a high rise incident. Book 100
4 Number of helicopters needed Specific request for specialized equipment, resources, or personnel Intended helicopter mission Location of helispot as required
906
Minimum helicopter response times from Van Nuys Airport to the Downtown Area is ___ minutes. Book 100
10-12
907
Minimum helicopter response times from Van Nuys Airport to the San Fernando Valley is ___ minutes. Book 100
5-7
908
Minimum helicopter response times from Van Nuys Airport to the West Los Angeles Area is ___ minutes. Book 100
10
909
Minimum helicopter response times from Van Nuys Airport to the Harbor Area is ___ minutes. Book 100
20
910
At high rise incidents, normally helicopters should remain approximately ____’ from the involved building while in flight. Book 100
500'
911
At high rise incidents, the helispot location should be located at least __ mile(s) from the incident site. Book 100
1/2
912
There are __ typical uses of personnel on department helicopters at high rise incidents. Book 100
7 Search Rescue Roof Evacuation Check for Fire Extension Medical Group Roof Division (open penthouse door, stair shaft, ventilation, etc) Fire Attack
913
Standard high-rise equipment includes __ things. Book 100
4 2” hose pack with pig tail Axe - Claw tool - Haligan Breathing apparatus & spare bottles (consider 60 minute bottles) Rotary saw and blades
914
Medical equipment for a high rise incident includes __ things. Book 100
4 Starter Kit and Drugs Resuscitator Scope and Defibrillator Backboard/Flat Stretcher
914
At a high rise incident, there are __ basic method(s) of air evacuation that can be used. Book 100
2 Rooftop rescue Hoist rescue
914
At a high rise incident, hoist rescues are limited to ___' or approximately __ stories below the roof. Book 100
250' 20
915
At a high rise incident, when hoist extraction is utilized, __ helitac member(s) will usually be lowered to the sene for control and hookup of the victims and are normally hoisted with __ of the helitac member(s). Book 100
2; 1
916
When waiting to load and/or board a helicopter at a high rise incident, personnel shall form a single line at least __’ from the aircraft, toward the front side, in full view of the pilot at all times. Book 100
50'
917
When loading a helicopter at a high rise incident, personnel will be directed to approach and load on ____ side(s) by the pilot or helitac member. Book 100
1 or both sides
918
When departing from the helicopter area at a high rise incident, walk in a slightly stooped over position to safe location at least 50’ away, not in line with intended helicopter flight departure path. Book 100
50'
919
Questions to be asked about a high-rise building must center around decisions relating to __ areas. Book 100
3 Life Safety Property Protection Continuation of Operations
920
Most __-story buildings are high-rise by definition, although some __ story buildings will fall into the high-rise category. Book 100
8; 6 and 7
921
According to the State Fire Marshal’s office, there are approximately ____ high-rise buildings in the State of California; of these LA has approximately ___. Book 100
1,700 745
922
About ___% of high-rises in LA are habitational. Book 100
20-25%
923
High-rise buildings are divided into __ groups. Book 100
2 Existing High-Rise and New High-Rise
924
Existing High-Rise Buildings are ones constructed prior to July ____. Book 100
1974
925
Approximately ___ of the high-rise buildings in LA are “Existing High-Rise Buildings”. Book 100
520
926
Approximately ___ of the high-rise buildings in LA are new high-rises. Book 100
225
927
Prior to ____, all buildings in LA were limited to 150’ in height for earthquake safety. Book 100
1957
928
Most pre-1960 high-rise buildings are a maximum of __ stories. Book 100
13
929
LA City hall, with __ stories, and County General Hospital, with __ stories, are exceptions to this rule of pre-1960 buildings being a max of 13 stories. Book 100
27; 19
930
A “High-Rise Retrofit Program” was initiated by the LAFD and state in ____ to bring pre-1960 buildings into conformance with newer building codes. Book 100
1976
931
The Type I building is designed to withstand the most severe fire to be expected within the building for __ or more hours without structural failure. Book 100
2
932
By the 1960s, codes required “COMPARTMENTATION”, that is, subdivision of buildings into “fire areas” by providing __-hour, fire-resistive separations between floor levels and around vertical shafts. Book 100
2
933
Post-1960 high-rises had at least __ means of egress required and sometimes scissor stairs were installed to better utilize these shafts. Book 100
2
934
In some buildings under ___’, and all buildings over ___’, a looped standpipe is required. Book 100
275' 275'
935
Each new high rise is required to maintain a __-hour rated Fire Control Room. Book 100
1
936
The stairshafts and other vertical shafts of new high-rises must be of __-hour construction as are floor separations. Book 100
2
937
In new high-rises, area detectors are located in and adjacent to __-hour elevator vestibules, HVAC ducts, and selected equipment rooms. Book 100
1
938
All new high-rises must have an emergency smoke control system, capable of exhausting smoke directly to the exterior of the building OR perimeter windows must be openable and have breakable tempered glass in each corner and every __ linear feet. Book 100
50
939
HVAC system designed for smoke removal in new high-rises may be used, providing they exhaust a minimum of __ air changes per hour. Book 100
6
940
On new high-rises, the number inside the __’ x __’ helicopter pad identifies the load capacity of the pad in thousands of pounds. Book 100
50' x 50'
941
In new high-rises, there is also an adjacent ___” exterior standpipe outlet for fire protection or with __ Class Helispot (H) standpipe outlets. Book 100
1-1/2" 1 or 2
942
Implementation of the state mandated High-Rise Retrofit Program began in late ____. Book 100
1976
943
The High-Rise Retrofit Program required At least 2 means of egress were required at each floor level and at least 1 was to be an enclosed, __-hour stairshaft while another could be an existing fire escape if no other stairway was available. Fire escapes were required to have wired glass or equivalent protection for the windows on all landings and within __’ on either side of the landing. Book 100
1; 5'
944
The High-Rise Retrofit Program required a Smoke Control System to remove smoke and heat had to be provided. Older buildings with openable windows needed nothing more. Post-1960, sealed high-rises normally had breakable tempered glass around the perimeter of the building every __ linear feet. Book 100
50
945
The High-Rise Retrofit Program required __ type(s) of communication systems were required. A Building Communication System was required in public areas of buildings over ___’. Fire Department Communication System (sound-powered telephones) was required in existing high-rise buildings which failed a radio test that provides jacks in each stairshaft at each floor level, roof exits, stairwell exits, and the building control station. Book 100
2 150'
946
Approximately __ of the older existing high-rises chose not to comply with the High-Rise Retrofit Program, primarily because of the problem of providing 2 means of egress, and these buildings were vacacted and sealed. Book 100
30
947
As a result of the Fires Interstate Bank Building Fire in May 1988, program was passed in August of ____ required installation of fire sprinkles in all existing high-rise office buildings affecting ___ high-rises. Book 100
1988; 356
948
The Retrofit Sprinkler Program of 1988 required __-hour rated elevator lobby vestibules, provision of a __ square foot, manually-operated ventilation opening in stairshafts that acces the top floor and don't penetrate the roof, and a __" drain in buildings with Pressure Reducing Valves to flow test PRVs and return water back into the tank without running hose lines up the entire stairshaft. Book 100
1-hour 20 square feet 3"
949
One option for smoke control in all high-rise buildings is in sealed buildings, breakable tempered glass windows on the perimeter of the building every __ linear feet with __ square foot opening identified by __” minimum luminous or reflective decals in a lower corner that indicates they are “tempered glass". Book 100
50 20 square feet 2"
950
With Halon 1301 extinguishing systems in high-rises, __% or more of the volume of the room will be composed of halon gas, and halon will decompose into toxic gases, principally phosgene, if permitted to heat to approximately ___ F. Book 100
5% 900 F
951
In a major high rise fire, a minimum of __ charged line(s) is/are mandatory. Book 100
2
952
In a high-rise fire, consider using __ person fire attack teams. A 10-member task force can provide __ rotating fire attack teams. Book 100
3; 3
953
At a high-rise fire, the assignment of companies a minimum of __ floor(s) above the fire, along with horizontal ventilation will prevent extension as well as prevent the fire from lapping to additional floors. Book 100
2
954
__ company will not be sufficient to staff Lobby at a high rise incident, especially on a working fire. Book 100
1
955
At a high-rise incident, Staging should operate with __ radio channels. Book 100
2 1 for deployment of companies based on direction from IC/Ops, and the 2nd for requesting equipment from Logistics
956
There should only be __ base per high-rise incident. Book 100
1
957
Keep the Command Post away from Base and sufficiently removed from the building (at least ___’), in a safe location. Book 100
200'
958
The Command Post at a high-rise incident should have a view of __ side(s) of the building. Book 100
2 1 being the fire side
959
Downtown companies who regularly drill with drop bags have effectively drop bagged __ stories. Book 100
10
960
Drop bagging ___" hose to use as an auxiliary standpipe provides you with the capacity of placing __ effective hose lines in place when used with a gated wye. Book 100
2-1/2" 2
961
On a large-scale incident, a ___” supply line should be used. Consider using (2) lines gated down to 1 at the stairwell entrance. Placement of gated wyes every __ floor(s) will help if there is a broken line. Book 100
3-1/2" 2 or 3
962
Combined standpipe systems can have Pressure Regulating Devices for when the pressure at the outlet exceeds ___ psi, and may have orifice plates when the system pressure falls below ___ psi. Book 100
150; 150
963
Pressure Restricting Devices are usually found on floors of buildings where the system pressure exceeds ___ psi but not over ___ psi. Book 100
100; 150
964
While only __% of accidents happen at night, __% of fatal accidents happen at night. Book 8
30% 47%
965
Almost __ of motor vehicle accidents occur between the hours of 4pm and 8pm. Book 8
1/3
966
The general rule is to look ahead at the distance you will travel in ___ seconds. Book 8
12-15
967
At lower speeds, you should look ahead _____ & at highway speeds, you should look ahead ____. Book 8
1 block 1/4 mile
968
45 minute air cylinder weighs __ lbs.
15
969
60 minute air cylinder weighs __ lbs.
28
970
"D" type oxygen cylinder weighs __ lbs.
9
971
120 cubic foot oxygen cylinder weighs __ lbs.
67
971
40 cubic foot oxygen cylinder weighs __ lbs.
25
972
According to the Manual of Operation, Volume 4, any cylinder with more than _______ pounds of pressure is considered to be a hazardous material ? Volume 4
40 lbs
973
It is illegal to operate a commercial vehicle if your BAC is over ___.
0.04
974
Any member assigned to a vacancy as a result of a requested transfer shall normally remain in that assignment for a minimum of __ months before a subsequent request will be considered. Volume 2
8
975
Transfer selections will be made by the Bureau Commander no sooner than __ days after the vacancy is published. Volume 2
10
976
Firefighters who are both Paramedic and Fire Suppression Certified, who are assigned to a Paramedic Rescue Ambulance, will only be required to remain in that assignment for ____. Volume 3
1 year
977
Transfer selections shall be published by special notice over Teletype and shall be posted under the heading “Primary Vacancies Filled” on the official business bulletin board for a period of __ days. Volume 2
5
978
All transfer of personnel shall be made effective as of ____ hours on that Sunday that commences a pay period. Volume 2
0800
979
Members planning to apply for service pension should contact Personnel Services Section approximately __ days in advance of their intended retirement date. Volume 3
30
979
Personnel attending paramedic training will be transferred to Division ___, platoon duty. Volume 2
243
980
It is particularly important that Training Academy Recruits, Firefighters on probation, and members with __ years or less of service receive an exit interview. Volume 2
5
980
When a member retires, resigns, is discharged or otherwise ends services with the city, the actual hours worked during the ___ day cycle will be compared to the standard established by Accounting Services. Volume 2
126
981
When a former employee applies for unemployment insurance through the State, the City has __ calendar days to verify a claimant’s information and respond. Volume 2
10
982
Assignments for probationary firefighters shall be for a minimum period of __ months. Volume 2
3
983
All members hired after _______ shall remain non-smokers throughout their employment. This prohibits smoking or the use of any tobacco product on or off duty. Volume 3
7/1/1987
983
Minimum transfer requirement during probationary period is assignment to __ fire stations, 1 of which will be primarily for truck experience. Volume 2
3
984
Emergency salary advances are granted only for extreme financial hardship and are limited to a maximum of $_____ per occurrence. Volume 2
$2,000
984
If the court is outside the county of residence, the place of appearance must be within ___ miles of employee’s residence for this subsection for time off with pay to apply. Volume 3
150
985
Any member who joins the military reserve forces shall submit a letterhead in duplicate to the Bureau Commander to be forwarded to Personnel Services Section within __ days. Volume 2
30
986
Refuse to accept a subpoena if, at the time of attempted service, it is less than __ working days prior to the hearing and it is not reasonably certain that he will be able to deliver a copy of the subpoena to or notify concerned member within such time as will allow the member to comply with the subpoena. Volume 2
5
987
Unless notified that “on-call” status has been extended for a court appearance, “on-call” status for morning appearances shall end at ____ and afternoon shall end at ____. Volume 2
1100; 1600
987
A member must be able to appear in court within __ hour(s) after receiving the notification when "on-call". Volume 2
1
988
When an alleged DUI violation results in confiscation of a member’s driver’s license, F-225 to Operations within __ calendar days. Volume 2
7
988
When shopping for station mess, __ member(s) will be permitted to leave apparatus and shop and shall carry a portable radio. Volume 2
1
989
Receipts for all House Dues purchases should be maintained for ____. Volume 2
3 years
990
Approvals for excusal from organized mess will expire __ months after issued and must be renewed if still required. Volume 2
6
990
__ member(s) should verify House Dues deposit amounts and deposit receipt should be retained _____. Volume 2
2; 3 years
991
House Dues IOU should be signed by requestor and paid back within __ days unless otherwise agreed by majority vote. Volume 2
30
991
House Dues cash on hand should be confirmed by a minimum of __ members and recorded on a regular basis, minimally every __ weeks. Volume 2
2; 2
991
Any employee, before accepting off-duty employment or actively participating in any outside business enterprise, shall secure approval from the Fire Chief or a designated representative using form F-____. Volume 3
F-1150
991
Results of all House Dues voting should be posted and a copy of the vote retained for _____. Volume 2
6 months
992
All members of each Battalion shall be assigned to 1 of __ lettered columns identified __ through __. Volume 2
21; A through U
993
EMS Captains will be assigned holiday codes by Division ___. Volume 2
III
994
BCs can make changes to the holiday schedule to allow members, regardless of rank, to exchange holidays within the same ____ period, providing the requesting member takes the holiday off OR to allow the assignment of a holiday, not in conflict with member’s vacation, paid military leave, IOD leave, or Bereavement Leave. Volume 2
2 month
995
Hiring 9 days in advance and requiring a guarantor for less than __ day cancellation shall apply for members working their own holiday. Volume 2
5
996
Platoon duty members may float __ day(s) (__ hours) of holiday time per year. By ___, the floating holiday shall be scheduled to be worked or taken off during the remainder of the calendar year. Volume 2
1 day (12 hours) 9/1
997
Levels __ and __ of the program recommend, in addition to the prescribed exercises, __ hour(s) of cardiovascular conditioning activity such as running each week. Volume 2
II and III; 2 hours
998
Prior to participation in any approved athletic activities, members shall perform warm up and flexibility exercises within ______ of participation. Volume 2
1/2 hour
999
Max reimbursement for watches is limited to $__ except by approval of the CAO in extraordinary circumstances. Volume 2
$50
1000
Clothing reimbursement cost is computed on the basis of a __ month life expectancy. Volume 2
36
1001
Reimbursement for eyeglass lenses and frames will be limited to $__, minus $__ deductible. Volume 2
$35 $5
1002
For recognition of exceptional performance, use Form Gen. __, Notice of Commendation. Volume 2
79
1003
To correct a deficiency use Form F-____, Personnel Notice. Volume 2
1104
1004
F-____ is for Member's Performance - Below the rank of Captain. Volume 2
1122
1005
F-____ is for Officer's Performance. Volume 2
1132
1006
F-____ is for Probationary Firefighter evaluation. Volume 2
1142
1007
Annual performance evaluation reports shall be forwarded to immediate superior __ days prior to member’s anniversary date in present rank or grade. Volume 2
45
1008
Members who are promoted to Captain and below and have received __-month and __-month Promotional Probation Evaluations are not required to be evaluated a __ time during a 12-month period, their annual evaluation may be omitted in this instance. Volume 2
2 month 5 month 3rd
1009
If a transfer will be effective within the __ day period prior to the member’s anniversary date, the evaluation will replace the annual. If a supervisor or member is transferring within __ months following an annual evaluation, no transfer evaluation is required. Volume 2
90 day 9 months
1010
FFPM who have completed the Fire Academy and have been assigned to a Fire Suppression assignment, will be evaluated monthly, due on the ___ shift of each month and will conclude with the ___ and final evaluation. Volume 2
1st shift; 8th
1011
For those instances when a rater has supervised a member for a short period (__ months), the rater is encouraged to contact the member’s previous supervisor for input. Volume 2
3-5 months
1012
Probationary Report (F-1142) shall be forwarded every __ day(s) from the date of assignment, providing the rated member has been under the direct supervision of a commanding officer for __ shifts or more. Volume 2
30 days 8 shifts
1013
Probationary reports shall be retained at the Battalion Level until the report that coincides with the member’s ___ month of service is submitted. Volume 2
10th
1014
Battalion Commanders shall forward all F-1142s, F-963 (Training Academy Rating Form), F-741 and an F-225 report stating recommendation for permanent appointment __ day(s) prior to expiration of probationary period. Volume 2
45
1015
Promotional Probationary Reports (F-1122 and F-1132) for CI, Fireboat Pilot/Mate, Engineer, Inspector I, and A/O shall be forwarded at the close of the ____ month of probationary period, or when personnel are transferred. Volume 2
2nd and 5th
1016
Recommendation for longevity pay in the class of FF or FFPM shall be forwarded __ days before completion of the ____ year of service. Volume 2
45 days 10th, 15th, and 20th
1017
Date that a member will be eligible for advancement to 6th step is forwarded from Personnel at the time of the member’s appointment or promotion & should be entered on Page __ in the member’s PRB. Volume 2
3
1018
Upon receipt of the F-225 for an honorary award, the Fire Chief will appoint a Board of Honorary Awards which shall consist of __ Deputy Chief(s), __ additional member(s) from the Chief Officer rank, and __ member(s) from the rank or Captain or below. Volume 2
1; 1; 1
1019
At least __ of the on-duty members shall be regularly assigned to the station. Volume 2
1/2
1020
For 2-member companies, at least __ on-duty member shall be regularly assigned to such company, without consideration of platoon. Volume 2
1
1021
Paramedic Assessment resources shall be staffed with a paramedic that has at least __ year(s) of Department ALS experience or have been certified by the Department to serve as the paramedic on an Assessment resource. Volume 2
2
1021
Paramedic Ambulances shall be staffed by 2 licensed paramedics, 1 of which must have at least __ year(s) of Department ALS assignment experience. Volume 2
1
1022
Paramedic Ambulances may be staffed with 1 paramedic and 1 EMT due to a short term, unanticipated paramedic vacancy. In such cases, the paramedic shall have at least __ year(s) of Department ALS assignment experience. Volume 2
1
1023
EMT ambulances shall be staffed by 2 EMT certified firefighters, __ of which shall be a Firefighter III, and __ of which should be assigned to the fire station housing the ambulance. Volume 2
1; 1
1023
Except for extended leaves, no request for time off which would permit a member to be absent from duty for a period exceeding __ days, including vacation, will be granted. Volume 2
65
1024
Maximum amount of banked time (SOD and AOD) that a member is allowed to accrue at the end of any pay period is ___ hours. Accumulation in excess requires approval of the Fire Chief. Volume 2
216
1025
AOD is taken in amounts of __ hours or more for special duty personnel and __ hours or more for platoon duty personnel (odd hours over and above that divisible by ___ may be taken in those amounts). Volume 2
4; 6; 4 or 6
1026
For special duty, 1 day will be either _____ hours. Volume 2
8, 9, or 10
1027
For platoon duty, 1 day is __ hours (odd hours less than 1-day increments may be taken in those amounts). Volume 2
12
1028
Total accumulated allowance carried over to the next year shall not exceed: 100% - 75% - 50% - Volume 2
136 105 105
1029
Extended leaves shall mean: Military leave (more than __ days) Civil service leave (in excess of __ days) Disciplinary leave (in excess of __ days) Family leave Volume 2
30; 15; 15
1029
Up to a maximum of __ days sick leave in any calendar year shall be allowed for illness/injury in the member’s immediate family. Volume 2
12
1029
Sick time is accumulated on the following basis: 100% - __ days per calendar year 75% - ___ days 50% - ___ days Volume 2
12 days 5 days 5 days
1030
“Calendar Year” means: Commencing on the 1st day of the pay period during which _____ occurs and ending on the day immediately preceding the first day of the pay period which the next succeeding _____ falls. Volume 2
January 1; January 1
1031
For voting leave, at least __ shift(s) notice must be given to member’s Commanding Officer. Volume 2
2
1032
__ employee(s) in the same family may take leave for the care of a new child or to care for a sick parent, but aggregate period of time to which both are entitled is limited to the time normally allowed for __ employee(s). Volume 2
2; 1
1032
Family leave will be approved for a maximum of _______ for purpose of childbirth, adoption or foster care of a child, serious health condition of an immediate family member, or serious health condition of the employee that renders them unable to perform the functions of their position. Volume 2
4 months
1032
To qualify for family leave, employee must have been continuously employed by the city for a period of ____ and worked at least ____ hours during the 12 months immediately preceding the beginning of the leave. Volume 2
1 year 1,040 hours
1033
Family leave is limited to __ month(s) in a 12 month period, regardless of the number of incidents measured from the 1st day of leave. Volume 2
4 months
1034
__ employee per incident per household shall normally be eligible for family leave. Volume 2
1
1035
CA code provides up to _____ of pregnancy disability leave, this is in addition to the time allowed under Family Leave provisions. Volume 2
4 months
1035
A member utilizing administrative undertime must notify the Station Commander by the ___ hour off duty as to the anticipated return to duty time. Volume 2
5th
1036
For school activity leave, employees may take off up to __ hours annually to participate in children’s school activities and not more than __ hours in any given month of the school year. Volume 2
40; 12
1037
Fire chief leave is a leave of absence without pay granted by the Fire Chief for a period not exceeding __ calendar days. Volume 2
15
1037
Normally F-225 is forwarded __ days in advance of the date on which Fire Chief leave is to begin. Volume 2
10
1038
Civil service leave is a leave of absence without pay for a period exceeding 15 calendar days. Volume 2
15
1038
Disciplinary leave is a suspension from duty not exceeding __ month(s). Volume 2
6
1039
Exchange of time shall involve a minimum duration of __ hour(s). Volume 2
6
1040
All exchanges of time within a calendar year shall be balanced and consummated no later than ____ hours January 1. Volume 2
0800
1041
For exchanges of time, each member may be permitted up to ___ hours off duty each calendar month and up to ___ hours off in the calendar year, in addition to the monthly allowance. Volume 2
144; 144
1042
For exchanges of time, ___ times each calendar month each member may be permitted to be off up to __ hours. Volume 2
2; 6
1043
Members with at least 1 year or aggregate service but less than 10 are entitled to __ days (__ shifts) per year. Volume 2
16; 8
1044
Members with at least 10 years or aggregate service but less than 30 are entitled to __ days (__ shifts) per year. Volume 2
24; 12
1045
Upon completion of 30 years, members shall receive __ additional vacation day for a total of __ days (___ shifts). Volume 2
1; 25; 12-1/2
1046
Platoon duty personnel must schedule and take at least __ segment (__ consecutive shifts) off. Volume 2
1; 3
1047
Member’s responsibility to inform station/unit commander (no later than the ___ day prior to the scheduled vacation) of the member’s intent to work his/her remaining vacation. Volume 2
9th
1048
Platoon duty uniformed members may float all but __ days of vacation per year. Volume 2
12
1049
By ___, all days not previously worked or taken off shall be scheduled to be worked, taken off during remainder of the year, or deferred into the following year. Volume 2
9/1
1050
Vacation selection for the year will have all days listed. The number of days available for selection is computed by: ___ days x 2 = ___ (12 hour days). Volume 2
122; 244
1051
Uniformed members selecting the segments that include Thanksgiving, Christmas Eve or Christmas Day shall secure a work guarantee for that day at least __ days but not more than __ days prior to starting their vacation. Volume 2
9; 60
1052
Uniformed members selecting individual vacation days on the listed major holidays shall secure a work guarantee at least __ days but not more than __ days prior to starting their vacation. Volume 2
9; 60
1053
Each of the following constitutes 1 vacation choice: __ consecutive vacation segments __ single vacation segments __ vacation segment __ individual vacation days __ individual vacation day Volume 2
4, 3, 2 2 1 2 1
1054
Platoon duty members must schedule __ segment (__ days) of vacation that must be taken off and an additional __ days of vacation that may be taken off or worked for compensation per year. Volume 2
1; 6 days; 6 days
1055
For platoon duty personnel on IOD or NIOD medical leave, the first day starts at ____ hours and the last day ends at ____ hours. Volume 2
0800; 2000
1056
Released for duty: The date and time that a disabled member is officially available for duty. For platoon duty personnel this shall be ____ hours. Volume 2
2000
1057
Level ___ Exposures require immediate notification of MLU. Volume 2
III
1058
Complete an F-225 or ____ for all Level __ Exposures. Volume 2
5020; II and III
1059
Members of this Bargaining Unit, assigned or detailed to Special Duty, who wish to donate blood shall be granted __ hour(s) of on-duty time from work. Volume 2
1
1060
Members may donate blood, on duty, a maximum of __ time(s) per year. Volume 2
4
1061
If you desire a change from your treating physician, you may request such change through MLU to the Workers’ Compensation Officer. Within __ days, they will furnish you the names of __ competent physicians and you may select 1 of them. Volume 2
12; 5
1062
Central Receiving Clinic Hours are ____ to ____. Volume 2
0730 to 1600
1063
Civilians off duty NIOD for more than __ consecutive working days shall forward a report of their condition, prepared by their physician, to MLU. Volume 2
25
1064
Commanders shall, on ____ day of each month, contact MLU and relay all pertinent info regarding tracking members off duty IOD/NIOD. Volume 2
1st business
1065
NIOD: Any appointment should be scheduled when member is off duty. When not possible, not more than __ hour(s) a year and not less than __ hour(s) at a time may be used for this purpose. Such time will be charged to allowable NIOD leave. Volume 2
16; 1
1066
Members on or off duty who become disabled NIOD shall notify the commanding officer on duty at their place of assignment as soon as possible. Such notification need not be made between _____ but shall be made before time members are scheduled for duty. Volume 2
2300 to 0630
1067
When a member anticipates being disabled for more than __ consecutive days NIOD, or whenever member is disabled more than __ consecutive days, member shall secure private medical treatment. Volume 3
3; 3
1068
Official return to duty for platoon duty personnel shall be ____ following notification. Volume 2
0630 or 1830
1069
For NIOD illness, __ consecutive calendar days or less, F-1001 not required but may be required at Commanding Officer’s discretion. Volume 2
3
1070
For NIOD illness, __ consecutive calendar days, a private medical treatment certificate or F-1001 is required. Volume 2
4-30
1071
For NIOD illness OR injury, __ consecutive calendar days or more, a private medical treatment certificate or F-1001 and return to duty through Medical Services Division is required. Volume 2
31
1072
For NIOD injury, __ consecutive calendar days, a private medical treatment certificate or F-1001 is required. Volume 2
1-30
1073
Hair may cover part of the ear, but the lower __” (when measured from bottom of ear) must remain exposed. Volume 2
1"
1074
Hair bulk shall not exceed ___” in depth, tapering at the sides & back to a maximum __” depth at the top of the collar when in dress uniform and a maximum of __” beyond the outer edge of the ear. Volume 2
1-1/2" 1" 1/4"
1075
All members shall be clean shaven by ____ hours and at any other time when reporting for duty or representing the department. Volume 2
0800
1075
Mustaches shall not cover upper lip, shall be well groomed, neatly trimmed, and not protrude beyond the natural facial “smile” crease nor extend beyond __” below corner of mouth. Volume 2
1/2"
1076
Female: Hair is long, shall be pulled back & secured off the face & neck. Single pony-tail or braid including french braids cannot extend any longer than __” from the top of the collar. Volume 2
6"
1077
Fingernails are to be kept neat & clean and shall be no longer than __” beyond the tip of the finger. Nail polish shall be pale in color and no bright colors allowed. Volume 2
1/8"
1078
When members are standing in a natural upright position, the tie should reach within __" of the belt buckle. Volume 2
1"
1079
“Dickie-style” and Blauer “Eisenhower style” former Chief Officer work jacket will no longer be approved optional wear after ____. Volume 2
7/1/2020
1079
Work shirt & jacket shall have member’s last name on right breast in __” high and not greater than __” thick. Chiefs gold lettering, all others white lettering. Volume 2
1/2" 1/4"
1079
A __” wide reflective blue band of tape shall be placed ___” below the shoulder and around both arms of yellow turnout coats/brush jackets assigned to each dual function FFPM. Volume 2
2" 4-6"
1080
Nightwear may be worn outside of quarters after ____ hours or on responses when donning of the prescribed uniform would be impractical (member in shower, engaged in physical fitness). In these instances, nightwear is intended to be an alternative to brush jacket or turnout coat when they are not specifically required. Volume 2
2000
1081
When members receive a new safety jacket or brush jacket, they shall stencil their last name on the back, centered with top of the letters approximately __” below bottom line of “Los Angeles Fire Department” wording using ___” stencils & black felt tip markers. Volume 2
2" 1-1/2"
1081
Turnout coat shall stencil last name centered on back with bottom of letters approximately __” above lowest reflective striping with ___” stencils & black felt tip markers. Volume 2
1" 1-1/2"
1082
Helmets are labeled with __” capitalized red letters centered on outer rear protective brim. Volume 2
1"
1082
All helmets shall have __" x ___” velcro loop attached on both sides of helmet. Volume 2
2" x 3-1/2"
1083
Grey reflective decal band __” x __” on sides of the helmet. Volume 2
1" x 4"
1083
On helmet, ___” x ___" black number plate with velcro hook backing shall be used as station numbering plates. Volume 2
2-½” x 3-½"
1084
Helmet station numbers ___” x ___” silver are permanently attached to black number plates. Volume 2
2-1/4" x 1-1/2"
1085
The jumpsuit may be worn on a __ hour basis. Volume 2
24
1085
When an assignment is three digits, the size of the numbering on the helmet shall be ___” x __”. Volume 2
2-1/4" x 1"
1086
Work cap specifications include "LAFD" in __" silver block letters with white border, or optional gold for chief. Volume 2
1"
1086
Uniform sleeve braids are Captain: __ silver BC: __ gold AC: __ gold DC: __ gold CD: __ gold Fire Chief: __ solid __" gold
2; 2; 3; 4; 4; 1 solid 2" gold
1086
Service stripes shall be affixed ___” above top seam of left cuff so that when sleeve is folded flat the left edge aligns with the top crease on the sleeve. Volume 2
1-1/2"
1087
F-225 for training requests is forwarded normally __ weeks in advance of training activity. Volume 2
6
1087
All intra-departmental cash receipts transmitted to Accounting Services Section must be accompanied by an F-___. Volume 2
275
1088
If a BFC meeting is to be held at a fire station, a FG-___ for equipment required shall be forwarded by the Station Commander, through channels, to the Fire Facilities Coordinator at least __ weeks prior to the meeting. Volume 2
FG-113 2
1089
Station Commanders shall normally cause all members to arise no later than ____ hours. Volume 2
0630
1090
Early relief is the __ minute period prior to the scheduled hour of duty of the oncoming platoon. Volume 2
90
1090
Members not properly relieved at ____ hours shall be compensated (EOD) for all time worked past ____ hours. Volume 2
0800; 0800
1091
Daily command roster is prepared at ____, each normally business day by Metro. Volume 2
0800
1092
Department Suggestion Committee shall consist of __ chief officers, __ firefighters, 1 of which shall be a paramedic, appointed by the Fire Chief. Secretary shall be an employee of the Department designated by the Fire Chief. Volume 2
2; 2;
1092
At ____ Station Commanders shall cause station members to line-up, assign duties as necessary, read orders and communication to members, and deliver any verbal information or instruction deemed necessary. Volume 2
0800
1093
Flag shall be displayed from ____ to ____ each day, weather permitting. On Memorial Day, May 30, flown at half-staff until ____ and raised to peak for remainder of the day. Volume 2
0800 to 1700; 1200
1094
Suggestions will be assigned 1 of __ dispositions. Volume 2
4 Recommend Approval Disapproval Referred Pending
1095
Suggested monetary awards are __% of estimated first year net savings, up to a max of $______, for any suggestion with an estimated net savings of $____ or more. Volume 2
25% $50,000 $100
1095
Voter registration forms are distributed at a convenient place in quarters between ____ and ____ daily. Volume 2
0800 and 2000
1096
To ride along on a rescue ambulance, must complete a minimum of ___ hours ride along as a Fire Cadet on a fire company, contact station commander at least __ hours prior, and report to station __ hour prior to ride out time. Volume 2
500; 72; 1/2
1097
Built-up fire hydrant is an assembled unit of ___" pipe surmounted by an angle valve with a ___" outlet. Volume 2
4" or 6" 2-1/2" or 4"
1098
Hydrants reported out of service which haven’t been restored within __ hours, shall be reported to HAU & BC by telephone. If can’t contact HAU then notify Metro. Volume 2
72
1099
Maximum period of time between hydrant test periods shall be _____. Volume 2
12 months
1100
Chief Officers or Station Commanders contemplating training activities requiring large GPM flows will notify HAU at least __ hours in advance to allow DWP to monitor water main system. Volume 2
48
1101
Fire Hydrant Report is F-___. Volume 2
367
1101
Report of Private Hydrant is F-___. Volume 2
366
1101
Hydrants located in Station ___ districts and shown as “Hard Suction” hydrants are designed for drafting only. Volume 2
86 & 91
1102
Fire Hydrant Test Record is F-__. Volume 2
70
1102
Fire Hydrant Record is F-__. Volume 2
95
1103
Of _____ hydrants in the city, __% will have street shutoff valve within ___’ of hydrants. Volume 2
56,000; 80%; 15'
1103
Fire hydrant gate valves may required ___ full turns to complete a shutdown. Volume 2
18 to 26
1104
__% of all fire hydrant gate valves close in a clockwise direction. Volume 2
98%
1104
1104
Water heating appliances shall be set at a maximum of ___ F. Volume 2
140 to 150
1105
When ambient temperature is between __ and __ F, open windows and discontinue use of power ventilators when possible. Volume 2
66 and 80
1106
Adjust heating/AC thermostats to start heating when temperature drops below __ F and cooling above __ F. Window units should not be turned on until temperature is above __ F. Volume 2
68; 78; 78
1107
Annual Facility Safety Inspections shall be conducted by Division Commanders and checklist filed/retained at the inspected facility for __ years. Volume 2
5
1108
Inspections shall take place bi-monthly, within the first __ weeks during even months. Volume 2
2
1109
At all times __ member(s) shall be designated as the station watch. Volume 2
1
1110
No visitors are allowed after ____ hours except for special events, when hours may be extended to ____ hours. Volume 2
2100; 2300
1111
When non-employees suffer injuries, FG-__ forwarded to Administrative Office for forwarding to Personnel. Volume 2
87
1112
During the time a bed is not occupied (normally between ____ and ____) it shall be dressed with Department bedspread only pulled even with the headboard. Volume 2
0630 and 2000
1113
All mattresses are marked with 1 through 4. Each unmarked mattress is to have a __” high number placed as near the top edge as possible. Volume 2
3"
1114
Mattresses shall be turned by __ member(s) to avoid bending/tearing the mattress. Volume 2
2
1115
Members on duty should retire between ____ and ____ and arise not later than ____. Sleeping on duty is normally prohibited between ____ and ____. Volume 2
2000 and 2300; 0630; 0630 and 2000
1116
Bulletin boards are of __ classifications. Volume 2
2 “Official Business” and “General Information”.
1117
“Official Business” bulletin board will be used to permanently post the Cal/OSHA info poster and to post the Cal/OSHA No. 300 A (Summary) on ____ and not removed until the end of business on ____. Volume 2
Feb 1st; April 30th
1118
Communications from employee organizations removal date shall not be more than __ day(s) from date of posting. Volume 2
60
1119
Stations housing an ambulance, EMS District Captain or a Chief, have “Day/Night” switch, which will be placed in the “day” position at ____ and left there until ____. Volume 2
0630; 2200
1120
Metro area includes Battalions ___ and stations ___. Volume 2
1, 2, 5, 11, 13; 58, 61, 68
1121
West LA teletype "area" includes battalions __ and stations __. Volume 2
4, 9 43 and 92
1122
__ bell indicates a "routine" message. Volume 2
1
1123
__ bells indicates an "urgent" message and requires an answer back. Volume 2
4
1124
__ bells indicates a "dispatch". Volume 2
5
1125
__ bells indicates a “death notice” and require an answer back. Volume 2
10
1125
Burning Index Low: ____ Moderate: ____ High: ____ Very High: ____ Extreme: ____
0-37 38-47 48-110 111-161 162 and above
1125
Fire Danger Rating is transmitted by teletype with fire weather and pre-deployment info between _____ daily. Volume 2
0700 and 0800
1126
A red flag alert is activated with BI is extreme, humidity is ___% or lower and wind speed is ___ mph or greater. Volume 2
15%; 25 mph
1126
Station Commanders shall notify Metro whenever a test is not received within __ minutes of the proper time. Volume 2
15
1126
0630 station message includes __ bells and a short message on the teletype. Volume 2
3
1127
Available “AVI”: Company is available to respond to an incident within __ seconds. Volume 2
60
1128
Emergency Traffic tone test is on Sundays at approximately ____. Volume 2
0815
1129
Conditionally Available (CAV): Fire resource, Assessment Engine and Assessment Light Force can respond within ____. Paramedic/EMT RAs shall be available within ____. Volume 2
3 minutes; 60 seconds
1130
Portable radio batteries shall be changed each morning at relief and if 1 of the following occurs: Continuous use in excess of __ hour(s) Radio LCD indiciates “Low battery” Audible “chirp” sounds when radio is turned on Volume 2
3
1131
If a radio battery is not at least __% at the end of the cycle a 2nd cycle should be performed, if it fails again then it should be exchanged. Volume 2
80%
1132
Quarterly training activity requirements include: __ hours minimum for Block 5 __ hours minimum for Block 1, 2, 3, 4 __ hours minimum for blocks 1 through 9 Volume 2
3; 27; 24
1133
Inlet to the portable monitor is a __" NH rocker lug swivel inlet. Book 29
4"
1134
The portable monitor should be securely tied to an object capable of withstanding ___ lbs. Book 29
900
1134
Portable monitor total weight is __ lbs. Book 29
61
1135
Portable monitor upper assembly weighs __ lbs. Book 29
17
1136
Portable monitor base weighs ___ lbs with integrated 4" shutoff weighing __ lbs. Book 29
43.7; 23
1136
Automatic drain valve on portable monitor closes automatically when pressure in monitor exceeds approximately __ psi. Book 29
5
1136
Portable monitor base is intended for maximum flows of ___ gpm, but Task Force Tips allows LAFD to flow up to ____ gpm. Book 29
800; 1000
1137
Portable monitor tie-down strap is __' long. Book 29
8'
1138
Elevation safety stop on portable monitor is __ degrees, at which approximately __% of the nozzle reaction force is acting sideways on the base. Book 29
35; 82%
1138
When the portable monitor nozzle is at an angle of __ degrees, the force acting sideways is equal to the force acting downward. Book 29
45
1139
Portable monitor has __ tungsten carbide tipped spikes on the legs and the base. Book 29
5 or 6
1139
Replace any portable monitor tipped spikes if the tip diameter exceeds ___". Book 29
1/16"
1140
Make the hose connection to the portable monitor base and extend the hose straight back form the portable base at least ___'. Book 29
10'
1140
Select a site for portable monitor operation with a flat even surface within __’ of the 4” supply hose that is looped around the monitor or a sturdy object that can be used as an attachment point for the anchor strap. Book 29
8'
1141
New ladder pipe assembly is Akron ____, replacing old Akron ____. TB 130
1495; 1496
1141
When using the hose loop as an anchor, place the 1st female coupling alongside the 4” hose approximately __’ back from the male coupling and strap the coupling to the hose at that point using a ladder strap. Book 29
10'
1142
LTI & ALF using Akron 1495 may flow ____ gpm using the __" straight tip OR Akron Turbo Master Spray Nozzle. TB 130
1000 gpm 2"
1143
Seagrave aerial ladders ar elimited to ___ gpm using the ___ straight tip or ___ gpm setting on the spray nozzle. Prohibited from using 2” tip or flowing 1000 gpm. TB 130
800 gpm 1-1/2" or 1-3/4" straight, 500 gpm spray
1144
Ladder pipe assembly shall be secured to the top __ rungs on the fly section. TB 130
2
1145
Be sure the ladder pipe assembly is centered and securely attached to rungs and all __ ball lock pins are in place before flowing water. Ladder straps should not be utilized to secure the Akron 1495 onto the ladder. TB 130
4
1146
Ladder pipe assembly pressures are calculated to include pumping through the cluster, ___’ of 3” hose, ladder pipe assembly and tip, with the aerial ladder extended to __’. TB 130
100' 70'
1147
Ladder pipe smooth bore nozzle pressures: 1-1/2" 600 gpm @ ___ psi 1-3/4" 800 gpm @ ___ psi 2" 1000 gpm @ ___ psi TB 130
150 170 190
1148
Ladder pipe Akron Turbo Master pressures 350 gpm @ ___ psi 500 gpm @ ___ psi 750 gpm @ ___ psi 1000 gpm @ ___ psi TB 130
140 160 180 220
1149
Ladder pipe assembly Hydro-Foam Nozzle flows ___ gpm at ___ psi to the cluster. TB 130
660 gpm @ 175 psi
1150
Hydraulic system pressure gauges should register between ____ lbs with pump operating and all control levers at neutral. When any of the control levers are moved to a position requiring high pressure, it should register ____ lbs. Book 6
60-125; 800-900
1151
The ladder extension indicator gauge height reached by the ladder when at approximately an __ degree angle from the horizontal. Book 6
80
1152
Hoisting stop should be adjusted to stop the ladder when it has reached an angle of inclination of about __ degrees. Book 6
85
1152
A hand brake on the left side of the driver’s seat applies __ psi to the brake chambers on all __ wheels when raised. Book 6
50; 6
1153
Extension stop should stop the 2nd section at such a position that the 2nd rung above the lower head block is about __" above the lower ladder lock pawls. Book 6
1-1/2" to 2"
1154
Retracting stop should be adjusted to stop the 2nd section about ___" above the rubber bumpers. Book 6
3" or 4"
1154
A hydro-mechanical aerial ladder has a hydraulic control handle with __ positions. Book 6
4 up, hold, down, and force down
1154
The best aerial climbing angle(s) are ___ degrees. Book 6
70-80
1155
There are __ separate electrical circuits to the aerial ladder turntable. Book 6
3 throttle, starter, light
1155
In the downtown area, the curbs are approximately __’ from the building line. Book 6
11'
1156
1157
Where a spot can be made next to the curb, aerial can operate between the ___ and ___ floors and maintain a climbing angle of between ____ degrees. Book 6
5th & 8th; 70-80
1158
Any operation below the ___ floor on a curb spot will result in climbing angles of less than 70 degrees. Book 6
5th
1159
Where the aerial spot is made outside the line of cars, any operation below the ___ floor will be conducted at a climbing angle of less than 70 degrees. Book 6
7th
1160
1161
Tilt of an aerial ladder will increase as ladder is moved from an in-line position to a __ degree angle. Tilt with a __ degree angle will be ½ as great as the tile at a __ degree angle. Book 6
90; 45; 90
1162
Ideal angle for jack-knifing is about __ degrees from in-line and away from direction of ladder extension, known as an outside jack-knife. Book 6
60
1163
Even when tractor is jack-knifed as much as __ degrees, truck stability is more than __ times as great as when in the in-line position. Book 6
30; 2
1164
It is best to have ladder hoisted to at least __ degrees before operating the other controls. Book 6
45
1165
For windows & fire escape balconies, raise the aerial ladder ___ above the sill or railing. Book 6
1'
1166
What is the man limit on an aerial ladder that is supported at the end, with a normal weight distribution and a loaded hose line: 80 degrees - __ men 70 degrees - __ men 60 degrees - __ men 45 degrees - __ men 30 degrees - __ men Book 6
8; 8; 6; 4; 3
1166
If the aerial ladder is to be unsupported, the preferred angle is ___ degrees where the ladder will support __ men evenly spaced. Book 6
70 to 80; 3
1167
When an aerial ladder is supported at the end, with a normal weight distribution and a loaded hose line, for angles below __ degrees, the apparatus MUST be jacknifed and __ men is the limit on the fly section. Book 6
45; 2
1167
What is the man-load for an unsupported aerial without a loaded line for 80 degrees - __ men 70 degrees - __ men 60 degrees - __ men 45 degrees - __ men 30 degrees - __ men 0 degrees - __ men
4; 4; 3; 2; 0; 0
1167
A quick method of determining maximum man-load is to divide the horizontal distance in feet between the base of the ladder and the building into ___. ___ / distance = man-load Book 6
270
1168
During high winds, __ miles per hour and over, use extra caution in operating the aerial ladder and it may be advisable to attach guy ropes to the top of the fly if it is to be extended above __’. Book 6
35 mph; 75'
1168
When rigging a rope or cable on the aerial ladder, it should be attached to the block head of the ___ section, do not use the fly section unless absolutely necessary. Book 6
2nd
1168
For an unsupported aerial without a loaded line, for angles below __ degrees, the apparatus MUST be jackknifed and __ man is the limit on the fly section. Book 6
70; 1
1169
For most aerial trucks it is desirable to prevent ladder pipe nozzle reaction from reducing cylinder pressure to less than ___ psi. Book 6
100
1169
When using a ladderpipe on the aerial ladder, If more than a __ degree horizontal sweep from the center is required, it is best to rotate the turntable, preferably by hand crank. Book 6
15
1170
Defensive driving involves making __ type(s) of predictions. Book 6
2 Predict the predictable Predict the unpredictable
1171
1172
Perception time: The time lapse from sighting a situation to the time that you recognize the situation, __ second(s) on average. Book 6
¾
1172
Reaction time: Time lapse from recognizing a situation to reacting to it, __ second(s) on average. Book 6
¾
1173
Switch on turn signals ___ or more feet ahead of the turn. Book 6
100
1174
Watch all objects for ___ ahead when in town, ___ ahead when on rural roads. Book 6
1 block; 1/2 mile
1174
Tests have indicated that “around the corner” audibility, at intersections where buildings are located, is as much as ⅔ less than on a straightaway. Book 6
1175
Siren audibility is diminished __ inside of a vehicle when all windows are closed. Book 6
1175
Perception + Reaction Distance is the feet traveled in ___ second(s). Book 6
1-½
1176
Brake lag distance is the feet traveled in ___ second(s). Book 6
0.4
1177
When starting from a dead stop, the interval of clutch slippage should not exceed ___ seconds. Book 6
1-½
1177
Split = __% of peak engine speed - (__% of peak gear engine speed x ratio / next lower gear ratio) Book 6
90% 90%
1177
Overspeeding is any engine rpm over __% of peak engine speed. Book 6
90%
1178
If over __ a turn(s) of the steering wheel is required while turning, do not shift during the turn as both hands are needed on the wheel. Book 6
½
1178
If engine rpm approaches __% of peak speed, shift into a higher gear; when engine is under load and rpms fall to bottom of operating range, shift to a lower gear. Book 6
90%
1178
Double clutching is a __ part operation. Book 6
2 1. Depress the clutch, shift to neutral, then re-engage the clutch to allow the transmission counter shaft to rotate at the correct speed 2. When engine has accelerated/decelerated to the correct speed, disengage the clutch, shift into gear, then release the clutch
1178
According to Book 6, AOTM, the suggested position for hands on the steering wheel is ____ o'clock. Book 6
10 & 2
1179
Engine will give its most efficient operation if rpms can be maintained somewhere between the speed at which maximum torque is developed and __% of peak engine speed. Book 6
90%
1180
Tillering Horn Signals Stop = __ blast(s) Forward = __ blast(s) Reverse = __ blast(s)
1; 2; 3
1181
After a hard run or a long climb, the temperature of a turbocharger will rise as much as ___ F over normal operating temperature of ____ F, the engine MUST NOT be shut off at this temperature. Book 6
100 F; 900 to 1100 F
1182
No vehicle shall follow any fire apparatus closer than ____ or park any vehicle within the block where such fire apparatus, or other emergency vehicle, has stopped. Book 6
1 block
1183
No person shall stop, park, or leave standing any vehicle or any Harbor Department roadway within __’ of any fire hydrant except when such vehicle is attended by a licensed operator who can conveniently move such vehicle when necessary. Book 6
15'
1184
Command Post should be at least ____ feet away from the explosion site at a bomb scene incident. TB 75
1,000 feet
1184
Approximately __% of all terrorist incidents involve the use of explosives and incendiary agents. TB 75
70%
1184
A perimeter of at least ___ feet should be established around any suspicious device and no one should be allowed inside this perimeter. TB 75
300
1185
There are __ types of blast injuries. TB 75
4 Primary Secondary Tertiary Quarternary
1185
LAFD has __ qualified and certified Incident Management Teams (IMTs) which rotate an on-call status each week. TB 75
3
1186
At a bomb scene incident, When an explosion occurs, very hot gases (between ____ and ____ F) are formed in approximately _____ of a second that exert pressure in the range of ___ tons per square inch on the surrounding atmosphere at velocities of up to _____ mph. TB 75
3,000 and 7,000 F 1/10,000 700 tons 13,000 mph
1186
There are __ primary effects of an explosion. TB 75
3 Blast pressure effect Fragmentation effect Thermal effect
1187
Which form is the red letterhead with boxes used for intra-departmental correspondence, which is routed “through channels”? Volume 5
F-225
1188
Which form is the red letterhead without boxes and used for intra-departmental correspondence, including correspondence with the Board of Fire? Volume 5
F-223
1189
Which form is the black letterhead and used for correspondence directed to elected city officials, correspondence with over governmental agencies, and the public? Volume 5
F-228
1190
The test period of a "Temp" form will be _____. Volume 5
6 months or less
1191
Station commanders shall have a separate folder for each member arranged by platoon containing what 9 forms? Volume 5
F-23 F-26 F-5020 F-166A F-351 F-351A F-360 F-361 F-1150
1192
Fire Code states that all fire prevention inspection records shall be maintained for a period of not less than __ years from the date of making such record, and records older than that may be discarded if they have no further value to the Fire Department. Volume 5
3
1193
Occupancy Record File is composed primarily of __ sections. Volume 5
3 Pending File Occupancy Records Brush Clearance Program
1194
The Pre-Fire Planning file is composed of __ principal sections in the following order. Volume 5
2 Maps Inspections outside a Station’s first-in district
1195
All Hazardous Materials exceeding __ gallons for liquids, ___ cu. ft. for gases, or ___ lbs for solids are required to be disclosed. Volume 5
55; 200; 500
1196