law Flashcards
(390 cards)
1
Q
You attend the scene of a major traffic crash involving a heavy vehicle. The heavy vehicle has sustained damage in the crash which you reasonably believe is not an imminent and serious safety risk. You may:
A. issue a minor defect notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
B. issue a major defect notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
C. issue a minor repair notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
D. issue a major repair notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle.
A
A. issue a minor defect notice to the driver of the heavy vehicle
2
Q
You attend the scene of an apparent death at which the ambulance is also present. Unless special circumstances exist, ambulance officers will NOT transport bodies if:
A. they believe resuscitation procedures should continue.
B. they become aware the deceased has agreed to donate organs or other body tissues.
C. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view.
D. death occurred more than 24 hours prior.
A
D. death occurred more than 24 hours prior
3
Q
You are the OIC of a ‘Found property’ matter and have made all reasonable enquiries to locate the owner without success. The finder wanted to claim the property if this was the case. To facilitate the finder’s claim, you must:
A. complete a note in the relevant EFIMS record authorizing the release of the property to the finder.
B. print a copy of the relevant EFIMS receipt and send it to the finder to enable a claim to be made.
C. print a P91E form and send it through your commander to the finder who must present the form to collect the property.
D. inform the finder to submit a written claim to your commander.
A
C. print a P91E form and send it through your commander to the finder who must present the form to collect the property.
4
Q
When a person executing a search warrant issued under LEPRA seizes a thing, the person shall, if the occupier of the premises is then present in or on the premises and it is reasonably practical to do so, provide the occupier with a:
A. copy of the NSWPF Search Warrant SOPs.
B. copy of the search warrant application.
C. signed receipt for anything seized.
D. copy of the search warrant.
A
C. signed receipt for anything seized
5
Q
During the first two or three hours of detention, a person affected by alcohol or drugs should be woken and spoken to. This is to assess their sobriety and review the level of risk. This should be done at least every.
every 30 minutes.
A
every 30 minutes
6
Q
It is NOT an offence for a young person who is in the company of a responsible adult to:
A. drink alcohol in a bar area of an hotel.
B. drink alcohol in an area of the hotel authorised for minors.
C. be present in an area of the hotel authorised for minors.
D. use an amusement device in a bar area of an hotel.
A
C. be present in an area of the hotel authorised for minors
7
Q
You attempt to investigate a complaint of offensive noise emitted from premises within the previous 7 days but are denied entry. After obtaining a warrant and entering the premises, you have the power to require the occupier or a person causing/contributing to the making of the noise to furnish:
A. their name only.
B. their name and address.
C. their name and telephone number.
D. any information necessary to investigate the complaint.
A
B. their name and address
8
Q
Unless otherwise ordered by the Court, a warrant to arrest a person issued under the Family Law Act cannot be executed after a certain period of time unless the Court orders otherwise. The period of time is
6 months
A
6 months
9
Q
A coroner does not have jurisdiction to hold an inquest concerning a death or suspected death unless it appears to the coroner that the circumstances meet one or more of the criteria set out in s 18 of the Coroners Act 2009. Of the following, which is NOT one of that criteria?
A. The remains of the person are in NSW.
B. The death or suspected death or the cause of the death or suspected death occurred in NSW.
C. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.
D. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW but the person had sufficient connection with NSW.
A
C. The death or suspected death occurred outside NSW and, although the person did not reside in NSW, was born in NSW.
10
Q
Unless it is withdrawn sooner by the issuing magistrate or extended or it has been executed, if no time of expiry is specified in a search warrant issued under LEPRA (other than a telephone warrant, a covert search warrant or a criminal organisation search warrant), the warrant expires
A. 12 hours after its issue.
B. 24 hours after its issue.
C. 48 hours after its issue.
D. 72 hours after its issue.
A
D. 72 hours after its issue.
11
Q
An application to vary or revoke a final apprehended violence order can only be made by certain people. Of the following, who is NOT permitted to make such an application?
A. A police officer.
B. The protected person.
C. A friend of the protected person.
D. The defendant.
A
C. A friend of the protected person.
12
Q
The power to take particulars (photograph, fingerprints and palm prints) necessary to identify a person over the age of 14 years who is in lawful custody for any offence is found in:
(a) the NSW Police Force Handbook - Fingerprints.
(b) the Common law.
(c) s 133 of LEPRA.
(d) s 76 of the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000.
A
s 133 of LEPRA
13
Q
Police have lawfully gained entry into a dwelling to investigate a domestic violence complaint. By virtue of s 85 of LEPRA they:
A. may search for firearms or other weapons.
B. must inquire as to the presence of firearms in the dwelling.
C. may search the house for any prohibited weapon/s.
D. may not search for any firearm/s.
A
B. must inquire as to the presence of firearms in the dwelling
14
Q
When a drug, which is not less than the trafficable quantity, is in police possession it is to be taken to an analyst for analysis as soon as practicable after coming into police possession no later than:
A. 7 days.
B. 14 days.
C. 21 days.
D. 28 days
A
B. 14 days
15
Q
A police officer who obtains a search warrant is to furnish a report in writing to the issuing magistrate setting out certain information. The report is to be submitted within a certain time period of the warrant being executed, or its expiration. The specified time period is:
A. 5 days.
B. 7 days.
C. 10 days.
D. 14 days.
A
C. 10 days
16
Q
Under the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 a noise abatement direction remains in force for:
A. 7 days unless otherwise stated.
B. 5 days unless otherwise stated.
C. 14 days unless otherwise stated.
D. 28 days unless otherwise stated.
A
D. 28 days unless otherwise stated
17
Q
For the purposes of issuing a Child Alert, a child is classified as being: A. under 18 years old. B. 16 years old or younger. C. 14 years old or younger. D. 10 years old or younger.
A
B. 16 years old or younger.
18
Q
An Hotel License applies to licensed premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption:
(a) off the premises only.
(b) on the premises only.
(c) on or away from the premises.
(d) on the premises of a registered club.
A
on or away from the premises
19
Q
Which of the following is not a prohibited weapon under the Weapons Prohibition Act 1998?
(a) A butterfly knife.
(b) A samurai sword.
(c) A walking stick containing a sword.
(d) A studded glove.
A
A samurai sword
20
Q
The length of a motor vehicle (other than an articulated vehicle, a bus or a trailer) must not exceed:
(a) 10 metres.
(b) 11.5 metres.
(c) 12.5 metres.
(d) 14 metres.
A
12.5 metres
21
Q
When a certificate as to cause of death has been issued and the body is not otherwise required to be conveyed to the morgue, transportation of the body should be arranged by:
(a) the attending police officers.
(b) the relatives or friends of the deceased.
(c) the Coroner.
(d) the Government Medical Officer.
A
the relatives or friends of the deceased
22
Q
When serving a Court Attendance Notice on an accused who is an inmate of a correctional centre, the notice should be served on:
(a) the inmate.
(b) any corrective services officer of or above the rank of Assistant Superintendent.
(c) any corrective services officer who at that time is in
charge of the unit or wing where the inmate is held.
(d) the general manager of the correctional centre.
(d) all of the above.
A
the general manager of the correctional centre
23
Q
If you are unable to serve the respondent copy of an application notice after taking all reasonable steps to do so, what action could be taken?
(a) Assign a new court date.
(b) Apply for substituted service.
(c) Apply to file the Application notice unserved in the court registry.
(d) All the above.
A
All the above
24
Q
Your LAC intelligence officer tells you that, based on a number of intelligence reports, a person is suspected of selling stolen property from a house in your LAC. You attend the house in order to make inquiries. You would be lawfully entitled to enter the house:
(a) pursuant to your common law powers.
(b) by virtue of a search warrant.
(c) after announcing your office and reason for seeking entry.
(d) with the informed consent of an authorised justice.
A
by virtue of a search warrant
25
Except for a telephone search warrant, an application for a search warrant under LEPRA must be made:
(a) orally to an eligible issuing officer.
(b) in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer.
(c) orally to any Justice of the Peace.
(d) in writing and in person to any Justice of the Peace.
in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer
26
Offences under the Firearms Act 1996 may be dealt with in a summary manner before the Local Court if the court attendance notice was issued within:
(a) 6 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(b) 12 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(c) 2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
(d) 18 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed
27
Police are called to a shopping centre in relation to a domestic violence assault involving a woman and her adult daughter. During the course of enquiries, police are told that the woman has a firearm at the family home. In relation to the woman's firearm, police:
(a) can search the woman's home for the firearm without a search warrant or the woman's consent.
(b) cannot search the woman's home as the assault did not occur there.
(c) must apply for a search warrant.
(d) can search the woman's home without a search warrant ONLY if she is the holder of a current NSW Firearms Licence.
must apply for a search warrant
28
At the conclusion of your investigations into a domestic violence offence you apply for an interim AVO against the holder of a licence authorising them to possess a firearm. In accordance with Section 23 of the Firearms Act 1996, this licence must be suspended and confiscated. The licence is suspended until:
(a) the order is served upon the person.
(b) the order is confirmed or revoked.
(c) the appeal period of 21 days has expired.
(d) the expiration of a 72 hour 'cooling off' period.
the order is confirmed or revoked
29
The Protection of the Environment Operations regulations sets out times during which certain articles may generally be used. The times during which musical instruments or electrically amplified sound equipment may be used on a Friday or Saturday is:
(a) 8am-Midnight.
(b) 6am-Midnight.
(c) 9am-11pm.
(d) 7am-11pm.
8am-Midnight
30
The Cannabis Cautioning Scheme covers offences involving:
(a) all forms of cannabis and it's derivatives.
(b) all synthetic forms of cannabis only.
(c) equipment for administering cannabis only.
(d) dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration.
dried cannabis leaf, stalks, heads, and equipment for administration
31
While on patrol you stop a motor vehicle fitted with diplomatic plates that is being driven erratically. The driver produces identification confirming he is a diplomatic agent. You suspect he is intoxicated but he refuses to submit to a breath test. You would:
(a) inform the driver it is an offence to refuse the test and repeat your request until he complies.
(b) make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
(c) inform the driver he will be arrested for refusing the breath test if he does not comply.
(d) arrest the driver and take him to the police station for the purpose of a breath analysis
make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
32
When commencing a search of a room in response to a bomb threat, you should search first:
(a) from floor level to waist height.
(b) from floor level to head height.
(c) from floor to ceiling.
(d) from ceiling to floor.
from floor level to waist height
33
What priority level would you classify a suspicious substance incident involving an actual threat or risk to the health and safety of a high-profile person?
(a) Green.
(b) Blue.
(c) Red.
(d) White.
Red
34
You have witnessed an adult consuming alcohol in a current alcohol free zone. As a police officer you may:
(a) Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
(b) Issue a penalty notice.
(c) Issue a caution and seize the alcohol.
(d) Warn the person that drinking in an alcohol free zone is not an offence.
Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately
35
A bar area of a hotel is?
(a) Any part of the inside of a hotel.
(b) A part of the premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption on the premises with exceptions.
(c) A part of the premises where liquor is supplied to lodgers or inmates only.
(d) A part of the premises where liquor is sold in a dining room where meals are served.
Any part of the inside of a hotel
36
Under s 86 of the Liquor Act 2007, a Local Court may order a licensee to close a licensed premises if they are satisfied that there is, or likely to be, a breach of peace in the neighbourhood or the premises. Who can apply to the Local Court for the order?
(a) a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
(b) an authorised inspector under the Act.
(c) any police officer.
(d) any person.
any person
37
Within how many days after the seizure of a dangerous article does the person from whom it was seized or its owner have to apply for its return?
(a) 7 days. (b) 14 days. (c) 28 days. (d) 60 days
28 days
38
The safeguards set out in Part 15 of LEPRA must be applied:
(a) at your discretion.
(b) any time you exercise a power referred to in s.201 of LEPRA.
(c) ONLY when exercising a power in a private place.
(d) ONLY when exercising a power in a public place.
any time you exercise a power referred to in s.201 of LEPRA
39
You attend a domestic violence incident where the victim informs you her partner is growing cannabis in the backyard. Her partner is present and hears this. You walk outside and locate three cannabis plants. Does the victim meet the definition of a Human Source?
(a) Yes, the victim has provided credible information about a crime.
(b) No, as there is no need to protect this person's identity.
(c) Yes, as the victim might be a source of other criminal intelligence.
(d) No, as the victim is obviously complicit in the crime.
No, as there is no need to protect this person's identity
40
Section 93Y of the Crimes Act 1900 sets out certain circumstances that may be a statutory defence for the offence of Consorting. Which of the following is NOT a statutory defence to consorting?
Socialising with close associates
Socialising with close associates
41
A police officer who requires a person to remove any face covering worn by the person pursuant to s 19A of LEPRA must, as far as reasonably practicable, ensure certain procedures are followed. Of the following, which is NOT one of those procedures?
(a) Ask for the person's co-operation.
(b) Conduct the viewing in a way that provides reasonable privacy for the person if the person requests privacy.
(c) Conduct the viewing in the presence of a support person if the person requests a support person to be present.
(d) Conduct the viewing as quickly as is reasonably practicable.
Conduct the viewing in the presence of a support person if the person requests a support person to be present.
42
There are three tiers of consultation that underpin the Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2012 - 2017. Of the following, which is NOT one of those tiers?
(a) Police Aboriginal Consultative Committee (PACC).
(b) Aboriginal Strategic Direction Steering Committee (ASDSC).
(c) Police Aboriginal Strategic Advisory Council (PASAC).
(d) Aboriginal Issues Forum (AIF).
Aboriginal Issues Forum (AIF).
43
A person walking along a footpath is stabbed during a failed robbery attempt. He staggers into the driveway of a residence, collapses and dies. You attend and commence abolishing a crime scene. The owner arrives and tells you to remove the body immediately. Can you remain?
(a) Yes, providing you comply with Part 7 of LEPRA.
(b) Yes, if you comply with Part 3.4 of the Coroners Act 2009.
(c) Yes, if you comply with Part 9 of LEPRA.
(d) Yes, if you comply with s 230 of LEPRA.
Yes, providing you comply with Part 7 of LEPRA
44
3247 Police may search an aircraft pursuant to s 42 of LEPRA and seize things without warrant if they suspect on reasonable grounds that which of the following exists?
(a) The aircraft contains, or a person in the aircraft has in his or her possession/control anything lawfully obtained.
(b) The aircraft contains, or a person in the aircraft has in his or her possession/control anything not stolen.
(c) The aircraft is being or was used in or in connection with the commission of any offence.
(d) The aircraft is being or was used in or in connection with the commission of a relevant offence.
The aircraft contains, or a person in the aircraft has in his or her possession/control anything lawfully obtained.
45
You become aware of a registrable person residing in your LAC who is not reporting. You make certain enquiries and learn the sentencing court failed to inform the person of their obligations or issue the required notices. The person is neither a flight risk nor hiding from police. You would:
(a) notify the sentencing court of the error.
(b) prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the sentencing court
.
(c) prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the Local Court
.
(d) prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person
prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person
46
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym 'HOT ALERTS'. What does 'RT' stand for?
(a) Receipt of Threat. (b) Recognition of Threat.
(c) Removal of Threat. (d) Rejection of Threat.
Receipt of Threat
47
The power of a police officer to issue a move on direction to an intoxicated person in a public place comes from:
(a) s 197 of LEPRA.
(b) s 276 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997.
(c) s 198 of LEPRA.
(d) s 28F of the Summary Offences Act 1988.
s 198 of LEPRA
48
You attend a residence in relation to a domestic violence incident where a 14-year-old boy assaulted his mother by slapping her face. He admits the offence and has no prior history of violence. You would:
(a) issue a Court Attendance Notice as the offence is not covered by the Young Offenders Act 1997.
(b) issue a warning for the offence in accordance with Part 3 of the Young Offenders Act 1997
.
(c) recommend to an SYO that the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
(d) with the consent of the boy's mother, you would record the incident such that the Young Offenders Act 1997 would apply.
recommend to an SYO that the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
49
Unless otherwise exempted, the holder of a Class 1 or Class 2 security licence must at all times while carrying on a security activity:
(a) carry a baton, handcuffs and, if licensed to do so, an approved firearm registered to his or her employer.
(b) carry an approved communication device that enables the licence holder to call for assistance at any time.
(c) wear on his or her person their original security licence so that it is clearly visible.
(d) wear an approved tracking device capable of monitoring the whereabouts of the licence holder at any time.
wear on his or her person their original security licence so that it is clearly visible
50
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘HOT’ stand for?
(a) Hidden, Obvious, Tampered.
(b) Hidden, Obvious, Typical.
(c) Hidden, Obvious, Ticking.
(d) Hidden, Obvious, Threat
Hidden, Obvious, Typical
51
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘ALE’ stand for?
(a) Alert Level Eradicated. (b) Alert Level Escalated.
(c) Alert Level Eliminated. (d) Alert Level Elevated.
Alert Level Elevated
52
A Police Aboriginal Consultative Committee (PACC) is the first tier of the advisory bodies within the NSWPF Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2012-2017. PACCs are established within a LAC specifically to address aboriginal issues associated with:
(a) crime and crime prevention.
(b) police recruitment.
(c) aboriginal customary law.
(d) culture and sensitivities
crime and crime prevention
53
You have an arrest warrant in your possession for a person. You attend the person's residence but he refuses to let you in. You may enter the premises to effect the arrest:
(a) without the person's consent.
(b) only with the person's consent.
(c) only with the consent of any other lawful occupier. (d) only if the warrant is endorsed to allow entry.
without the person's consent
54
Section 138 of LEPRA authorises a medical practitioner to examine a person in lawful custody who has been charged with an offence, on the request of a police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant. This medical examination is for:
(a) the purpose of obtaining evidence as to the commission of the offence.
(b) the purpose of obtaining a medical background of the offender.
(c) determining the person's approximate level of sobriety at the time of the offence.
(d) determining whether the person is capable of participating in any investigative procedure
the purpose of obtaining evidence as to the commission of the offence
55
You attend premises in relation to a noise complaint and, after investigating the matter, issue a noise abatement direction. This direction will remain in force for up to:
(a) 8 hours from the time it is given.
(b) 7 days from the time it is given.
(c) 26 days from the time it is given.
(d) 28 days from the time it is given.
28 days from the time it is given
56
CAT Q700
Under the provisions of the Liquor Act, a 'packaged liquor licence’ defines premises where liquor:
(a) sold and supplied for consumption on the premises.
(b) sold to customers away from the licensed premises.
(c) sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.
(d) sold to customers on the premises but not in the bar area.
sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises
57
s 11A of the Summary Offences Act 1988 sets out that a certain number of people who are together and who use or threaten unlawful violence commit an offence of violent disorder. The number of people who must be present is:
(a) 2 or more.
(b) 3 or more.
(c) 5 or more.
(d) 12 or more.
3 or more
58
Which of the following is a non-intimate forensic procedure?
a self-administered buccal swab,
a self-administered buccal swab
59
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, the time limit for carrying out a forensic procedure on a suspect not under arrest is?
(a) As quickly as possible but within 4 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself including any time out.
(b) As quickly as possible but within 4 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself excluding any time out.
(c) As quickly as possible but within 2 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself including any time out.
(d) As quickly as possible but within 2 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself excluding any time out.
(d) As quickly as possible but within 2 hours after the suspect presents himself or herself excluding any time out.
60
What firearm part from the list below needs to be registered?
(a) Firearm frame.
(b) Sights.
(c) Trigger mechanism.
(d) Magazine spring
Firearm frame.
61
Briefs of evidence for matters prosecuted by the DPP must be checked by:
(a) the Brief Manager (or prosecutor at Practice Management Model LACs).
(b) the instructing solicitor for the DPP.
(c) the case officer for the DPP for the particular matter.
(d) the Crown prosecutor for the DPP.
the Brief Manager (or prosecutor at Practice Management Model LACs).
62
What MUST the NSW Police Force do when attending all suspicious substance incidents classified as either RED (High Risk) or BLUE (Medium Risk)?
The NSWPF must investigate the incident and initiate Disaster Victim Registration (DVR).
The NSWPF must investigate the incident and initiate Disaster Victim Registration (DVR).
63
Are you required to comply with the safeguards pursuant to Part 15 of LEPRA when conducting a knife search of a student at the student's school?
(a) No, Part 15 only applies when exercising powers in a public place
.
(b) No, but ONLY if the search is conducted in the presence of an adult nominated by the student.
(c) Yes, you must always comply with the safeguards.
(d) Yes, but ONLY if you reasonably suspect the student does not comprehend the reason for the search.
Yes, you must always comply with the safeguards
64
A Critical incident may arise where a person dies or is seriously injured in an incident involving a level of police interaction. Which of the following statements IS NOT correct procedure following a critical incident?
(a) A Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent is responsible for authorising public statements.
(b) The Police Media Unit should provide the media with basic approved facts.
(c) The Coroner is the only authority that should make comment in regards to a critical incident.
(d) During the investigation phase, the Region Commander or equivalent is responsible for authorising public statements.
(b) The Police Media Unit should provide the media with basic approved facts.
65
1989 allows police to seize and hold property which may then be forfeited to the Crown upon conviction. There are three types of confiscation orders: Forfeiture Orders, Drug Proceeds Orders and Pecuniary Penalty Orders. What is the relevant period in which these orders can be applied for?
(a) Within 12 months of conviction.
(b) Within 18 months of conviction.
(c) Within six months of conviction.
(d) Within 2 years of conviction.
Within six months of conviction.
66
CAT Q3363 Before taking an exhibit to a forensic service provider, you should:
(a) Record the details in your official police notebook and have the shift supervisor sign the entry.
(b) Create an 'OCCURRENCE ONLY' event in WebCOPS.
(c) Record the movement as a transaction in EFIMS.
(d) Notify your Commander via email.
Record the movement as a transaction in EFIMS
67
Section 5 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989 lists the four stages of an emergency as:
(a) prevention, preparation, response and relief.
(b) prevention, preparation, response and recovery.
(c) prevention, preparation, response and retreat.
(d) prevention, preparation, response and reclamation.
prevention, preparation, response and recovery
68
There are 6 main functions within the Incident Command and Control System (ICCS) model. These are: Planning, Operations, Administration & Logistics, Investigations, Intelligence and:
(a) Public Interaction
(b) Public Intervention.
(c) Public Interest.
(d) Public Information.
(d) Public Information
69
A declarable association exists when a NSW Police Force employee is associated with certain persons, groups or organisations who are engaged in activities incompatible with the NSW Police Force. These activities are UNLIKELY to include:
(a) regular use of illicit drugs.
(b) membership of an Outlaw Motorcycle Gang (OMG).
(c) membership of a registered political party.
(d) a close relationship of a police officer who is currently suspended.
(c) membership of a registered political party.
70
While talking to a man at the front door of his residence, you see a box of ammunition on a shelf in the hallway. You know the man is subject of a Firearms Prohibition Order. You would:
(a) seek the man's consent to enter the premises to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
(b) enter the premises pursuant to s 74A of the Firearms Act 1996 to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
(c) declare the premises a crime scene, then enter to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
(d) photograph the box of ammunition from where you are and use the photograph to support a search warrant application.
enter the premises pursuant to s 74A of the Firearms Act 1996 to search for firearms, firearm parts, or ammunition.
71
When carrying out a search of a person authorised under LEPRA, if reasonably practicable in the circumstances, you must ask for the person’s:
(a) in public view.
(b) affected by an intoxicating liquor or drug.
(c) being questioned.
(d) uncooperative
uncooperative
72
Briefs of Evidence containing sensitive evidence must NOT be served on the accused person. Instead, police must:
(a) supply the material to the court registry.
(b) ensure any sensitive evidence is censored before the brief is served.
(c) serve the brief ONLY on a legal practitioner acting on behalf of the accused person.
(d) serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.
serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice
73
Q1165 You investigate a death and locate a suicide note at the scene. You later receive a request from the next of kin for a copy of the note. You would:
(a) provide the next of kin with a copy of the suicide note.
(b) advise the next of kin to contact the Crime Manager.
(c) advise the next of kin to contact the Coroner.
(d) advise the next of kin to contact the Local Area Commander.
advise the next of kin to contact the Coroner.
74
Q3219 The investigation period begins when a person is arrested and ends at a time that is reasonable having regard to all the circumstances (not exceeding the maximum investigation period). Of the following, which circumstance would NOT be taken into account when determining a reasonable time?
(a) The number, seriousness and complexity of the offences under investigation.
(b) The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.
(c) Whether the person has indicated a willingness to make a statement or to answer any questions.
(d) The number and availability of other persons who need to be questioned or from whom statements need to be obtained.
(b) The time taken for police involved in the investigation to partake in a meal break as per the Award.
75
A request for a media 'blackout' can only be made in exceptional circumstances, usually where there is a risk to life. Such requests are generally made at Assistant Commissioner level. In the event of a siege, who else may make such a request?
(a) A duty officer.
(b) Any officer of the rank of sergeant or above.
(c) The most senior police officer at the scene.
(d) The operational commander or senior police negotiator.
The operational commander or senior police negotiator
76
Q.3277 The Code of Conduct and Ethics contains how many points?
(a) 6. (b) 8. (c) 10. (d) 22
(c) 10
77
Q 3010 A police officer must inform a suspect of a number of matters before a suspect can consent to a forensic procedure. Of the following, which is NOT one of those matters?
(a) The purpose for which the forensic procedure is required.
(b) The offence in relation to which the police officer wants the forensic procedure carried out.
(c) The way in which the forensic procedure is to be carried out.
(d) The time it will take to carry out the procedure
The time it will take to carry out the procedure
78
To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. FACTS is an acronym for the three steps involved. What does 'F' stand for?
(a) Find the object.
(b) Find the opening.
(c) Find the owner.
(d) Find the origin.
Find the owner
79
Q 898 You lawfully search an offender in a public place and locate a detonator. The offender has no reasonable excuse for possessing the detonator. The appropriate offence is:
(a) Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900.
(b) Possession of dangerous articles other than firearms - s 93FB Crimes Act 1900.
(c) Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
(d) Possess explosive - s 93FA Crimes Act 1900.
Possession of dangerous articles other than firearms - s 93FB Crimes Act 1900
80
Q1643 Under the Liquor Act, the hotel licence allows that the licensed premises to trade from Monday to Saturday inclusive (not being a restricted trading day), without applying for an extension or being permitted under the Act to have extended trading hours are:
(a) 5am to 12 midnight.
(b) 10am to 10pm.
(c) 10am to 12 midnight.
(d) 5am to 10pm.
5am to 12 midnight
81
Q3036 You reasonably suspect that a person is the 'Target' of an Authorisation under the Terrorism (Police Powers) Act 2002. What type of search can be conducted on this person?
(a) Frisk, Ordinary and Strip search.
(b) Frisk search only.
(c) Ordinary search only.
(d) Strip search only.
Frisk, Ordinary and Strip search
82
Q 1671 A person is not guilty of failing to produce a firearm's licence to a police officer if the person has a reasonable excuse for not having the licence when the demand is made and they produced it as soon as practicable after the demand was made, but not more than:
(a) 4 hours after the demand for its production is made.
(b) 6 hours after the demand for its production is made.
(c) 8 hours after the demand for its production is made.
(d) 12 hours after the demand for its production is made.
6 hours after the demand for its production is made
83
Q3089 What priority level would you classify a suspicious substance incident where there is an obvious reason for the presence of the substance, no credible threat or risk has been identified and there are no health effects for persons at the incident site?
(a) Red. (b) Blue. (c) Green. (d) White.
Green
84
Q 1928 You investigate a domestic violence incident and arrest a man for assaulting his wife. On the date of the subsequent court hearing the wife tells you that she does not wish to give evidence. In this situation the wife:
(a) is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
(b) need not give evidence if she does not wish to do so.
(c) is exempt from giving evidence against her husband.
(d) could only give evidence after gaining legal advice.
is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court
85
The mission of the NSW Police Force is to work with the community to reduce:
a ; violence, crime, fear.
b; crime, and the perception of crime.
c ; violent crime and fear.
d; crime and the promotion of crime.
violence, crime, fear.
86
Mandatory: You are directed by police radio to an address regarding a domestic complaint. Upon arrival you hear a woman screaming "Help me, he is going to kill me!" from inside the house. You attempt to gain entry but it is denied by a male occupant. You would:
a ; obtain a telephone warrant.
b; set up a command post and establish a perimeter.
c; enter the premises, by force if necessary.
d; seek advice before taking any action.
enter the premises, by force if necessary.
87
10003298 The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’. What does ‘S’ stand for?
A: Secret location
B: Suspicious location
C; Significant location
D : Sensitive location
Sensitive location
88
10000153
You have reasonable grounds to suspect that a 12-year-old child, who lives in a nearby house, is in immediate risk of serious harm. You attend the premises but entry is denied. You may enter the premises, search for and remove the child:
A : without warrant, using all reasonable force
B : after first obtaining a warrant to enter the premises
C : only with the permission of the lawful occupier
D ; if invited to enter by the child
without warrant, using all reasonable force
89
10003503 Mandatory
As the first responder to an active armed offender incident, you are authorised to move beyond the principle of containment and negotiation, and deploy for the purpose of locating the offender(s); restricting access the offender(s) may have to further victims; and:
A ; engaging and neutralising the offender (s) with lethal force
B ; implementing an appropriate resolution option
C ; engaging and neutralising the offender (s) with such force as reasonably necessary
D ; implementing an immediate evacuation plan for the victims once triaged
implementing an appropriate resolution option
90
You attend the scene of a DV incident where the offender left prior to your arrival. You determine a provisional order is required for the victims protection . As you are driving back to the police station to apply for the order, you locate the offender You may :
A ; direct the offender to accompany you to the police station and remain at the police station
B ; direct the offender to be at a particular place at a particular time for the purposes of serving the order
C ; arrest the offender for the purposes of placing him or her before the court where the application will be made
D ; arrest the offender for Breaching the peace to enable their detention while the application is made
direct the offender to accompany you to the police station and remain at the police station
91
During the investigation of a Part 8A complaint, the subject officer is entitled to have accorded procedural fairness. One of the key points of procedural fairness is:
A ; giving the subject officer the opportunity to respond to comment on allegations adverse to the officer
B ; disclosing the identity of the complainant to the subject officer
C ; delaying the investigation of a complaint if the subject officer is engaged in the police promotions process
D ; declining an investigation if It will delay or overturn the subject officers' promotion
giving the subject officer the opportunity to respond to comment on allegations adverse to the officer
92
By virtue of Section 133 of LEPRA , the power to take fingerprints from a person in lawful custody for an offence is given to:
A ; any police officer
B ; a police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant
C ; a police officer designated as the custody officer
D ; a police officer designated as the custody manger
any police officer
93
As a general rule, when offered a gift, NSW Police Force employees are expected to:
refuse a gift
94
The Roads and Maritime Services may suspend the licence of any person, other than a professional driver, who incurs a total of:
13 points
95
The driver of a heavy vehicle with a GVM over 12 tonnes must carry and produce for inspection when directed to do so by a police officer at least how many portable warning triangles?
Source
3 triangles
96
A person is arrested for possessing a small quantity of cannabis leaf wrapped in foil. The exhibit should be secured in a:
issue a PAB24 (multi ply paper bag)
97
Mandatory
Pursuant to s 198 of LEPRA, a police officer may give a direction to an intoxicated person who is in a public place to leave the place and not return for a specified period. What is that period?
A ; 48 hours
B ; 6 hours
C ; 12 hours
D ; 24 hours
6 hours
98
Mandatory
You attend a dwelling house to investigate a complaint of domestic violence, however, entry is denied. After speaking to neighbours you strongly suspect a domestic violence offence has recently been committed. You would:
A ; enter the premises, by force if necessary
B ; apply for a warrant to continue your investigation
C ; remain at the location but outside the property's boundary to prevent a breach of the peace
D ; remain at the location but outside the property's boundary and attempt to negotiate entry via telephone
apply for a warrant to continue your investigation
99
To be eligible for a caution under the Cannabis Cautioning Scheme, a person must not have any prior conviction for:
A ; drug offences , sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent
B ; drug offences , sexual offences, or stealing offences unless the conviction is spent
C; drug offences , sexual offences, or explosives/ fireman offences unless the conviction is spent
D ; drug offences , sexual offences, or fraud offences unless the conviction is spent
drug offences , sexual offences, or offences involving violence unless the conviction is spent
100
A police officer is lawfully entitled to enter and be upon private premises without the consent of the lawful occupier to:
A ; make inquiries about ay serious indictable offence
B ; make inquires about strictly indictable offence
C ; arrest a person the officer suspects on reasonable ground is at the address
D ; arrest a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is at the address
arrest a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is at the address
101
Section 93X(2) of the Crimes Act 1900 states that a person does not habitually consort with convicted offenders unless:
A ; the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 2 occasions
B ; the person consorts with at least 1 convicted offender on at least 3 occasions
C ; the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender
D ; the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 3 occasions with each convicted offender
the person consorts with at least 2 convicted offenders on at least 2 occasions with each convicted offender
102
In satisfying the element of 'the property belongs to another' in Larceny under s117 of the Crimes Act 1900, which of the following is NOT a consideration?
A ; Possession
B ; Custody
C ; Control
D ; Ownership
custody
103
When compiling a brief of evidence, in addition to the original (master brief), how many copies are required?
A ; two
B ; three
C ; four
D ; five
three
104
You see a man standing amongst a group of people at a taxi rank smoking a cigarette. As a police officer, you may require the man to
A ; state his name , address and telephone number
B ; state his name, age and telephone number
C ; state his name, age and address
D ; state his name and address
name and address
105
A number of juveniles found consuming liquor in a public park are spoken to by police. Several unopened cans of beer are confiscated. The person from whom the liquor is confiscated is to be told the name of the police station where the liquor will be taken, and that the liquor will be there for:
A ; a maximum of 6 hours
B ; at least 24 hours
C ; at least 48 hours
D ; a maximum of 28 days
24 hours
106
You are on your way to a noise complaint when VKG diverts you to a more serious job. In relation to the noise complaint, you would:
A ; attend to it when you are able
B ; arrange for VKG or station officer to contact the complainant to advise about the delay
C ; call the complainant at the end of the shift and ask if the noise is continuing
D ; hand the job over to the on-coming shift
arrange for VKG or station officer to contact the complainant to advise about the delay
107
s 104 of LEPRA gives a police officer the power to arrest a person reasonably suspected of having committed an interstate offence. Such offence must consist of an act or omission that, if it occurred in NSW, would constitute
A ; be punishable by a term of imprisonment
B ; be punishable by a term of imprisonment or fine
C ; constitute a serious indictable offence
D ; constitute an indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
constitute an indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
108
Criminal proceedings for summary matters before the Local Court are commenced by
A ; issuing and filing an application notice
B ; issuing and filling a court attendance noticeoriginal
C : creation of the charge in COPS
D ; acceptance of the charge in COPS
issuing and filling a court attendance notice
109
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 has a three-tier system for addressing Aboriginal issues. Of the following, which is NOT one of those tiers?
A; Police Aboriginal Consultative Committee (PACC)
B; Aboriginal Strategic Direction Steering Committee (ASDSC)
C; Police Aboriginal Strategic Advisory Council (PASAC)
D; Police Aboriginal Coordination Team (PACT)
D; Police Aboriginal Coordination Team (PACT)
110
A person who discharges a firearm in a public place without a reasonable excuse, commits an offence under the provisions of the:
A; Crimes Act 1990
B; Firearms Act 1996
C; Prohibited Weapons Act 1996
D; Common Law
A; Crimes Act 1990
111
'A' borrows a video camera from 'B' to film the wedding of 'C'. He then sells the footage to 'C' for a good profit. 'A' decides to start a business filming weddings and keeps the video camera. The appropriate offence is:
A; Larceny s117 Crimes Act 2990
B; Larceny as a bailee s125 Crimes Act 1990
C; Fraud s192 Crimes Act 1990
D; Fraudulent appropriation s 124 Crimes Act 1990
D; Fraudulent appropriation s 124 Crimes Act 1990
112
A police officer who enters premises pursuant to a warrant issued under s 280 of the Protection of the Environment Operations Act 1997 in order to give a noise abatement direction or investigate whether a noise abatement direction has been contravened, may
A; detain any person present at the premises for the purposes of issuing the direction or investigating a contravention
B; direct any person present to leave the premises
C; require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address
D; require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to apologise to the complainants
C; require the occupier or a person causing or contributing to the noise to furnish their name and address
113
You stop a motor vehicle which has been reported stolen two hours previously. You speak with the driver who informs you that the vehicle was taken for a "joy ride" and the driver was going to leave it on the side of the road after he had finished with it. The appropriate offence is:
A; Steal motor vehicle s154F Crimes Act 1990
B; Stealing s117 Crimes Act 1990
C; Malicious damage by fire s195 (1) (b) Crimes Act 1990
D; Taking a conveyance without consent of owner s154A Crimes Act 1990
D; Taking a conveyance without consent of owner s154A Crimes Act 1990
114
All operational police may apply to be personally issued with a Covert Light Armour Vest (CLAV). Once issued, it is worn:
A; on duty at all times unless a precondition in the SOPs permits otherwise
B; on duty when a risk assessment does not authorise the carrying or arms and appointments
C; off duty when a risk assessment does not authorise the carrying of arms and appointments
D. at the discretion of the officer to whom it is issued
D. at the discretion of the officer to whom it is issued
115
A person reports a crash at your police station. Particulars have been exchanged, nobody was injured and no serious traffic offence has been committed. There was no damage to property other than the vehicles involved. One vehicle was towed from the scene. You would:
A; complete a 'Minor Traffic Crash- Tow Away Only' entry in WebCOPS (or refer the person to PAL if appropriate)
B; have the person complete a P5 Self-Reporting Collison form
C; record the crash as a message on the General Station Pad only
D; advise the person police no longer take reports of minor traffic crashes even where a vehicle is towed
A; complete a 'Minor Traffic Crash- Tow Away Only' entry in WebCOPS (or refer the person to PAL if appropriate)
116
In a prosecution for the offence of 'Offensive conduct' pursuant to s 4 of the Summary Offences Act 1988, it is a sufficient defence if the accused satisfies the court that:
A; he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged
B; the offence was not witnessed directly n by police
C; he or she was seriously impaired by intoxicating liquor or a drug or combinations of drugs
D; the conduct was not carried out in the immediate presence of another person or persons
A; he or she had a reasonable excuse for the conduct alleged
117
Which of the following persons may take a buccal swab?
A ; An appropriately qualified police officer
B; A dental prosthetist
C; A medical practitioner
D; All of the above
D; All of the above
118
An offender breaks into a house in order to steal any money that can be found. The offender ransacks the premises but leaves without taking anything. The appropriate offence is:
A; Break, enter and steal s112 Crimes Act 1900
B; Break and enter with intent (steal) s113 Crimes Act 1900
C; Attempt Break, enter and steal s112 Crimes Act 1900
D; Attempt steal from dwelling s148 Crimes Act 1900
B; Break and enter with intent (steal) s113 Crimes Act 1900
119
For the purposes of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998, a child is defined as being:
A; under the age of 18 years
B; under the age of 16 yeof their associate ars
C; under the age of 14 years
D; under the age of 10 years
B; under the age of 16 years
120
To charge a person with Consorting, they must be provided with:
A; an official request not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
B; an application notice not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
C; an official warning not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
D; a copy of their associates criminal history
C; an official warning not to associate with persons convicted of an indictable offence.
121
You investigate a domestic violence incident and arrest a man for assaulting his wife. On the date of the subsequent court hearing the wife tells you that she does not wish to give evidence. In this situation the wife:
A; is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
B; need not give evidence if she does not wish to do so.
C; is exempt from giving evidence against her husband
D; could only give evidence after gaining legal advice.
A; is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
122
What is the chain of command when completing either a one-off or ongoing registration of a Human Source?
A; Handler, Senior Supervisor, Controller, Command Registrar and Central Registrar
B; Handler, Controller, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar and Central Registrar.
C; Handler, Controller, Command Registrar, Senior Supervisor and Central Registrar.
D; Handler, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar
B; Handler, Controller, Senior Supervisor, Command Registrar and Central Registrar.
123
Following service of the respondent copy of an application notice made to the Local Court, a copy of the application notice must be filed with the court registry:
A; by the first return date for the application notice.
B; within 5 days of the day it was served.
C; before the first return date for the application notice.
D; within 72 hours of the day on which it was served.
C; before the first return date for the application notice.
124
You detain a registrable person for the purpose of serving the required notices. You MUST inform the person of the reason for their detention; that the person will be released immediately after the notices have been served; and what else?
A; Their refusal to sign the acknowledgement of having been served with the required notices is an offence
B; Their rights as a person in custody pursuant to Part 9 of LEPRA
C; That their detention is authorised under the Act
D; The official caution
C; That their detention is authorised under the Act
125
May police report the homelessness of a young person to the Director General, without the young person's consent?
A. Yes, you have the authority to report the homelessness of all persons under 18 years of age.
B. Yes, but only with the consent of the young persons parent/s or guardian/s (regardless of them being estranged).
C. Yes, but only if the young person has, is or may be committing criminal offences.
D. No, you must obtain the consent of the young person.
D. No, you must obtain the consent of the young person.
126
```
A person shall not, without reasonable excuse, have in his or her custody an offensive implement in a public place or a school. Proof of a reasonable excuse lies with the:
A. person.
B. arresting person.
C. prosecutor.
D. presiding magistrate or judge.
```
A. person.
127
In response to a high risk situation, can the first police on scene request the assistance of the Tactical Operations Unit and Negotiators?
A. No, only the Duty Operations Inspector can.
B. No, only a Region Commander/equivalent can.
C. Yes but only if a person has been seriously injured and is likely to die as a result.
D. Yes, however, advice should be sought wherever possible from a senior officer.
D. Yes, however, advice should be sought wherever possible from a senior officer.
128
You have been required to open a plastic drug exhibit bag at court during a hearing. After examination, the exhibit and opened bag must be resealed in a new plastic drug exhibit bag. In addition to recording your name and signature on the new seal, who else must also record their name and signature?
A. The police prosecutor or DPP instructing solicitor.
B. The court officer.
C. The magistrate or judge.
D. The defendant or his legal representative.
B. The court officer.
129
You become aware of a registrable person residing in your LAC who is not reporting. You make certain enquiries and learn the sentencing court failed to inform the person of their obligations or issue the required notices. The person is neither a flight risk nor hiding from police. You would:
A. notify the sentencing court of the error.
B. prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the sentencing court.
C. prepare and serve an application notice to place the registrable person before the local court.
D. prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person.
D. prepare and serve the required notices on the registrable person.
130
```
A 17-year-old young person attempts to use a forged birth certificate to enter a registered club. The most
appropriate offence is found in the:
A. Registered Clubs Act 1976
B. Summary Offences Act 1988
C. Liquor Act 2007
D. Young Offenders Act 1997
```
C. Liquor Act 2007
131
The holder of a security licence whose licence is lost, stolen, destroyed, defaced, mutilated or becomes
illegible must report the occurrence to police within:
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
C. 7 days
132
An ambulance will remove a deceased when:
A. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view
B. death occurred more than 24hours previously
C. it is obvious resuscitation will not be successful
D. the deceased is personally known to any person present at the scene
A. sudden death has occurred and the body is in public view
133
You detect a person drinking alcohol in a designated alcohol-free zone. As a police officer you may:
A. issue a direction to move out of the alcohol free zone
B. seize any alcohol that is in the immediate possession of the person
C. not take any action unless the person is committing some other offence for which you may act
D. obtain the persons name and address as only an enforcement officer of the local government area can take action
B. seize any alcohol that is in the immediate possession of the person
134
```
Within how many days after the seizure of a dangerous article does the person from whom it was seized or its owner have to apply for its return?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 28 days
D. 60 days
```
C. 28 days
135
You should search the body of a deceased person in the presence of a family member or some other
reliable independent witness (e.g. ambulance officer). If no such person is available, you should conduct
the search in the presence of:
A. any police officer
B. the most senior supervisor available
C. any willing person
D. the local area commander
B. the most senior supervisor available
136
A firearm seized during a murder investigation is entered in EFIMS as an exhibit. Criminal proceedings inrelation to the matter have been finalized. Who authorizes disposal of the firearm?
A. The presiding judge
B. The magistrate who presided at the committal
C. The local Area Commander (or specialist equivalent)
D. The coroner
D. The coroner
137
A police officer who obtains a search warrant is to furnish a report in writing to the issuing magistrate
setting out certain information. The report is to be submitted within a certain time period of the warrant
being executed, or its expiration. The specified time period is:
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
C. 10 days
138
A complaint under Part 8A of the Police Act 1990 must:
A. be made in the presence of and signed by justice of the peace for NSW
B. identify the complainant
C. made in writing
D. be made in person to any commissioned police officer
C. made in writing
139
A police officer who seizes a thing pursuant to a search warrant must return the thing to the owner or
person who had lawful possession of the thing before it was seized if the officer is satisfied that its retention as evidence is not required and what else?
A. permission to return the thing has been authorized by a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant
B. its lawful for the person to have possession of the thing
C. permission to return the thing has been authorized by police officer of or above the rank of inspector
D. the owner or person who had lawful possession
of the thing before it was seized has requested in writing
B. its lawful for the person to have possession of the thing
140
A police officer who has reasonable grounds to suspect that another police officer has engaged in police misconduct or serious maladministration is under a duty to report that information in writing to another police officer who is more senior in rank than the police officer with a duty to report (a senior police
officer). The senior police officer must be of or above the rank of:
A. Sergeant
B. Inspector
C. Superintendent
D. Assistant Commissioner
A. Sergeant
141
s 104 of LEPRA gives a police officer the power to arrest a person who is reasonably suspected of
having committed an offence outside the State of New South Wales. An offence under this section
means an offence that, if it occurred in New South Wales, would:
A. be punishable by a term of imprisonment.
B. be punishable by a term of imprisonment or fine.
C. constitute a serious indictable offence.
D. constitute a indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
D. constitute a indictable offence or an offence punishable by imprisonment for 2 years or more
142
The questions in the Suspect Financial Profile Questionnaire (SFPQ) have been structured to capture
information and/or details on persons of interest under four main categories. Of the following, which is
NOT one of those categories?
A. Personal
B. Associates/Partners/Business
C. Occupation/Activities/Habits
D. Resources
D. Resources
143
For the purposes of s 9 of the Summary Offences Act 1988, a person is intoxicated if it is reasonable in
the circumstances to believe that the person’s consumption of alcohol or any drug has resulted in:
A. the person being seriously affected.
B. the person's speech, balance, coordination or behavior being noticeably.
C. the person vomiting.
D. the person singing at the top of their voice at 3am.
B. the person's speech, balance, coordination or behavior being noticeably.
144
A woman complains to you that, while she was in a local nightclub, a man approached her from behind,
grabbed her breasts with both hands and began to fondle them for five seconds while rubbing his body
against hers. The offence committed is:
A. Common assault - s 61 Crimes Act 1900
B. Sexual touching - s 61C Crimes Act 1900
C. Sexual act - s 61KE Crimes Act 1900
D. Aggravated sexual assault - s 61J Crimes Act 1900
B. Sexual touching - s 61C Crimes Act 1900
145
When preparing media releases or planning for media interviews, which of the following is a key corporate police media message?
A. Police are in your community, working hard to address rising crime.
B. Police will encourage personal responsibility but will not be held responsible for careless victims.
C. Crime prevention is our priority.
D. The community's help to drive down crime is welcome but not essential.
C. Crime prevention is our priority.
146
Under the Security Industries Act 1997, a Class 1C licence holder authorizes the licensee to do what?
A. Act as a Master licensee.
B. Act as a Security Consultant.
C. Act as a crowd controller or to act in a similar capacity.
D. Install and repair security equipment.
C. Act as a crowd controller or to act in a similar capacity.
147
```
Before serving an Early Appropriate Guilty Plea (EAGP) brief of evidence on the ODPP, it must be submitted for review and certification to:
A. your supervisor.
B. the police prosecutor.
C. the court process officer.
D. the register of the relevant court.
```
A. your supervisor.
148
You arrest a woman pursuant to an arrest warrant issued under s 109B of the Children and Young
Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998. The woman must , as soon as practicable, be brought before:
A. the Children's Court, a Children's Magistrate or a Registrar.
B. the local Court, a Magistrate or a Registrar.
C. the District Court, a Judge of the District Court or a Registrar.
D. the Family Court, a Family Court Magistrate or a Registrar.
A. the Children's Court, a Children's Magistrate or a Registrar
149
Who can apply for a search warrant to enter and search a suspected drug premises?
A. The Officer- in-Charge of a police station.
B. A police officer who is in charge of an investigation.
C. The Local Area Commander ( or specialist equitant)
D. Any officer of or above the rank of Sergeant.
B. A police officer who is in charge of an investigation
150
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, who is deemed to be a senior police officer?
A. A police officer of or above the rank of Senior Constable.
B. A police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant
C. Any commissioned police officer.
D. Any police officer with 7 years or more in the New South Wales police force.
B. A police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant
151
An intoxicated person detained in the cells at a police station is apparently asleep but is also snoring loudly. He or she should be:
A. allowed to continue to sleep.
B. woken and his/her condition observed.
C. assessed by ambulance officers.
D. turned onto his/her side.
B. woken and his/her condition observed.
152
If you are required to open a multi-ply paper drug bag (PAB24) at court, there are a number of steps you
need to take before doing so. Of the following, which is NOT one of those steps?
A. Warn all present of the likelihood of compositional changes to the substance which may affect their health and safety.
B. Assess the need to use personal protective equipment.
C. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.
D. Cut the evidence seal in front of the court officer.
C. Make a record in your police notebook and have the police prosecutor (or ODPP solicitor) endorse the entry.
153
You attend a residential area and speak to a complainant who is working in his detached garage. He complains that it is well after midnight and he can hear his neighbour’s television. You determine the
sound is not offensive and cannot be heard from inside the complainant’s residence. You would:
A. advise the complainant his neighbor is not breaching any law.
B. issue a noise abatement direction to the neighbor.
C. issue a warning to the neighbor not to cause/permit the continued use of the television in that manner outside gazetted times.
D. refer the matter to the Environment Protection Authority as the 'appropriate regulatory authority".
A. advise the complainant his neighbor is not breaching any law.
154
You attend a residence for the purpose of serving a court attendance notice on a defendant but the
person is not home. You would:
A. leave the notice in the mail box at the address.
B. leave the notice with another occupier at the address.
C. leave the notice with any other occupier at the address who is of or above 18 years of age.
D. make further attempts to serve the notice personally on the defendant.
D. make further attempts to serve the notice personally on the defendant.
155
Applications under the Criminal Assets Recovery Act 1990 for restraining orders, asset forfeiture orders
and unexplained wealth orders are made to the:
A. NSW Supreme Court
B. Local Court.
C. District Court.
D. Coroner's Court.
A. NSW Supreme Court
156
All police dealing with Human Sources will ensure:
A. accurate and complete records are maintained in relation to all NSWPF/Human Source associations.
B. every Human Source is psychologically assessed prior to being registered on the source management system.
C. through enquires are made to establish if the source is in any way related to any police employee at their station.
D. the source is contactable 24/7.
A. accurate and complete records are maintained in relation to all NSWPF/Human Source associations.
157
Briefs of Evidence containing sensitive evidence must NOT be served on the accused person. Instead,
police must:
A. supply the material to the court registry.
B. ensure any sensitive evidence is censored before brief is severed.
C. serve the brief ONLY on a legal practitioner acting on behalf of the accused person.
D. serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.
D. serve on the accused person a sensitive evidence notice.
158
A final apprehended violence order, or interim court order, or variation or revocation of either such order,
must be served personally on a defendant if he or she is not present when the order is made. Personal
service may be effected by
A. sending an electronic copy of the document to the defendant personal email address (if he or she consents).
B. leaving a copy of the document addressed to the defendant at the defendants business or residential address.
C. posting a copy of the document addressed tot he defendant business or residential address.
D. leaving a copy of the document with the defendant and telling the defendant the nature of the document.
D. leaving a copy of the document with the defendant and telling the defendant the nature of the document.
159
You are the Handler of a Human Source who is providing ongoing drug crime information. You learn that
the Source was arrested and charged with an offence overnight. You should:
A. contacting the arresting officer and requesting the charge be withdrawn as the person is a source.
B. continue dealing with the Source unless the offence specifically impact their role.
C. review the Sources registration and inform the Controller immediately.
D. not take action unless the offence was a serious strictly indictable offence.
C. review the Sources registration and inform the Controller immediately.
160
```
To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. FACTS is an acronym for the three steps involved. What does 'CTS' stand for?
A. Consider the setting.
B. Consider the seriousness.
C. Consider the situation.
D. Consider the scene.
```
C. Consider the situation.
161
While executing a search warrant at a residence, the occupier stands in front of a closed door and tells
police they cannot enter as his infant child is asleep in the room. Despite repeated warnings the man refuses to move aside. The most appropriate offence is:
A. Hinder police s546C Crimes Act 1900
B. Hinder investigation s315 Crimes Act 1900
C. Pervert course of justice s319 Crimes Act 1900
D. Obstruct /hinder person executing warrant s52 LEPRA
D. Obstruct /hinder person executing warrant s52 LEPRA
162
An on-scene risk assessment classifies a suspicious substance incident site as ‘Blue’ (Medium Risk). Your first course of action should now be
A. to obtain a sample of the substance for analysis.
B. to guard the substance pending its analysis.
C. to issue potentially contaminated persons with a Medical Advisory Notice.
D. to remove, isolate and assess potentially contaminated persons
D. to remove, isolate and assess potentially contaminated persons
163
Pursuant to Part 9 LEPRA, the investigation period begins when a person is arrested and ends:
A. when the person is charged or released from custody.
B. at the conclusion of any interview or when the person formally refuses to be interviewed.
C. at a time that is reasonable having regard to all circumstances (not exceeding the max, investigation period).
D. at the discretion of the custody manger.
C. at a time that is reasonable having regard to all circumstances (not exceeding the max, investigation period).
164
If you are required to seize an animal as an exhibit and it is likely police will be responsible for its care,
you should:
A. first obtain permission from your commander before doing so.
B. assume responsibility for the animal and submit a claim for any associated costs.
C. obtain a written undertaking from the owner or owner's representative to pay any costs.
D. have the RSPCA assume responsibility for the animal.
C. obtain a written undertaking from the owner or owner's representative to pay any costs.
165
For all reportable deaths, before a body can be admitted to a morgue, police must obtain a:
A. Coronial Order (Authority to Remove, Transport and Hold Deceased Person/Human Remains).
B. Coronial Order (Investigation).
C. Verification of Death Certificate.
D. Medical Certificate of Cause of Death.
C. Verification of Death Certificate.
166
A certificate as to the cause of death may be issued by a medical practitioner who has attended the
deceased within the previous:
A. 1 month immediately before the persons death.
B. 4 months immediately before the persons death.
C. 6 months immediately before the persons death.
D. 12 months immediately before the persons death.
C. 6 months immediately before the persons death.
167
What priority level would you classify a suspicious substance incident involving an actual threat or risk to
the health and safety of a high profile person?
A. Green
B. Blue.
C. Red.
D. White
C. Red.
168
As a duty holder under Work Health and Safety legislation, the NSWPF must identify reasonably
foreseeable:
A. hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
B. dangers that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
C. problems that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
D. threats that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
A. hazards that could give rise to risks to health and safety.
169
```
An expert's evidence in chief may be admitted by a certificate under section 177 of the Evidence Act 1995, provided the defence has been provided with a copy of the certificate no later than:
A. 21.
B. 14.
C. 7.
D. 3.
```
A. 21.
170
An offence under the Weapons Prohibition Act 1998 or regulations may be dealt with in a summary manner before the Local Court if the court attendance notice was issued within:
A. 6 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
B. 12 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
C. 18 months of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
D. 2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
D. 2 years of the date on which the offence is alleged to have been committed.
171
When a person is charged with a serious offence that requires the mandatory completion of a Suspect
Financial Profile Questionnaire (SFPQ), the SFPQ must be completed within:
A. 24 hours of charging.
B. 48 hours of charging.
C. 7 days of charging.
D. 14 days of charging.
A. 24 hours of charging.
172
```
Inculpatory evidence tends to prove:
A. relevance.
B. the innocence of the defendant.
C. reliability.
D. the guilt of the defendant.
```
D. the guilt of the defendant.
173
All interactions (meetings, phone conversations and written communications) between the NSWPF and
an ongoing Human Source must be recorded in:
A. Human Source Reports.
B. secure corporate emails only.
C. SITREPs
D. Contact Advise Reports.
D. Contact Advise Reports.
174
A 17-year-old girl enters your police station and informs you that she fears violence from her former
boyfriend. You believe that the matter is one that warrants the issue of an AVO (not being a provisional
order). The application for the order may be made to the court by:
A. either the girl or a police officer.
B. any person over the age of 18 years with the informed consent of the girls.
C. the girl only.
D. a police officer only.
A. either the girl or a police officer.
175
Illegally receiving stolen goods knowing them to have been stolen is the offence of ‘Receiving’. Which of
the following would NOT be one of the proofs of that offence?
A. The property was stolen.
B. The property was received from a person known for property theft.
C. The accused person actually received the property.
D. The accused person knew all the time he received the property it was stolen.
B. The property was received from a person known for property theft.
176
Work Health and Safety legislation requires police officers to comply with policies and procedures
provided by the NSWPF which are designed to ensure their health and safety. What is an example of
this?
A. Wearing a reflective vest at an RBT operation.
B. Conducting a search as instructed.
C. Completing MCPE lectures and other training.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
177
Who may report the homelessness of a child to the Director-General of the Department of Family and
Community Services?
A. A police officer only.
B. An officer of the Department Of Family and Community Services only.
C. Any person authorized in writing by the Director General.
D. Any person.
D. Any person.
178
A person walking along a footpath is stabbed during a failed robbery attempt. He staggers into the
driveway of a residence, collapses and dies. You attend and commence establishing a crime scene.
The owner arrives and tells you to remove the body immediately. Can you remain?
A. Yes providing you comply with Part 7 of LEPRA.
B. Yes if you comply with Part 34 of the Coroners Act 2009.
C Yes if you comply with Part 9 of LEPRA.
D. Yes if you comply with 230 of LEPRA.
A. Yes providing you comply with Part 7 of LEPRA.
179
The Incident Command and Control System (ICCS) model can be utilised for incidents through to
emergencies that require:
A. a local response to manage and resolve the situation.
B. a national response to manage and resolve a situation.
C. a multi agency response to manage and resolve a situation.
D. a major police response to manage and resolve a situation.
C. a multi agency response to manage and resolve a situation.
180
If you are unable to serve the respondent copy of an application notice after taking all reasonable steps to
do so, what action could be taken?
A. Assign a new court date.
B. Apply for substituted service.
C. Apply to file the Application notice unserved in the court registry.
D. All of the above.
B. Apply for substituted service.
181
Under s 86 of the Liquor Act 2007, a Local Court may order a licensee to close a licensed premises if
they are satisfied that there is, or likely to be, a breach of peace in the neighbourhood or the premises.
Who can apply to the Local Court for the order?
A. a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
B. an authorized inspector under the Act.
C. any police officer.
D. any person.
D. any person.
182
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 contains 4 priorities. Of the following which is NOT one of these priorities?
A. Ensure community safety.
B. Enhance communication and understanding between Police and Aboriginal people.
C. Reduce the length of custodial sentences.
D. Improve the safety and wellbeing of young aboriginal people,.
C. Reduce the length of custodial sentences.
183
The Confiscation of Proceeds of Crime Act 1989 sets out the 'relevant period' after conviction that police
can apply for a forfeiture order. What is that period?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
B. 6 months
184
Unless a crime scene warrant is obtained, a police officer may exercise the crime scene powers
conferred under s 92 of LEPRA at a location that is NOT a prescribed rural area for a period of not more
than:
A. 2 hours.
B. 3 hours.
C. 4 hours.
D. 6 hours.
C. 4 hours.
185
```
A person who uses or operates a power tool on residential premises otherwise than on a day or between times permitted is to be informed of that contravention. The person commits an offence if, without reasonable excuse, they again contravene these provisions within:
A. 72 hours after being so informed.
B. 7 days after being so informed.
C. 14 days after being informed.
D. 28 days after being so informed.
```
D. 28 days after being so informed.
186
With regard to the release of information during an investigation, or prior to an arrest, the following
information may be released:
A. the psychological state of an alleged offender.
B. descriptions of remarks made by offenders, but not a direct quote.
C. the identity of a victim of a sexual crime.
D. methodology used by an offender.
B. descriptions of remarks made by offenders, but not a direct quote.
187
An exhibit on hand at a police station is checked out of EFIMS to the officer in charge of the case. It is
subsequently tendered in evidence during a court hearing. At the finalisation of the hearing the exhibit will be:
A. left with the Court Officer for return to the owner.
B. kept by the Magistrate pending a claim from the owner.
C. handed to the owner by the officer in charge of the case if present in court.
D. returned to the police station.
D. returned to the police station.
188
Offenders can be referred to the Magistrates Early Referral into Treatment Program (MERIT) in two ways.
Of the following, which is one of these ways?
A. Upon application by the offender's most immediate next of kin.
B. Upon arrest.
C. At the instigation of the police prosecutor.
D. At the instigation of Probation and Parole.
B. Upon arrest.
189
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, which of the following is an authorised applicant for a
court order when an intimate forensic procedure is required and the suspect refuses?
A. Any police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
B. Any commissioned police officer.
C. Any police officer.
D. A custody manger within the meaning of LEPRA.
D. A custody manger within the meaning of LEPRA.
190
Police take a person to hospital under s 22 of the Mental Health Act 2007. The person becomes
aggressive and uncooperative with health staff. The medical practitioner asks police to help restrain the
person while a sedative is administered. Police should:
A. refuse to assist unless the person has committed an offence.
B. inform the medical practitioner restraint is the responsibility of NSW Health security.
C. assist with restraining the person.
D. remain present as a deterrent but not assist as sedation is a medical procedure.
C. assist with restraining the person.
191
The Criminal Infringement Notice Scheme sets out the circumstances when a CIN MUST be withdrawn. Of the following, which is NOT one of those circumstances?
A. It was inadvertently issued to a serving police officer (not in compliance with policy).
B. It was inadvertently issued to a person under 18 years of age.
C. The identity of the suspect cannot be confirmed.
D. When three CINs were issued to the same suspect at the same time for three prescribed offences.
D. When three CINs were issued to the same suspect at the same time for three prescribed offences.
192
What should be taken into account when determining a reasonable time for the purposes of an investigation period?
A. The time to carry out the charging process.
B. The time to allow the person to receive medical treatment.
C. The time to allow the person to receive legal advice.
D. All the relevant circumstances of the particular case.
D. All the relevant circumstances of the particular case.
193
```
A small quantity of heroin contained in foil is weighed at a police station. The person responsible for estimating the net weight of the drug is the:
A. station/exhibit officer.
B. officer in charge of the case.
C. independent observer.
D. duty officer.
```
A. station/exhibit officer.
194
While talking to a man at the front door of his residence, you see a box of ammunition on a shelf in the hallway. You know the man is subject of a Firearms Prohibition Order. You would:
A. seek the mans consent to enter the premises to search for firearms, firearm parts or ammunition.
B. enter the premises pursuant to s 74A Firearms Act 1996 to search for firearms, firearm parts or ammunition.
C. declare the premises a crime scene, then enter to search for firearms, firearm parts or ammunition.
D. photograph the box of ammunition from where you are and use the photograph to support a search warrant application.
B. enter the premises pursuant to s 74A Firearms Act 1996 to search for firearms, firearm parts or ammunition.
195
You are called to a disturbance on the footpath outside a place of worship. A person has attached antireligious placards to the front fence and is using a loudhailer to incite the gathered crowd to assault the
worshippers because of their beliefs. The worshippers are too frightened to leave the premises. The
person’s actions constitute an offence under section 93Z of the Crimes Act 1900. Prior to commencing
proceedings, you must seek approval from:
A. police officer of the rank of sergeant or above.
B. commissioned police officer.
C. police officer of the rank of superintendent or above.
D. director of Public Prosecutions.
D. director of Public Prosecutions.
196
You attend a residence to find the victim’s estranged husband present demanding to say goodnight to his
two children. He refuses to leave until he has been allowed to do so. The husband’s presence is
knowingly in breach of an interim court order. You would:
A. direct the husband to leave immediately
B. allow the husband to say goodnight to his children then direct the him to leave immediately.
C. instruct the husband to apply for an variation of the AVO through the local court and allow him to leave.
D. arrest the husband for the breach and have the matter determined by the court.
D. arrest the husband for the breach and have the matter determined by the court.
197
You have witnessed an adult consuming alcohol in a current alcohol free zone. As a police officer you may:
A. Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
B. Issue a penalty notice.
C. Issue a caution and seize the alcohol.
D. Warn the person that drinking in an alcohol free zone is not an offence.
A. Seize any alcohol and dispose of it immediately.
198
On the first mention, if an accused enters a plea of not guilty in relation to summary criminal proceedings
in the Local Court, a magistrate or registrar is to order a brief of evidence to be served upon the accused
in:
A. 2 weeks.
B. 4 weeks.
C. 6 weeks
D. 21 days
B. 4 weeks.
199
For the purposes of the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, an ‘appropriately qualified’ person is:
A. any police officer.
B. ant police officer excluding a probationary constable.
C. any police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant.
D. any police officer authorized in writing by the Commissioner of Police.
D. any police officer authorized in writing by the Commissioner of Police.
200
The ‘Protocol for Homeless People in Public Places’ does NOT apply to:
A. private property or property that is not generally accessible to the public.
B. parks or open spaces.
C. train stations.
D. shopping centers.
A. private property or property that is not generally accessible to the public.
201
```
Ambulance or local hospital personnel are to remove Taser probes that penetrate which of the following
areas?
A. The abdomen of the subject.
B. The lower back of the subject.
C. The bone structure of the subject.
D. The buttocks of the subject.
```
C. The bone structure of the subject.
202
You investigate a domestic violence incident and arrest a man for assaulting his wife. On the date of the
subsequent court hearing the wife tells you that she does not wish to give evidence. In this situation the
wife:
A. is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
B. need not give evidence if she does not wish to do so.
C. is exempt from giving evidence against her husband.
D. could only give evidence after gaining legal advice.
A. is compelled to give evidence unless excused by the court.
203
You are called to an address and speak to a young woman. She informs you that, while hanging out the
washing, she saw her neighbour raise and point a rifle at her saying, "You bitch I'm going to kill you!". The
victim ran inside as she feared being shot. The offence committed is:
A. Recklessly cause grievous bodily harm s 35 Crimes Act 1900.
B. Assault occasioning actual bodily harm s 29 Crimes Act 1900.
C. Assault s 61 Crimes Act 1900.
D. Posses unregistered firearm s 36 Firearms Act 1996.
C. Assault s 61 Crimes Act 1900.
204
Police who are investigating a suspicious death are required to be present at the post mortem if directed
to do so by the:
A. Police Area/District Commander (or delegate).
B. Coroner.
C. Forensic Pathologist.
D. Manger of Coronial Services (State Coroners Court).
B. Coroner.
205
You attend the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving a heavy vehicle. You would ask the Duty
Operations Inspector (DOI) to notify RMS Heavy Vehicle Inspectors of crashes involving:
A. all classes of heavy vehicle.
B. shifting, lost or over dimension loads.
C. public passenger vehicles (including taxis).
D. all of the above.
D. all of the above.
206
A person who is the holder of a permit to acquire a firearm and who wishes to purchase a registered
firearm from a suitably licensed person who is not a licensed firearms dealer must arrange the sale
through:
A. The NSWPF Firearms Registry.
B. A licensed firearms dealer.
C. The officer in charge of the nearest police station.
D. The registrar of the local court.
B. A licensed firearms dealer.
207
```
The obligation for ensuring that drug exhibits are destroyed as soon as possible after being seized rests
with:
A. the commanders.
B. the duty officer.
C. the shift supervisor.
D. all police officers.
```
D. all police officers.
208
If a case cannot progress further due to all reasonable avenues of investigation being exhausted, with no
further action to be taken, the case status will be amended to:
A. Suspended.
B. No Action.
C. Case Finalised.
D. Case Closed.
D. Case Closed.
209
Except for a telephone search warrant, an application for a search warrant under LEPRA must be made:
A. orally to an eligible issuing officer.
B. in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer.
C. orally to any Justice of the Peace.
D. in writing and in person to any Justice of the Peace.
B. in writing and in person to an eligible issuing officer.
210
Two offenders break into a house by forcing open a side window and climbing through. They search a
number of rooms and move several electrical appliances to the front door, however, police arrive and the
offenders are arrested while still in the house. The appropriate offence is:
A. Larceny s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
B. Break and enter with intent to steal s 113 Crimes Act 1900.
C. Steal from dwelling s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
D. Break, enter and steal s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
D. Break, enter and steal s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
211
You stop a motor vehicle fitted with diplomatic plates that is being driven erratically. You speak to the
driver and suspect he is intoxicated. The driver produces a RED ID card confirming he is a diplomatic
agent. He claims immunity and refuses to submit to a breath test. You would:
A. inform the driver it is an offence to refuse the test and repeat your request until he complies.
B. make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
C. inform the driver he will be arrested for refusing the breath test if he does not comply.
D. arrest the driver and take him to the police station for the purpose of a breath analysis.
B. make whatever arrangements are necessary and appropriate in the interest of road safety.
212
```
The guidelines for assessing whether an unattended item is suspicious uses the acronym ‘HOT ALERTS’.
What does ‘S’ stand for?
A. Secret location.
B. Suspicious location.
C. Significant location.
D. Sensitive location.
```
D. Sensitive location.
213
Crime scene powers under Part 7 of LEPRA may be exercised by a police officer if he or she is lawfully
on premises. Pursuant to s 89(1) of LEPRA, ‘premises’ means:
A. any public place.
B. any habitable structure, whether or not a public place.
C. premises of any kind, whether or not a public place.
D. any dwelling.
C. premises of any kind, whether or not a public place.
214
When determining an offender's eligibility for a caution under the Cannabis Cautioning Scheme, certain criteria must be considered. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria?
A. The age of the offender.
B. The amount of the cannabis involved.
C. The location where the offence took place.
D. The offenders prior criminal history.
C. The location where the offence took place.
215
```
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, the taking of a sample of blood from a person is:
A. a non-intimate forensic procedure.
B. an intimate forensic procedure.
C. an intrusive forensic procedure.
D. an non-intrusive forensic procedure.
```
B. an intimate forensic procedure.
216
```
What is the maximum investigation period for an investigation not extended by detention warrant?
A. 3 hours.
B. 4 hours.
C. 6 hours.
D. 8 hours.
```
C. 6 hours.
217
You are the driver of a police vehicle proceeding on urgent duty to a ‘Persons on premises’ call. You
should:
A. activate all emergency warning devices to give the best practicable warning of your approach.
B. not use any emergency warning devices as it would alert the offenders of your approach.
C. use red/blue warning lights only.
D. use the siren sparingly and only when all other means of alerting traffic have failed.
A. activate all emergency warning devices to give the best practicable warning of your approach.
218
Proceedings against a person for ‘Goods in custody’ are likely to be commenced where the person is
found in possession of:
A. a missing police baton.
B. a stolen motor vehicle.
C. a wallet they found in the street and decided to keep.
D. goods which they stole from a shop.
A. a missing police baton.
219
You have been unable to serve a court attendance notice on a defendant. You believe that given more
time, you will be able to locate the defendant and effect service. Your first course of action should be:
A. escalate the CAN and apply for an Arrest Warrant.
B. assign a new court date, updated COPS and attempt to serve the CAN.
C. apply for a substituted service.
D. submit a report to the prosecutor (or DPP where applicable) seeking an extension for service.
B. assign a new court date, updated COPS and attempt to serve the CAN.
220
You attend a residence in relation to a domestic violence incident where a 14-year-old boy assaulted his
mother by slapping her face. He admits the offence and has no prior history of violence. You would:
A. issue a CAN as the offence is not covered by the Young Offenders Act 1997.
B. issue a warning for the offence in accordance with Part 3 of the Young Offenders Act 1997.
C. recommend the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
D. record the incident such that the Young Offenders Act 1997 applies.
C. recommend the matter be dealt with by way of a caution/conference under the Young Offenders Act 1997.
221
Mandatory
A police officer who requires a person to remove any face covering worn by the person pursuant to s
19A of LEPRA must, as far as reasonably practicable, ensure certain procedures are followed. Of the
following, which is NOT one of those procedures?
A. Ask for the person's co-operation.
B. Conduct the viewing in a way that provides reasonable privacy for the person if the person requests privacy.
C. Conduct the viewing in the presence of a support person if the person requests a support person to be present.
D. Conduct the viewing as quickly as quickly as is reasonably practicable.
C. Conduct the viewing in the presence of a support person if the person requests a support person to be present.
222
Mandatory
While investigating a complaint you are invited into a house by the owner. There you see a quantity of
cannabis on the kitchen table. The owner admits possession but then orders you to leave. You would:
A. arrest the owner (subject to s 99 LEPRA considerations) and seize the cannabis.
B. leave the premises immediately but take no further action as you have no evidence.
C. leave the premises immediately apply for a search warrant.
D. leave the premises immediately and submit an intelligence report.
A. arrest the owner (subject to s 99 LEPRA considerations) and seize the cannabis.
223
Mandatory
s 99(1)(b) of LEPRA provides that a police officer may, without a warrant, arrest a person if reasonably
necessary for which of the following reasons?
A. Because you believe you sufficient evidence tp prove the person's guilt at court.
B. To protect the safety or welfare of any person (including the person arrested).
C. Because you wish to interview the person about the offence.
D. All the above.
B. To protect the safety or welfare of any person (including the person arrested).
224
Mandatory
The Taser may be discharged at the discretion of the Taser user after a proper assessment of the
situation and the environment to:
A. control a person apparently under the influence of an hallucinogenic drug.
B. control an offender who has not complied with a reasonable direction.
C. protect officer/s in danger of being injured or yourself/another person from the risk of harm.
D. protect officer/s in danger of being overpowered or yourself/another person from the risk of actual bodily harm.
C. protect officer/s in danger of being injured or yourself/another person from the risk of harm.
225
You arrest an offender for a matter. The offender has a firearm in their possession. The offender does not
hold a firearms licence and the firearm is not registered. You would issue a C.A.N. for:
A. Unauthorised possession of a firearm only.
B. Possess unregistered firearm only.
C. both (a) & (b).
D. Unauthorised possession of firearms aggravated.
C. both (a) & (b).
226
You have arrested a person for several sexual assault offences. You have been successful in obtaining a
detention warrant to further extend the investigation period. Who is responsible for giving the suspect a
copy of the warrant?
A. The investigating officer.
B. The custody manger.
C. The duty officer.
D. The authorised officer.
B. The custody manger.
227
A police officer may establish a crime scene on premises providing the offence under investigation falls within the criteria set out in s 90 of LEPRA. Of the following, which is NOT one of that criteria?
A. An offence committed in connection with a traffic accident resulting in the death of a person.
B. A serious offence committed on the premises.
C. A prescribed offence committed on the premises.
D. Evidence of the commission of a serious indictable offence committed elsewhere.
C. A prescribed offence committed on the premises.
228
Under the provisions of the Liquor Act 2007, a ’minors area authorisation’ is an area:
A. where consumption of alcohol is not permitted.
B. where persons under the age of 18 are not permitted.
C. where gaming machines are located.
D. where persons under the age of 18 are permitted in company of a responsible adult.
D. where persons under the age of 18 are permitted in company of a responsible adult.
229
```
An hotel licence applies to licensed premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption:
A. off the premises only.
B. on the premises only.
C. on or away from the premises.
D. on the premises of a registered club.
```
C. on or away from the premises.
230
You have been targeted for a steroid drug test. The analysis of your urine sample indicates the presence
of a steroid. What will you be required to produce to your commander or manager?
A. Documentary evidence that the steroid was lawfully prescribed by a qualified medical practitioner.
B. Documentary evidence that the steroid was lawfully prescribed by a qualified pharmacist.
C. Documentary evidence that the steroid was lawfully obtained within Australia.
D. Documentary evidence that the steroid was lawfully under State/Commonwealth legislation.
A. Documentary evidence that the steroid was lawfully prescribed by a qualified medical practitioner.
231
You are at the scene of a DV incident where the offender left prior to your arrival. You determine a
provisional order is required for the victim’s protection. As you are driving back to the police station to
apply for the order, you locate the offender. You may
A. direct the offender to accompany you to the police station and remain at the police station.
B. direct the offender to be at a particular place at a particular time for the purposes of serving the order.
C. arrest the offender for the purposes of placing him or her before the court where the application will be made.
D. arrest the offender for 'Breaching the peace' to enable their detention while the application is made.
A. direct the offender to accompany you to the police station and remain at the police station.
232
A request for a media ‘blackout’ can only be made in exceptional circumstances, usually where there is a risk to life. Such requests are generally made at Assistant Commissioner level. In the event of a siege,
who else can make such a request?
A. A duty officer.
B. Any officer of the rank of sergeant or above.
C. The most senior police officer at the scene.
D. The operational commander or senior police negotiator.
D. The operational commander or senior police negotiator.
233
A senior police officer may at any time withdraw a penalty notice (CIN) issued by a police officer under
the Criminal Procedure Act 1986. A senior police officer means:
A. a police officer who is not on probation.
B. a police officer of or above the rank of senior constable.
C. a police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
D. a police officer of or above the rank of inspector.
D. a police officer of or above the rank of inspector.
234
A 13-year-old child receives a C.A.N at a police station for a serious offence. A decision is made to take
the child's fingerprints for identification purposes. Before the fingerprints can be taken, authorisation must first be obtained from:
A. an officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
B. any commissioned police officer.
C. any police officer appointed as a Custody Manager.
D. the Children's Court (or authorised officer in limited circumstances).
D. the Children's Court (or authorised officer in limited circumstances).
235
You are required to escort a prisoner to a distant location via commercial aircraft. You must take your
firearm. In these circumstances you should make arrangements so that your firearm is:
A. carry your firearm unloaded and concealed on your person.
B. carry your firearm loaded in an approved holster on your person.
C. hand your unloaded firearm to the pilot for safekeeping.
D. place your unloaded firearm in a secure case and lodge it as checked baggage with the relevant approved documents.
D. place your unloaded firearm in a secure case and lodge it as checked baggage with the relevant approved documents.
236
Some hours have passed before you can attend a residence in relation to several complaints of extremely loud music being played. Upon arrival no music can be heard but the occupier tells you he is putting on another CD. In this situation you may issue a noise abatement direction:
A. ONLY if music is played at an offensive level in ypur presence.
B. ONLY if a new complaint is received after the music recommences at an offensive level.
C. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 7 days been emitted from the same premises.
D. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 24 hours been emitted from the same premises.
C. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 7 days been emitted from the same premises.
237
A subpoena for a witness to give evidence in summary proceedings must be served within a reasonable time. In any case, it must be served at least:
A. 5 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
B. 7 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
C. the day before the last day on which it must be complied with.
D. 14 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
A. 5 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
238
Under the provisions of the Liquor Act 2007, a 'Packaged liquor licence' defines premises where liquor is sold and supplied to customers in sealed containers for consumption:
A. sold and supplied for consumption on the premises.
B. sold to customers away from the licensed premises.
C. sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.
D. sold to customers on the premises but not in the bar area.
C. sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.
239
Evidence of an admission is inadmissible if influenced by violence, oppressive, inhuman or degrading conduct or a threat of conduct of that kind. These principles are laid down in:
A. Section 84 of the Evidence Act 1995.
B. Section 48 of the Evidence Act 1995.
C. Clause 9 of the Evidence Regulation 2015.
D. Clause 10 of the Evidence Regulation 2015.
A. Section 84 of the Evidence Act 1995.
240
```
The Statement of Strategic Intent 2019 lists the vision of the NSW Police Force as:
A. To prevent, disrupt and respond.
B. Proactive Partnership Policing.
C. A safer NSW.
D. A secure NSW.
```
C. A safer NSW.
241
Unless otherwise provided for at law, responsibility for co-ordinating rescue operations and for determining the priorities of action to be taken in rescue operations is vested in the:
A. NSW Police Force.
B. NSW State Emergency Service.
C. Fire and Rescue NSW.
D. State Emergency Operations Controller.
A. NSW Police Force.
242
In response to a high-risk situation, the term ‘Use of Force’ refers to:
A. An immediate or predetermined policing action taken to prevent or intervene in a criminal act by a person or group.
B. An immediate response to an emergency.
C. the use of Australian military forces in aid of a civil disturbance.
D. the NSW Police Force.
A. An immediate or predetermined policing action taken to prevent or intervene in a criminal act by a person or group.
243
The NSW Police Force Handbook lists the circumstances when a penalty notice is NOT to be issued for traffic or parking offences. Of the following, which is one of those listed circumstances?
A. The offence is included in the Fixed Penalty Handbook.
B. Young persons aged 16 or older are involved.
C. The driver of an ambulance of fire vehicle not on urgent duty commits a minor traffic offence.
D. The offender is a police officer on duty involved in a crash causing serious injuries'.
D. The offender is a police officer on duty involved in a crash causing serious injuries'.
244
A registrable person must report any changes to the relevant personal information to police:
A. unless s9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
B. unless s9(1)(e) applies, within 14 days.
C. unless s9(1)(e) applies, within 21 days.
D. unless s9(1)(e) applies, within 28 days.
A. unless s9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
245
```
A 17-year-old young person attempts to use a forged birth certificate to enter a registered club. The most
appropriate offence is found in the:
A. Registered Clubs Act 1976.
B. Summary Offences Act 1988.
C. Liquor Act 2007.
D. Young Offenders Act 1997.
```
C. Liquor Act 2007.
246
The power for a police officer to turn out, or assist in turning out, a person who is intoxicated, violent or
disorderly from the premises of a registered club, upon the request of the secretary of the club, comes
from the:
A. Summary Offences Act 1988.
B. LEPRA.
C. Liquor Act 2007.
D. inclosed Lands Protection Act 1901.
C. Liquor Act 2007.
247
You seize 12 new spray paint cans from a person you suspect is under the age of 18 years near an area
recently subjected to acts of graffiti. You must now provide the person the reasons for its seizure. This
means telling the person you suspect he or she is under 18 years of age, and:
A. that you have reasonable grounds to suspect the person is responsible for those acts of graffiti.
B. that the person is not employed in an occupation that would justify possession on of that quantity/type of paint.
C. you are not satisfied the person has the spray paint cans in his or her possession for a lawful purpose.
D. is not in the company of a responsible adult.
C. you are not satisfied the person has the spray paint cans in his or her possession for a lawful purpose.
248
A reportable death to a coroner includes a death that was not the reasonably expected outcome of a
health-related procedure carried out in relation to the person. Health related procedure includes the administration of:
A. an anesthetic.
B. a sedative.
C. a drug.
D. all of the above.
D. all of the above.
249
When police are searching premises by virtue of a search warrant, the owner or occupier should:
A. accompany the police where practicable.
B. be kept away from the area being searched.
C. remain outside the premises so that do not become aware of police methodology.
D. be detained at a police station or other place while the warrant is executed.
A. accompany the police where practicable.
250
The holder of a security licence must produce the licence for inspection on demand to any person with
whom the licensee has dealings when:
A. applying for a position.
B. carrying on any security activity.
C. he or she has arrested any person for an offence.
D. he or she exercises a power they are lawfully entitled to exercise.
B. carrying on any security activity.
251
```
Once a Human Source is registered, the Handler will be required to complete a review in the Source Management System every:
A. 14 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 60 days.
D. 90 days.
```
D. 90 days.
252
The responsibility for removing debris, which is likely to endanger any person, from the roadway at the scene of a motor vehicle crash where drivers are not injured is initially given to the:
A. police in attendance.
B. driver/s involved in the crash.
C. tow truck drivers who are at the scene.
D. council workers for the area in which the crash occurred.
B. driver/s involved in the crash.
253
You lawfully seize an unopened carton of 12 cans of spray paint from a minor. Because the paint cannot
be disposed of immediately, it must be taken to an appropriate police station and kept there for at least:
A. 24 hours.
B. 7 days.
C. 28 days.
D. 90 days.
B. 7 days.
254
Criminal proceedings are taken to have commenced on the date:
A. a Court Attendance Notice is filed in the registry of a relevant court.
B. a Court Attendance Notice is served on the accused person.
C. a Court Attendance Notice is created.
D. an accused person first appears (or is legally represented) at the court listed CAN.
A. a Court Attendance Notice is filed in the registry of a relevant court.
255
A man comes to the enquiry counter at the police station and hands you a wallet containing personal
papers and $250 cash. He tells you he found the property on his front lawn this morning. You would:
A. create an entry in your official notebook.
B. create a miscellaneous property record in EFIMS.
C. create an entry on the General Station Pad.
D. only be required to create a record if the wallet's owner could not be identified/located by the end of your shift.
B. create a miscellaneous property record in EFIMS.
256
A 16 year old youth is found drinking beer in a public park. Police have the power under the Summary
Offences Act 1988 to arrest the youth:
A. only for the purpose of questioning about the offence.
B. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution.
C. in order to commence proceedings for the offence.
D. only for the purpose of locating an adult responsible for the youth.
B. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution.
257
s 36 of the Confiscation of Proceeds of Crime Act 1989, specifies that a member of the Police Force may
apply to an authorised officer to issue a search warrant in relation to tainted property of a particular kind
being in or on any premises. When executing the warrant, police are authorised to take which of the
following actions?
A. To seize tainted property in relation to another serious offence.
B. To remove tainted property of a particular kind from the premises.
C. To enter the premises and search for tainted property of the particular kind.
D. All the above.
D. All the above.
258
When dealing with a Human Source, you must ensure your conduct:
A. is exemplary.
B. safeguards their security and protection.
C. does not come under notice.
D. is conducive to a professional relationship.
B. safeguards their security and protection.
259
To establish the ‘taking away of the goods’ in an offence of larceny it is sufficient to show that the goods were:
A. moved at least 6 cm from their original position.
B. completely taken out of the victims presence.
C. moved slightly from their original position.
D. not moved but the offender placed his/her hand on them.
C. moved slightly from their original position.
260
A multi-ply paper drug exhibit bag (PAB24) should be used instead of a plastic drug exhibit bag to secure:
A. freshly harvested cannabis leaf that has not been subjected to any form of drying process.
B. large seizures of cannabis leaf.
C. prescription medication ONLY.
D. narcotics ONLY.
B. large seizures of cannabis leaf.
261
A driver has been arrested and conveyed to hospital for a compulsory blood and urine test by virtue of
Schedule 3, Clause 15 of the Road Transport Act 2013. There the driver supplies both samples as required. You would:
A. return the driver to their car.
B. arrest the driver for 'Drive under the influence of a drug'.
C. take the driver home so that they cannot drive.
D. release the driver, and issue a direction prohibiting the driver from driving a vehicle for 48 hours.
D. release the driver, and issue a direction prohibiting the driver from driving a vehicle for 48 hours.
262
You attend a residence with officers from the Department of Family and Community Services who are in possession of an order issued by the Children’s Court for the removal of a child subject of a care
application. The order authorises you to:
A. remove the child from the premises only.
B. remove the child from the premises and convey him or her to the court.
C. enter the premises, search for and remove the child.
D. remove the child if located pursuant to search warrant.
C. enter the premises, search for and remove the child.
263
Jack is 23-years-old and has been homeless for over 10 years. While patrolling one evening, you notice
Jack sleeping on a bench in a local park. Can you give him a move on direction?
A. Yes, because it is an offence to sleep on council property.
B. No, because he is not distressed seeking assistance passing a risk to himself or others, or committing a crime.
C. Yes, because it is an offence to use council property for a purpose other than its intended purpose.
D. No, because he is asleep.
B. No, because he is not distressed seeking assistance posing a risk to himself or others, or committing a crime.
264
A police office may carry out a strip search of a person at a place other than a police station or other place of detention if the police officer suspects on reasonable grounds the strip search is necessary for the purposes of the search and that the:
A. behavior of the person in the circumstances makes the strip necessary.
B. seriousness and urgency of the circumstances makes the strip search necessary.
C. demeanor of the person in the circumstances makes the strip search necessary.
D. thing subject of the search is of a form capable of being secreted on the person.
B. seriousness and urgency of the circumstances makes the strip search necessary.
265
Section 116 of LEPRA involves determining reasonable time in an investigation period when a person is
arrested. What circumstance below would be recognised as a reasonable time?
A. Any time that is reasonably required to carry out changing procedures in respect of the person.
B. Whether a police officer reasonably requires time to prepare for any questioning of the person.
C. Whether the person requires refreshments of not.
D. Any time that is required to allow the person to consult at the place where the person is being detained.
B. Whether a police officer reasonably requires time to prepare for any questioning of the person.
266
A person would NOT commit the offence of ‘Obscene exposure’ pursuant to s 5 of the Summary Offences
Act 1988 if he deliberately exposed his penis while inside his own home and the act could be seen by a
person who is:
A. walking along an adjacent street.
B. walking through an adjacent park.
C. driving their car in a nearby street.
D. gardening in the backyard of their home.
D. gardening in the backyard of their home.
267
The Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act 1985 divides prohibited drugs into a number of quantities. Which of
the following IS NOT one of those quantities?
A. Small Quantity.
B. Trafficable Quantity.
C. Indictable Quantity.
D. Summary Quantity.
D. Summary Quantity.
268
According to Section 8(2) of the Young Offenders Act 1997, which one of the following offences is NOT
covered under the Act?
A. Summary offences.
B. Indictable offences that may be dealt with summarily under 5 of the criminal procedure act 1986.
C. Traffic offences committed by a child not old enough to obtain a learner licence under the road transport act 2013.
D. Strictly indicatable offences.
D. Strictly indicatable offences.
269
Under Part 4 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989, a directing officer may invoke
additional powers for the protection of life and property within a specified:
A. emergency area.
B. danger area.
C. rescue area.
D. both A and C
B. danger area.
270
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 has a requirement that reporting commands must develop
an Aboriginal Action Plan. What is the purpose of an Aboriginal Action Plan?
A. To make Aboriginal people aware of the of the commands focus on crime.
B. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.
C. To address Aboriginal issues at a local, regional and state level.
D. To identify social issues impacting on Aboriginal people.
B. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.
271
You are at a motor traffic crash and wish to establish a crime scene. Under section 90 LEPRA, what criteria must you satisfy before doing so?
A. The accident resulted in the death of or serious injury to a person.
B. An offence connected to the traffic accident is being/was/may have been committed at the scene.
C. It is reasonably necessary to establish a crime scene to preserve/search for/gather evidence of the offence.
D. All of the above criteria.
D. All of the above criteria.
272
A man enters a shoe shop and tries on a new pair of shoes. He removes the price tag and leaves the shop without paying for them. The appropriate offence is:
A. Stealing S 117 Crimes Act 1990.
B. Fraudulent appropriation s 124 Crimes Act 1900.
C. Fraud s 192E Crimes Act 1900.
D. Stealing property in a dwelling s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
A. Stealing S 117 Crimes Act 1990.
273
```
A person (NOT a high office holder) discovers a package at their front door. A note attached to it contains a credible threat. Nothing can be seen coming from the package and the person suffers no obvious health effects. The response to such a suspicious substance incident would be classified as:
A. Red (High Risk incident).
B. Blue (Medium Risk incident).
C. Green (Low Risk incident).
D. Orange (Potential Risk incident).
```
B. Blue (Medium Risk incident).
274
The NSWPF is committed to ensuring that the collection of information from Human Sources is:
A. purposeful.
B. ethical.
C. tailored to gathering information that is directly relevant to NSWPF lawful functions.
D. All the above.
D. All the above.
275
You are at the scene of a DV incident. You intend to seek a provisional order and direct the person against whom the order is sought to remain at the scene but he refuses. You may:
A. arrest the person for the offence of Refuse to obey a lawful direction.
B. arrest the person for Breach of the peace.
C. detain the person in a caged police vehicle at the scene.
D. detain the person at the scene, or detain the person and take him to a police station.
D. detain the person at the scene, or detain the person and take him to a police station.
276
Whilst Generally Police would refuse any gifts or benefits offered to them, in some limited circumstances Police may accept particular gifts which are of nominal value or would not create a sense of obligation to the giver. Examples of such gifts would NOT include:
A. a cup of tea offered by the occupant of premises Police attend in the course of their duties.
B. a small fridge magnet offered by a company with their logo printed on it.
C. a voucher given by a restaurant to a particular officer entitling them to a free meal.
D. a box of chocolates sent to a police station with a note from the sender asking that they be shared amongst staff.
C. a voucher given by a restaurant to a particular officer entitling them to a free meal.
277
There are two levels of critical incidents set out in the Critical Incident Guidelines. Of the following, which
incidents MUST be investigated as Level 1 critical incidents?
A. Homicide of a police officer.
B. Death or imminent death resulting from the discharge of a fireman by a NSW police officer.
C. Death or imminent death as a result of the application of physical force by a NSW police officer.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
278
As a mandatory reporter, if you suspect a child or young person is at risk of significant harm, you must
report your suspicions to the Department of Family and Community Services:
A. within 24 hours.
B. within 28 hours.
C. immediately.
D. as soon as practicable.
D. as soon as practicable.
279
A person finds a debit card together with the PIN. The person goes to an ATM and withdraws $200 from
the owner's account using the card. The appropriate offence is:
A. Unathorised access to restricted data - s 308H Crimes Act 1900.
B. Forgery - s 253 Crimes Act 1900.
C. Fraud - s 192E Crimes Act 1900.
D. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
C. Fraud - s 192E Crimes Act 1900.
280
Your options for dealing with the offence of Smoking in a smoke-free area pursuant to s 7(1) of the Smoke-free Environment Act 2000 include:
A. issuing a Penalty Notice only.
B. issuing a Court Attendance Notice only.
C. issuing a Penalty Notice or Court Attendance Notice.
D. referring the matter to the Director-General of the Department of Health.
C. issuing a Penalty Notice or Court Attendance Notice.
281
A person subject to a bail condition fails to comply with that condition. In deciding whether to take action
and what action to take, which of the following matters must you consider:
A. The personal attributes and circumstances of the person to the extent known by the police officer at the time.
B. Whether an alternative course of action at arrest is appropriate in the circumstances.
C. Whether your command has adopted a zero tolerance approach to those who breach bail conditions.
D. Both A & B.
D. Both A & B.
282
When an appropriately qualified person is taking a hair sample, they should:
A. cut 15 to 20 hairs.
B. cut 150 to 200 hairs.
C. pluck 15 to 20 hairs with roots attached.
D. pluck 150 to 200 hairs with roots attached.
C. pluck 15 to 20 hairs with roots attached.
283
```
A person who is a holder of a category H licence must NOT possess or use a pistol fitted with a magazine
that has a capacity of more than:
A. 10 rounds.
B. 12 rounds
C. 15 rounds.
D. 20 rounds.
```
A. 10 rounds.
284
The Bail Act 2013 gives certain police the power to make a bail decision if the person accused of the
offence is present at a police station. Of the following, who is NOT an officer with the power to make a bail decision?
A. A police officer of or above rank of sergeant and present at the police station.
B. A police officer for the time being in charge of that police station.
C. A constable acting as a sergeant and present at that police station.
D. A police officer of or above the rank of sergeant and present at another police station.
D. A police officer of or above the rank of sergeant and present at another police station.
285
A probationary pistol licence is issued to a person who has:
A. never held a category H licence (sport/target shooting).
B. never held a category A or B firesarms licence.
C. held a category H licence which expired.
D. need a category A or B licence which expired.
A. never held a category H licence (sport/target shooting).
286
Where the Defendant’s copy of a Court Attendance Notice is posted, faxed or emailed, it must be posted
or transmitted not less than how many days before the first listing of the offence?
A. at least 3 days before the court listing.
B. at least 21 days before the court listing.
C. on the day of the court listing.
D. at least 7 days before the court listing.
B. at least 21 days before the court listing.
287
A man cuts out words from several newspapers and pastes them on a sheet of paper so that the following message is formed: "You are a bitch and I'm going to kill you for what you've done to me". He then posts the letter to his former wife. The MOST appropriate offence committed is:
A. Assault - s 61 Crimes Act 1900.
B. Intimidation - s 13 Crimes (Domestic and Personal Violence) Act 2007. Incorrect
C. Send document threatening to kill - s 31 Crimes Act 1900.
D. Make unwarranted demand - s 249K Crimes Act 1900.
C. Send document threatening to kill - s 31 Crimes Act 1900.
288
```
Under certain circumstances, a police fact sheet may be released to the media after it has been read out in an open court or admitted in proceedings. Who has the discretion to release the fact sheet?
A. The Registrar of the relevant Court.
B. The Local Area Commander.
C. The Officer-in-Charge of the case.
D. The Police Media Unit.
```
A. The Registrar of the relevant Court.
289
```
While patrolling your local area you see a juvenile drinking a bottle of beer in a local park. A person under the age of 18 who consumes liquor in a public place would commit an offence under the provisions of the:
A. Crimes Act 1900.
B. Liquor Act 2007. Incorrect
C. Summary Offences Act 1988.
D. Registered Clubs Act 1976.
```
C. Summary Offences Act 1988.
290
As set out in the Human Source Management SOPs 2013, 'contact' between a Handler and a Human Source means:
a. any communication facilitated by a communications device. Incorrect
b. any physical contact.
c. any communication facilitated by either a mobile or landline device.
d. meeting and telephone contact
d. meeting and telephone contact
291
An offence NOT covered under the Young Offenders Act 1997 is:
a. Supply of prohibited drugs pursuant to s25 Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act 1985.
b. A traffic offence, where the young person is NOT old enough to hold a learner licence.
c. A domestic related Common Assault where the young person is NOT subject to any current AVO.
d. Fraud pursuant to s192E Crimes Act 1900.
a. Supply of prohibited drugs pursuant to s25 Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act 1985.
292
A person must not smoke in a motor vehicle that is on a road or road related area if there is present in the vehicle a person under what age?
a. 18 years. Incorrect
b. 16 years.
c. 14 years.
d. 10 years
b. 16 years.
293
If you serve a brief of evidence via post, service is deemed to be effected within Australia or an external Territory on the:
a. day after it was posted.
b. next working day after it was posted.
c. fifth working day after it was posted. Incorrect
d. seventh working day after it was posted.
d. seventh working day after it was posted.
294
An offender steals a car in Wangaratta, Victoria and drives north along the Hume Highway. The vehicle is stopped in NSW and a check reveals that it is stolen. The appropriate offence is:
a. Stealing - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Goods in custody - s 527C Crimes Act 1900.
c. Receiving etc goods stolen out of New South Wales, s 189A Crimes Act 1900.
d. Steal motor vehicle - s 154F Crimes Act 1900.
c. Receiving etc goods stolen out of New South Wales, s 189A Crimes Act 1900.
295
The definition of 'violence' in the offence of 'Violent disorder' under the Summary Offences Act 1988 includes violent conduct towards:
Select one:
a. persons only.
b. property only.
c. property as well as persons.
d. at least 5 people and only property valued in excess of $1000.
c. property as well as persons.
296
Who is authorised to comment on police policy or procedures?
Select one:
a. Commissioner and Deputy Commissioners.
b. Relevant corporate sponsor.
c. Directors/Assistant Commissioners at Region Command level or specialist equivalent.
d. All the above.
a. Commissioner and Deputy Commissioners.
297
```
The regulation of pharmaceuticals is controlled by the Drug Misuse and Trafficking Act 1985 and the Poisons and Therapeutic Goods Act 1966. To identify which Act a particular pharmaceutical may be found in you must know the:
Select one:
a. brand name.
b. chemical code.
c. medical name.
d. barcode.
```
c. medical name.
298
Police attend premises from which offensive noise is being emitted. On seeking admission, however, a voice from behind the closed door says, "Get lost, you're not coming in here". The appropriate course of action is:
Select one:
a. enter the premises, using reasonable force if necessary.
b. place a written noise abatement direction under the door.
c. leave as entry has been denied.
d. apply for a telephone warrant authorising entry.
d. apply for a telephone warrant authorising entry.
299
A bar area of a hotel is?
Select one:
a. Any part of the inside of a hotel.
b. A part of the premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption on the premises with exceptions.
c. A part of the premises where liquor is supplied to lodgers or inmates only.
d. A part of the premises where liquor is sold in a dining room where meals are served.
b. A part of the premises where liquor is sold and supplied for consumption on the premises with exceptions.
300
```
While on patrol you stop and speak to a male urinating in the street. You determine the matter can be dealt with by issuing a Criminal Infringement Notice but do not have a Fixed Penalty Notice Handbook with you. The notice must be served within how many days of the offence?
Select one:
a. 7 days.
b. 14 days.
c. 21 days.
d. 28 days.
```
b. 14 days.
301
You attend a residence for the purpose of serving a court attendance notice on a defendant but the person is not home. You would:
Select one:
a. leave the notice in the mailbox at that address.
b. leave the notice with any other occupier of that address.
c. leave the notice with any other occupier of that address who is of or above the age of 18 years.
d. make further attempts to serve the notice personally on the defendant.
d. make further attempts to serve the notice personally on the defendant.
302
To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. FACTS is an acronym for the three steps involved. What does 'A' stand for?
Select one:
a. Assess the priority (using HOT ALERTS).
b. Assess the packaging (using HOT ALERTS).
c. Assess the premises (using HOT ALERTS).
d. Assess the property (using HOT ALERTS).
d. Assess the property (using HOT ALERTS).
303
A person who holds a permit authorising the possession of a prohibited weapon is required, if the person is in possession of the permit, to produce it on demand being made by a police officer. The demand by the police officer can be made:
Select one:
a. only at the address mentioned on the permit.
b. after giving two hours notice of the demand
c. at any reasonable time.
d. after giving 12 hours notice of the demand.
c. at any reasonable time.
304
```
When compiling a brief of evidence, in addition to the original (master brief), how many copies are required?
Select one:
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.
```
b. Three.
305
```
After the authorised trading hours of a hotel have ceased, licensees have a certain time period in which to clear patrons from the restricted areas of the premises. This time period is:
Select one:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 15 minutes.
c. 30 minutes.
d. 1 hour.
```
c. 30 minutes.
306
A person is arrested for possessing a small quantity of cannabis leaf wrapped in foil. The exhibit should be secured in a:
Select one:
a. plastic drug security bag.
b. paper drug security bag (PAB24).
c. fabric (breathable) drug security bag.
d. paper evidence bag sealed with evidence tape.
a. plastic drug security bag.
307
```
On the first mention, if an accused enters a plea of not guilty in relation to summary criminal proceedings in the Local Court, a Magistrate or Registrar is to order a brief of evidence to be served upon the accused in:
Select one:
a. 4 weeks.
b. 6 weeks.
c. 40 days.
d. 60 days.
```
a. 4 weeks.
308
A registrable person must report any changes to their relevant personal information to police:
Select one:
a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
b. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 14 days
c. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 21 days.
d. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 28 days.
a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
309
```
A caged truck is a:
Select one:
a. Category 1 vehicle.
b. Category 2 vehicle.
c. Category 3 vehicle.
d. Category 4 vehicle
```
d. Category 4 vehicle
310
Where a young person does not admit an offence for which they would otherwise be considered for a caution or youth justice conference, the provisions of the Protected Admissions Scheme should be offered to the young person. The decision to offer the Protected Admissions Scheme rests with the:
Select one:
a. police officer investigating the offence.
b. custody manager.
c. commander of the area/district in which the offence occurred.
d. Specialist Youth Officer.
a. police officer investigating the offence.
311
```
In relation to the offence of ‘Receiving’, it must be proved that the accused received the subject property ‘knowing the same to have been stolen’. The term ‘knowing’ means:
Select one:
a. suspected.
b. assumed.
c. believed.
d. inferred.
```
c. believed.
312
You investigate a death that was expected from a known natural cause. The Deceased was being seen by a specialist medical practitioner on an almost daily basis, who has issued a certificate as to the cause of death. Nonetheless, this matter would be a reportable death to the Coroner if:
Select one:
a. the person died whilst consuming alcohol within licensed premises (hotel or registered club only).
b. the person was a patient receiving treatment at a declared mental health facility.
c. a senior next of kin within the meaning of s 6A of the Coroners Act 2009 could not be identified or located.
d. the person was visiting NSW from another State/Territory of Australia.
b. the person was a patient receiving treatment at a declared mental health facility.
313
Under Work Health and Safety legislation, a police officer is at work throughout the time when the officer is on duty or:
Select one:
a. off duty.
b. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but only when authorised to do so by his/her commander.
c. recalled to duty for a specified purpose.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.
314
Under Part 4 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989, a directing officer may invoke additional powers for the protection of life and property. A directing officer includes a police officer of or above the rank of:
Select one:
a. the most senior police officer at the scene (not being a probationary constable).
b. sergeant.
c. inspector.
d. superintendent.
b. sergeant.
315
In accordance with the Work Health and Safety Act 2011, what is the definition of a workplace?
Select one:
a. A police station.
b. A place where police carry out work and includes any place they go or are likely to be while at work.
c. A police vehicle.
d. Both A and C.
b. A place where police carry out work and includes any place they go or are likely to be while at work.
316
A registrable person must report their relevant personal information to police:
Select one:
a. monthly excluding any requirement to report changes pursuant to s 11 of the Act.
b. quarterly excluding any requirement to report changes pursuant to s 11 of the Act.
c. biannually excluding any requirement to report changes pursuant to s 11 of the Act.
d. annually excluding any requirement to report changes pursuant to s 11 of the Act.
d. annually excluding any requirement to report changes pursuant to s 11 of the Act.
317
You observe a person, whom you reasonably suspect
is a minor, drinking beer in a bar area of a hotel. As a police officer you may require the person to:
Select one:
a. state his or her full name only.
b. state his or her full name, residential address and date of birth.
c. state his or her full name and residential address only.
d. state his or her residential address only.
b. state his or her full name, residential address and date of birth.
318
```
All interactions (meetings, phone conversations and written communications) between the NSWPF and an ongoing Human Source must be recorded in:
Select one:
a. Human Source Reports.
b. secure corporate emails only.
c. SITREPs.
d. Contact Advice Reports.
```
d. Contact Advice Reports.
319
Which of the following is an intimate forensic procedure?
Select one:
a. Taking a dental impression.
b. Taking a sample of hair other than pubic hair.
c. Taking a hand print.
d. Taking a sample from a nail or under a nail.
a. Taking a dental impression.
320
```
Before asking someone to travel a long distance to identify a body, you should consult:
Select one:
a. your Commander.
b. the Coroner.
c. the Government Medical Officer.
d. your Duty Officer.
```
a. your Commander.
321
```
The obligation for ensuring that drug exhibits are destroyed as soon as possible after being seized rests with:
Select one:
a. the commander
b. the duty officer.
c. the shift supervisor.
d. all police officers.
```
d. all police officers.
322
```
What is the maximum investigation period for an investigation not extended by a detention warrant?
Select one:
a. 3 hours.
b. 4 hours.
c. 6 hours.
d. 8 hours.
```
c. 6 hours.
323
A person who is carrying a firearm is required to produce the firearm and any licence or permit that authorises the person to possess the firearm on demand being made by a police officer. The demand by the police officer can be made:
Select one:
a. only at the address mentioned on the licence.
b. at a police station only.
c. at any time.
d. only while the person is in a public place.
c. at any time.
324
Pursuant to s 88 of LEPRA, a police officer who is lawfully on premises (whether by authority of a crime scene warrant or for any other lawful reason) may establish a crime scene, exercise crime scene powers and what else?
Select one:
a. Investigate the offence.
b. Detain any person on the premises.
c. Bring equipment onto the premises.
d. Stay on the premises for those purposes.
d. Stay on the premises for those purposes.
325
```
Once a Human Source is registered, the Handler will be required to complete a review in the Source Management System every:
Select one:
a. 14 days.
b. 30 days.
c. 60 days.
d. 90 days.
```
d. 90 days.
326
```
Unless a crime scene warrant is obtained, a police officer may exercise the crime scene powers conferred under s 92 of LEPRA at a location that is NOT a prescribed rural area for a period of not more than:
Select one:
a. 2 hours.
b. 3 hours.
c. 4 hours.
d. 6 hours.
```
c. 4 hours.
327
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 requires commands to develop an Aboriginal Action Plan. What is the purpose of the plan?
Select one:
a. To make Aboriginal people aware of the command's focus on crime.
b. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed.
c. To address Aboriginal issues at a local, regional and state level.
d. To identify social issues impacting on Aboriginal people.
b. To provide Aboriginal people a voice in how their community is policed
328
Who is authorised to comment on police policy or procedures?
Select one:
a. Commissioner and Deputy Commissioners.
b. Relevant corporate sponsor.
c. Directors/Assistant Commissioners at Region Command level or specialist equivalent.
d. All the above.
b. Relevant corporate sponsor.
329
A multi-ply paper drug exhibit bag (PAB24) should be used instead of a plastic drug exhibit bag (PAB18) to secure:
Select one:
a. freshly harvested cannabis leaf that has not been subjected to any form of drying process.
b. large seizures of cannabis leaf.
c. prescription medication ONLY.
d. narcotics ONLY.
b. large seizures of cannabis leaf.
330
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 is the document that guides the NSWPF:
Select one:
a. when dealing with Aboriginal offenders.
b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.
c. when creating policy documents impacting on Aboriginal issues.
d. in its recruitment and retention of Aboriginal employees.
b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.
331
Who may apply for a crime scene warrant?
Select one:
a. Any police officer of or above the rank of Inspector.
b. Any police officer of or above the rank of Sergeant.
c. The police officer in charge of the scene.
d. Any police officer.
d. Any police officer.
332
A 16 year old youth is found drinking beer in a public park. Police have the power under the Summary Offences Act 1988 to arrest the youth:
Select one:
a. only for the purpose of questioning about the offence.
b. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution.
c. in order to commence proceedings for the offence.
d. only for the purpose of locating an adult responsible for the youth.
b. only for the purpose of the administration of a caution.
333
```
A gang of young people walk through a shopping mall threatening unlawful violence against shoppers. The shoppers fear for their personal safety. To prove the offence of 'Riot' the number of people present threatening unlawful violence for a common purpose must be:
Select one:
a. 12 or more.
b. 8 or more.
c. 6 or more.
d. 3 or more.
```
a. 12 or more.
334
Can a young person act as an ongoing registered Human Source?
Select one:
a. No, policy does not permit this.
b. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances.
c. No, legislation does not permit this.
d. Yes, age is irrelevant providing the information is credible and of value to NSWPF lawful objectives.
b. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances.
335
```
You lawfully seize an unopened carton of 12 cans of spray paint from a minor. Because the paint cannot be disposed of immediately, it must be taken to an appropriate police station and kept there for at least:
Select one:
a. 24 hours.
b. 7 days.
c. 28 days.
d. 90 days.
```
b. 7 days.
336
```
You enter a hotel and detect a minor playing a gaming machine in the lounge bar area. In this situation an offence is committed under the provisions of the:
Select one:
a. Registered Clubs Act 1976.
b. Liquor Act 2007.
c. Gaming Machines Act 2001.
d. Crimes Act 1900.
```
c. Gaming Machines Act 2001.
337
The Aboriginal Strategic Direction 2018–2023 is the document that guides the NSWPF:
Select one:
a. when dealing with Aboriginal offenders.
b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.
c. when creating policy documents impacting on Aboriginal issues.
d. in its recruitment and retention of Aboriginal employees.
b. in its management of Aboriginal issues.
338
You seize 12 new spray paint cans from a person you suspect is under the age of 18 years near an area recently subjected to acts of graffiti. You must now provide the person the reasons for its seizure. This means telling the person you suspect he or she is under 18 years of age, and:
Select one:
a. that you have reasonable grounds to suspect the person is responsible for those acts of graffiti.
b. that the person is not employed in an occupation that would justify possession of that quantity/type of paint.
c. you are not satisfied the person has the spray paint cans in his or her possession for a lawful purpose.
d. is not in the company of a responsible adult.
c. you are not satisfied the person has the spray paint cans in his or her possession for a lawful purpose.
339
Of the following, who would NOT be considered an excluded volunteer under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000?
Select one:
a. A person who volunteers to undergo a forensic procedure who was the victim of a robbery.
b. A child who volunteers to undergo a forensic procedure who is a suspect for a robbery.
c. A child volunteered by a parent to undergo a forensic procedure who was the victim of a serious assault.
d. A person who volunteers to provide elimination prints from those found in relation to a criminal damage offence.
c. A child volunteered by a parent to undergo a forensic procedure who was the victim of a serious assault.
340
Work Health and Safety legislation requires the NSWPF to consult with its workers on health and safety matters. For example, when:
Select one:
a. making changes to, or renovating stations and facilities.
b. making decisions about purchasing fine or medium ball point pens.
c. making decisions about new arms and appointments, holsters or other personal protective equipment.
d. both (a) and (c).
d. both (a) and (c)
341
You are the escort on a caged truck and are about to transport a prisoner from a police station to a gaol. Before transporting the prisoner, he should be searched and handcuffed:
Select one:
a. with the backs of his hands together, behind his body.
b. with the backs of his hands together, in front of his body.
c. with the palms of his hands together, in front of his body.
d. with the palms of his hands together, behind his body.
b. with the backs of his hands together, in front of his body.
342
A police officer may seize liquor in the possession of a person in a public place when that person is under the age of 18 years and they:
Select one:
a. are not under the supervision of a responsible adult.
b. are in the company of their father.
c. are taking it home in company with their 19 year old sister.
d. have a reasonable excuse for possessing the liquor.
a. are not under the supervision of a responsible adult.
343
Under Work Health and Safety legislation, a police officer is at work throughout the time when the officer is on duty or:
Select one:
a. off duty.
b. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but only when authorised to do so by his/her commander.
c. recalled to duty for a specified purpose.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.
d. lawfully performing the functions of a police officer but not otherwise.
344
You are working an operation in relation to drug activity at your local railway station, which is on a prescribed route. Are you able to utilise a drug detection dog without a warrant?
Select one:
a. No, railway stations are not authorised under s148 of LEPRA.
b. Yes, by virtue of s148 of LEPRA.
c. No, as the enabling legislation has been repealed.
d. Yes, but only with written authority from Transport for NSW.
b. Yes, by virtue of s148 of LEPRA.
345
```
A person (NOT a high office holder) discovers a package at their front door. A note attached to it contains a credible threat. Nothing can be seen coming from the package and the person suffers no obvious health effects. The response to such a suspicious substance incident would be classified as:
Select one:
a. Red (High Risk Incident).
b. Blue (Medium Risk Incident).
c. Green (Low Risk Incident).
d. Orange (Potential Risk Incident).
```
b. Blue (Medium Risk Incident).
346
For the purposes of the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, an 'appropriately qualified' person is:
Select one:
a. any police officer.
b. any police officer excluding a probationary constable.
c. any police officer of or above the rank of sergeant.
d. any police officer authorised in writing by the Commissioner of Police.
d. any police officer authorised in writing by the Commissioner of Police.
347
Under Part 4 of the State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989, a directing officer may invoke additional powers for the protection of life and property. A directing officer includes a police officer of or above the rank of:
Select one:
a. the most senior police officer at the scene (not being a probationary constable).
b. sergeant.
c. inspector.
d. superintendent.
b. sergeant.
348
Where a young person does not admit an offence for which they would otherwise be considered for a caution or youth justice conference, the provisions of the Protected Admissions Scheme should be offered to the young person. The decision to offer the Protected Admissions Scheme rests with the:
Select one:
a. police officer investigating the offence.
b. custody manager.
c. commander of the area/district in which the offence occurred.
d. Specialist Youth Officer.
a. police officer investigating the offence.
349
```
Unless the parent of a child consents, it is an offence under s 230A of the Children and Young Persons (Care and Protection) Act 1998 to perform body piercing on a child under:
Select one:
a. 18 years of age.
b. 17 years of age.
c. 16 years of age.
d. 10 years of age.
```
c. 16 years of age.
350
A registrable person must report any changes to their relevant personal information to police:
Select one:
a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
b. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 14 days.
c. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 21 days.
d. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 28 days.
a. unless s 9(1)(e) applies, within 7 days.
351
```
An authorised officer may issue a warrant that extends the maximum investigation period by up to:
Select one:
a. 4 hours.
b. 6 hours.
c. 8 hours.
d. 12 hours.
```
b. 6 hours.
352
A 17-year-old girl enters your police station and informs you that she fears violence from her former boyfriend. You believe that the matter is one that warrants the issue of an AVO (not being a Provisional Order). The application for the order may be made to the court by:
Select one:
a. either the girl or a police officer.
b. any person over the age of 18 years with the informed consent of the girl.
c. the girl only.
d. a police officer only.
a. either the girl or a police officer.
353
Police who are victims or witnesses in a matter are referred to as:
Select one:
a. police customers.
b. internal customers.
c. corporate customers.
d. police are not regarded as customers under the guidelines.
b. internal customers.
354
```
Pursuant to s 117 of LEPRA, the burden for proving that any particular time was a time that was not to be taken into account when calculating an investigation period rests with:
Select one:
a. the defence.
b. the prosecution.
c. the presiding magistrate or judge.
d. the custody manager.
```
b. the prosecution.
355
```
Except in limited circumstances, a forensic procedure is NOT to be carried out on a child under:
Select one:
a. 16 years of age.
b. 14 years of age.
c. 12 years of age.
d. 10 years of age.
```
d. 10 years of age.
356
You are the investigating officer in relation to a major traffic crash involving injury to a person who was taken by ambulance to hospital for treatment. You are later asked to provide information about that person. You may supply certain information about the person to:
Select one:
a. the loss assessor estimating the damage to the vehicles.
b. a representative of the driver's insurance company.
c. a relevant employee of the hospital/s concerned or the ambulance service.
d. a concerned witness to the crash.
c. a relevant employee of the hospital/s concerned or the ambulance service.
357
```
A certificate of expert evidence under section 177 of the Evidence Act 1995, together with a written notice of proposal to tender the certificate, must be served on the defence no later than how many days before the hearing?
Select one:
a. 21.
b. 14.
c. 7.
d. 3.
```
a. 21.
358
Some hours have passed before you can attend a residence in relation to several complaints of extremely loud music being played. Upon arrival no music can be heard but the occupier tells you he is putting on another CD. In this situation you may issue a noise abatement direction:
Select one:
a. ONLY if music is played at an offensive level in your presence.
b. ONLY if a new complaint is received after the music recommences at an offensive level.
c. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 7 days been emitted from the premises.
d. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 24 hours been emitted from the premises.
c. if it appears offensive noise has at any time within the past 7 days been emitted from the premises.
359
Pursuant to s 88 of LEPRA, a police officer who is lawfully on premises (whether by authority of a crime scene warrant or for any other lawful reason) may establish a crime scene, exercise crime scene powers and what else?
Select one:
a. Investigate the offence.
b. Detain any person on the premises.
c. Bring equipment onto the premises.
d. Stay on the premises for those purposes.
d. Stay on the premises for those purposes.
360
You detect a young person committing an act of graffiti. He later makes full admissions in the presence of his parents and is genuinely remorseful for his actions. The young person has no prior criminal history. In these circumstances you would:
Select one:
a. give a warning for the offence.
b. refer the matter to a Specialist Youth Officer recommending it be dealt with by caution.
c. refer the matter to a Specialist Youth Officer recommending it be dealt with by conference.
d. commence proceedings for the matter to be dealt with by a court.
d. commence proceedings for the matter to be dealt with by a court.
361
A subpoena for a witness to give evidence in summary proceedings must be served within a reasonable time. In any case, it must be served at least:
Select one:
a. 5 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
b. 7 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
c. the day before the last day on which it must be complied with.
d. 14 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
a. 5 days before the last day on which it must be complied with.
362
Where the Defendant's copy of a Court Attendance Notice is posted, faxed or emailed, it must be sent:
Select one:
a. at least 3 days before the court listing.
b. at least 21 days before the court listing.
c. on the day of the court listing.
d. at least 7 days before the court listing.
b. at least 21 days before the court listing.
363
Of the following, which is discrimination?
Select one:
a. Denying a job opportunity to a single parent with young children due to a perception of unreliability.
b. Providing work aids to a disabled employee.
c. Not agreeeing to a roster request of an employee because it is not operationally appropriate or possible.
d. All of the above.
a. Denying a job opportunity to a single parent with young children due to a perception of unreliability.
364
You locate a male person who has absconded from a mental health facility which is 250km away. You observe him standing on the road, shouting at traffic and attempting to direct the traffic into one lane. In these circumstances you should:
Select one:
a. apprehend the male pursuant to s 48 of the Mental Health Act 2007 and convey him back to that facility.
b. apprehend the male and arrange suitable transport to the closest mental health facility.
c. schedule the male pursuant to s 22 of the Mental Health Act 2007.
d. arrest and charge the male with 'Escaping' pursuant to s 310D of the Crimes Act 1900.
a. apprehend the male pursuant to s 48 of the Mental Health Act 2007 and convey him back to that facility.
365
```
A small quantity of heroin contained in foil is weighed at a police station. The person responsible for estimating the net weight of the drug is the:
Select one:
a. station/exhibits officer.
b. officer in charge of the case.
c. independent observer.
d. duty officer.
```
a. station/exhibits officer.
366
In response to a high-risk situation, the term 'Use of Force' refers to:
Select one:
a. An immediate or predetermined policing action taken to prevent or intervene in a criminal act by a person or group.
b. An immediate response to an emergency.
c. the use of Australian military forces in aid of a civil disturbance.
d. the NSW Police Force.
a. An immediate or predetermined policing action taken to prevent or intervene in a criminal act by a person or group.
367
Your options for dealing with the offence of Smoking in a smoke-free area pursuant to s 7(1) of the Smoke-free Environment Act 2000 include:
Select one:
a. issuing a Penalty Notice only.
b. issuing a Court Attendance Notice only.
c. issuing either a Penalty Notice or Court Attendance Notice.
d. referring the matter to the Director-General of the Department of Health.
c. issuing either a Penalty Notice or Court Attendance Notice.
368
When faced with making ethical decisions, of the following which would NOT be a consideration?
Select one:
a. Is the decision or conduct lawful?
b. Is the decision or conduct consistent with NSWPF and Government policy and the NSWPF Code of Conduct and Ethics?
c. Can the decision or conduct be justified in terms of the public interest and would it withstand public scrutiny?
d. Is the decision likely to be popular with the public?
d. Is the decision likely to be popular with the public?
369
An on-scene risk assessment classifies a suspicious substance incident site as 'Blue' (Medium Risk). Your first course of action should now be:
Select one:
a. to obtain a sample of the substance for analysis.
b. to guard the substance pending its analysis.
c. to issue potentially contaminated persons with a Medical Advisory Notice.
d. to remove, isolate and assess potentially contaminated persons.
d. to remove, isolate and assess potentially contaminated persons.
370
Deaths arising from critical incidents must be reported to the Coroner. Any media enquiries on the cause of death should be referred to the:
Select one:
a. Region Commander/specialist Commander equivalent.
b. Police Media Unit.
c. Senior Investigating Officer.
d. Coroner's Office.
d. Coroner's Office.
371
```
In any NSWPF documentation relating to the resolution of high risk situations, the term 'Exigent' means:
Select one:
a. Urgent; Pressing.
b. Fast; Quickly.
c. Important; Vital.
d. Required; Requisite.
```
a. Urgent; Pressing.
372
Which one of the following statements is TRUE in relation to Category 4 vehicles?
Select one:
a. May be used for pursuits in exigent circumstances.
b. May be used for urgent duty in matters that are life threatening.
c. Includes unmarked HWP vehicles fitted with electronic siren but not displaying a portable warning light on the roof.
d. Includes solo cycles fitted with electronic siren and warning lights.
b. May be used for urgent duty in matters that are life threatening.
373
```
Under the Crimes (Forensic Procedures) Act 2000, the taking of a sample of blood from a person is:
Select one:
a. a non-intimate forensic procedure.
b. an intimate forensic procedure.
c. an intrusive forensic procedure.
d. a non-intrusive forensic procedure.
```
b. an intimate forensic procedure.
374
Work Health and Safety Legislation requires police officers to comply with policies and procedures provided by the NSWPF which are designed to maintain their health and safety. What is an example of this?
Select one:
a. Wearing a reflective vest at an RBT operation. Incorrect
b. Conducting a search as instructed.
c. Completing MCPE lectures and other training.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
375
```
Under the Disability Discrimination Act 1992, an animal which has been specifically trained to alleviate the effect of a disability is referred to as:
Select one:
a. an assistance animal.
b. a carer animal.
c. a companion animal.
d. a nuisance animal.
```
a. an assistance animal.
376
The guiding principles for the management of workplace equity matters include:
Select one:
a. the right of individuals to have the matter dealt with as quickly as possible.
b. the observance of natural justice.
c. support and protection for all parties concerned.
d. A, B and C.
d. A, B and C.
377
```
To determine if an unattended item is suspicious you apply 'Get the FACTS'. FACTS is an acronym for the three steps involved. What does 'CTS' stand for?
Select one:
a. Consider the setting.
b. Consider the seriousness.
c. Consider the situation.
d. Consider the scene.
```
c. Consider the situation.
378
```
After the authorised trading hours of a hotel have ceased, licensees have a certain time period in which to clear patrons from the restricted areas of the premises. This time period is:
Select one:
a. 5 minutes.
b. 15 minutes.
c. 30 minutes.
d. 1 hour.
```
c. 30 minutes.
379
Under the provisions of the Liquor Act a 'Packaged Liquor licence' defines premises where liquor is:
Select one:
a. sold and supplied for consumption on the premises.
b. sold to customers away from the licensed premises.
c. sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.
d. sold to customers on the premises but not in the bar area
c. sold and supplied for consumption away from the licensed premises.
380
Two offenders break into a house by forcing open a side window and climbing through. They search a number of rooms and move several electrical appliances to the front door, however, police arrive and the offenders are arrested while still in the house. The appropriate offence is:
Select one:
a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Break and enter with intent to steal - s 113 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900
d. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900
381
A person reverses out of their attached garage and drives to work forgetting to put the garage door down. A neighbour later enters the open garage and steals a lawnmower. The appropriate offence is:
Select one:
a. Larceny - s 117 Crimes Act 1900.
b. Break, enter and steal - s 112 Crimes Act 1900.
c. Fraudulent appropriation - s 124 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900.
d. Steal from dwelling - s 148 Crimes Act 1900
382
You are conducting a firearms compliance audit on a firearms licence holder. During the inspection you notice that the licence holder has firearms stored unsecured under the bed and not in an approved cabinet/safe. You should:
Select one:
a. Seize the firearms and suspend the licence. Commence legal proceedings concerning the firearms not being kept safe.
b. Issue a caution under the Firearms Act in respect to not keeping firearms safely.
c. Give the person 24 hours to rectify the situation then return to ensure that they now comply. Incorrect
d. Inform the Firearms Registry of the circumstances of the incident. They will then instigate a licence suspension.
a. Seize the firearms and suspend the licence. Commence legal proceedings concerning the firearms not being kept safe.
383
A woman tells you that her former boyfriend has been telephoning her at home, saying that he 'is going to get' her new boyfriend, with whom she now resides. She does not fear for her safety, but she fears for her new boyfriend's safety. The former boyfriend's actions constitute:
Select one:
a. no offence.
b. the offence of stalking.
c. the offence of intimidation against the woman.
d. the offence of intimidation against the new boyfriend.
c. the offence of intimidation against the woman.
384
Under the Security Industries Act 1997, licences have been placed into three groups. What are they?
Select one:
a. Master Licence, Class 1 licence and Class 2 licence.
b. Master Licence, Security Guard and Security Technician.
c. Master Licence, Class A licence and Class B licence.
d. Master Licence, Security Supervisor and Security Operative.
a. Master Licence, Class 1 licence and Class 2 licence.
385
```
You lawfully seize an unopened carton of 12 cans of spray paint from a minor. Because the paint cannot be disposed of immediately, it must be taken to an appropriate police station and kept there for at least:
Select one:
a. 24 hours.
b. 7 days.
c. 28 days.
d. 90 days.
```
b. 7 days.
386
Who is authorised to comment on Security and Counter Terrorism?
Select one:
a. The Commissioner.
b. The Deputy Commissioners.
c. The Assistant Commissioner - Counter Terrorism and Special Tactics.
d. All the above.
d. All the above.
387
A young man standing outside a local hotel removes his jeans and exposes his buttocks to a number of women inside the hotel. The young man has:
Select one:
a. committed no offence.
b. committed the offence of 'Obscene exposure'.
c. committed the offence of 'Offensive conduct'.
d. committed the offence of 'Lewdness' (Common law).
c. committed the offence of 'Offensive conduct'.
388
You are NOT to open sealed plastic drug security bags prior to analysis unless exceptional circumstances exist and ONLY with the written approval of the:
Select one:
a. Exhibits Officer.
b. Police Commander (or delegate).
c. Officer-in-Charge of the matter under investigation.
d. Exhibits Reception Officer - FASS
b. Police Commander (or delegate).
389
You stop a motor vehicle after observing the driver commit a minor traffic offence. While speaking to the driver he tells you he consumed a glass of wine five minutes prior. You request the driver to wait 15 minutes before conducting a breath test but he refuses. You would:
Select one:
a. arrest the driver and convey him to the nearest police station for the purpose of a breath analysis.
b. conduct the breath test.
c. detain the driver for 15 minutes, then conduct the breath test. Incorrect
d. detain the driver while you complete a penalty notice for the offence, then conduct the breath test.
b. conduct the breath test.
390
```
When carrying out a search of a person authorised under LEPRA, if reasonably practicable in the circumstances, you must ask for the person's:
Select one:
a. confession.
b. contraband.
c. compliance.
d. co-operation.
```
d. co-operation.
