LE6 REVIEW ONCO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)?
    A. Mediastinal fibrosis
    B. Thrombosis from an indwelling catheter
    C. Malignancy
    D. Tuberculosis
A

C. Malignancy

Rationale: Malignancy accounts for ~85% of SVCS cases, with small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) and squamous cell lung cancer being the leading causes.

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2
Q
  1. In young adults, which malignancy is the most common cause of SVCS?
    A. Small-cell lung cancer
    B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
    C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
    D. Mesothelioma
A

C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Rationale: Lymphomas, especially Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, are the leading causes of SVCS in young adults.

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3
Q
  1. What is the most common symptom of superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)?
    A. Chest pain
    B. Dyspnea
    C. Dysphagia
    D. Hoarseness
A

B. Dyspnea

Rationale: Dyspnea is the most common symptom of SVCS, occurring due to venous congestion and reduced blood flow from the upper body.

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4
Q
  1. A patient with SVCS notices worsening symptoms when lying down or bending forward. What is the underlying reason for this worsening?
    A. Increased cardiac output
    B. Increased venous pressure
    C. Airway obstruction
    D. Decreased respiratory effort
A

B. Increased venous pressure

Rationale: Venous congestion worsens with bending forward or lying down due to increased venous pressure in the obstructed SVC.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of SVCS?
    A. Peripheral edema
    B. Facial and neck swelling with dilated chest veins
    C. Clubbing of fingers
    D. Petechial rash on lower extremities
A

B. Facial and neck swelling with dilated chest veins

Rationale: SVCS leads to venous congestion in the upper body, causing facial and neck swelling, periorbital edema, and dilated collateral chest veins.

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6
Q
  1. What is the best initial imaging study for suspected SVCS?
    A. Chest X-ray
    B. CT scan with contrast
    C. Ultrasound
    D. PET scan
A

B. CT scan with contrast

Rationale: Contrast-enhanced CT is the best diagnostic test for SVCS as it accurately shows the site of obstruction and underlying pathology.

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7
Q
  1. A chest X-ray of a patient with SVCS is most likely to show which of the following findings?
    A. Right-sided pleural effusion
    B. Widened mediastinum
    C. Pneumothorax
    D. Diffuse alveolar infiltrates
A

B. Widened mediastinum

Rationale: A widened superior mediastinum is the most common chest X-ray finding in SVCS, often due to a mediastinal mass compressing the SVC.

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8
Q
  1. Which imaging study is most useful for evaluating SVC thrombosis before endovascular intervention?
    A. MRI
    B. PET scan
    C. Venography
    D. Doppler ultrasound
A

C. Venography

Rationale: Venography is the gold standard for diagnosing SVC thrombosis when planning endovascular stenting.

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9
Q
  1. What is the most appropriate initial step in the management of a patient with SVCS and airway compromise?
    A. Immediate chemotherapy
    B. Endovascular stenting
    C. Airway protection and oxygen support
    D. High-dose corticosteroids
A

C. Airway protection and oxygen support

Rationale: Airway protection is the priority in severe SVCS cases with stridor or respiratory distress.

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10
Q
  1. Which treatment provides the most rapid symptom relief for severe SVCS?
    A. Chemotherapy
    B. Endovascular stenting
    C. Radiation therapy
    D. Corticosteroids
A

B. Endovascular stenting

Rationale: Endovascular stenting rapidly relieves symptoms in severe SVCS cases, restoring venous drainage almost immediately.

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11
Q
  1. A patient with SVCS due to an underlying thrombus (but no malignancy) should receive which treatment?
    A. Radiation therapy
    B. Corticosteroids
    C. Anticoagulation
    D. Chemotherapy
A

C. Anticoagulation

Rationale: Anticoagulation is used for SVCS due to thrombosis, especially in cases associated with central venous catheters or pacemakers.

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12
Q

A 68-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer presents with progressive abdominal distension, nausea, and colicky abdominal pain. Physical exam reveals high-pitched bowel sounds and tympany with distension. An abdominal X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels and dilated loops of small bowel. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Paralytic ileus
B. Small bowel obstruction due to peritoneal carcinomatosis
C. Large bowel volvulus
D. Acute mesenteric ischemia

A

B. Small bowel obstruction due to peritoneal carcinomatosis

🧠 High-Yield Rationale:
- Peritoneal carcinomatosis (common in ovarian, colorectal, and gastric cancers) causes multiple sites of bowel obstruction.
- Air-fluid levels and dilated bowel loops on X-ray suggest a mechanical obstruction.
- High-pitched bowel sounds (early) and tympany indicate obstruction, while absent bowel sounds (late) suggest ileus.
- Management: Nasogastric decompression, IV fluids, and palliative surgery if indicated.

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13
Q

A 72-year-old man with prostate cancer presents with flank pain, difficulty urinating, and rising serum creatinine. Renal ultrasound reveals bilateral hydronephrosis. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Malignant urinary obstruction
D. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

C. Malignant urinary obstruction

🧠 High-Yield Rationale:
- Prostate cancer is the most common cause of malignant urinary obstruction.
- Bilateral hydronephrosis and rising creatinine indicate postrenal obstruction.
- Management: Percutaneous nephrostomy or ureteral stenting to relieve obstruction.

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14
Q

A 66-year-old woman with a history of pancreatic cancer presents with jaundice, dark urine, pruritus, and weight loss. Lab tests show elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hepatitis B infection
B. Malignant biliary obstruction
C. Choledocholithiasis
D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

B. Malignant biliary obstruction

🧠 High-Yield Rationale:
- Pancreatic cancer is the most common cause of malignant biliary obstruction.
- Jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine suggest bile duct obstruction.
- Management: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with biliary stenting for palliation.

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15
Q
  1. What is the most common symptom of pericardial effusion?
    A. Chest pain
    B. Dyspnea on exertion
    C. Syncope
    D. Hemoptysis
A

B. Dyspnea on exertion

Rationale: Dyspnea on exertion is the most common symptom of pericardial effusion, progressing to dyspnea at rest as tamponade develops.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following findings constitutes Beck’s triad, which is seen in cardiac tamponade?
    A. Bradycardia, hypertension, and muffled heart sounds
    B. Hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds
    C. Chest pain, fever, and pericardial friction rub
    D. Pulsus paradoxus, hypotension, and hepatomegaly
A

B. Hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds

Rationale: Beck’s triad (hypotension, JVD, and muffled heart sounds) is classic for cardiac tamponade, though it is less common in malignancy-associated tamponade.

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17
Q
  1. Pulsus paradoxus is defined as which of the following?
    A. Systolic blood pressure decreasing by >10 mmHg during inspiration
    B. Systolic blood pressure increasing by >10 mmHg during expiration
    C. Difference between left and right arm blood pressures >20 mmHg
    D. Drop in diastolic pressure with inspiration
A

A. Systolic blood pressure decreasing by >10 mmHg during inspiration

Rationale: Pulsus paradoxus is a drop in systolic BP >10 mmHg during inspiration, seen in ~30% of malignant cardiac tamponade cases.

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18
Q
  1. A chest X-ray in a patient with pericardial effusion is most likely to show which characteristic finding?
    A. Water bottle-shaped cardiac silhouette
    B. Widened mediastinum
    C. Diffuse pulmonary infiltrates
    D. Normal cardiac silhouette
A

A. Water bottle-shaped cardiac silhouette

Rationale: A globular, “water bottle”-shaped cardiac silhouette suggests large pericardial effusion (>200 mL).

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19
Q
  1. Which echocardiographic finding is most specific for cardiac tamponade?
    A. Pericardial thickening
    B. Diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle
    C. Left ventricular hypertrophy
    D. Septal hyperkinesis
A

B. Diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle

Rationale: Diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle is a hallmark finding of cardiac tamponade, indicating elevated intrapericardial pressure.

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20
Q
  1. Which procedure is the first-line definitive treatment for cardiac tamponade?
    A. Pericardiocentesis
    B. Coronary artery bypass grafting
    C. Mitral valve replacement
    D. Cardiac catheterization
A

A. Pericardiocentesis

Rationale: Ultrasound-guided pericardiocentesis is the first-line treatment for cardiac tamponade to relieve increased pericardial pressure.

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21
Q

A 65-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer presents with progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. On physical exam, he has jugular venous distension, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension. His blood pressure drops by 15 mmHg during inspiration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute pulmonary embolism
B. Pericardial effusion with cardiac tamponade
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Right heart failure due to cor pulmonale

A

B. Pericardial effusion with cardiac tamponade

🧠 High-Yield Rationale:
- Classic Beck’s Triad (hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds) suggests cardiac tamponade.
- Pulsus paradoxus (>10 mmHg drop in SBP during inspiration) is a key finding.
- Common causes in malignancy: Lung cancer, breast cancer, lymphoma, chemotherapy-induced pericarditis.
- Next Step: Urgent echocardiography to confirm diastolic collapse of the right atrium/ventricle.
- Definitive Treatment: Pericardiocentesis for immediate relief.

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22
Q
  1. Which region of the spine is most frequently affected by malignant spinal cord compression?
    A. Cervical spine
    B. Thoracic spine
    C. Lumbar spine
    D. Sacral spine
A

B. Thoracic spine

Rationale: Thoracic spine (70%) is the most common site of MSCC, followed by lumbosacral (20%) and cervical (10%).

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is the earliest and most common symptom of MSCC?
    A. Motor weakness
    B. Sensory loss
    C. Back pain
    D. Bladder dysfunction
A

C. Back pain

Rationale: Back pain is the earliest and most common symptom (95% of cases), often worsened by movement, coughing, or the Valsalva maneuver.

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following malignancies is the most common cause of brain metastases and increased ICP?
    A. Breast cancer
    B. Lung cancer
    C. Melanoma
    D. Germ cell tumors
A

B. Lung cancer

Rationale: Lung cancer is the most common source of brain metastases, leading to increased ICP due to tumor mass effect and surrounding edema.

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7. Which chemotherapy agent is associated with pseudotumor cerebri (idiopathic intracranial hypertension)? A. Methotrexate B. Tretinoin (ATRA) C. Cyclophosphamide D. Rituximab
B. Tretinoin (ATRA) Rationale: Tretinoin (used for acute promyelocytic leukemia) can cause increased ICP, leading to pseudotumor cerebri.
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12. Which of the following findings is characteristic of neoplastic meningitis on MRI? A. Ring-enhancing lesions B. Leptomeningeal enhancement C. Brainstem herniation D. Diffuse cortical atrophy
B. Leptomeningeal enhancement Rationale: Leptomeningeal enhancement on MRI is a key finding in neoplastic meningitis.
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13. What is the preferred route of chemotherapy administration for neoplastic meningitis? A. Intravenous B. Intrathecal C. Oral D. Subcutaneous
B. Intrathecal Rationale: Intrathecal chemotherapy (methotrexate, cytarabine) is the mainstay of treatment for neoplastic meningitis.
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14. Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in cancer patients? A. Glioblastoma B. Metastatic CNS disease C. Reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome (RPLS) D. Paraneoplastic syndrome
B. Metastatic CNS disease Rationale: Metastatic brain lesions are the most common cause of seizures in cancer patients.
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15. Which of the following lobes is most commonly affected by seizures due to brain tumors? A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal
D. Temporal Rationale: Temporal lobe involvement is most commonly associated with seizures in brain tumors.
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16. Which condition is associated with seizures due to chemotherapy and targeted therapy toxicity? A. Paraneoplastic encephalitis B. Posterior reversible leukoencephalopathy syndrome (RPLS) C. Brain abscess D. Hypercalcemia
B. Posterior reversible leukoencephalopathy syndrome (RPLS) Rationale: RPLS is associated with chemotherapy and targeted therapy, presenting with seizures, headache, and visual disturbances.
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1. Leukostasis syndrome is most commonly associated with which of the following leukemias? A. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) B. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) D. Hairy Cell Leukemia
C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) Rationale: AML is the most common cause of leukostasis syndrome, occurring in 5–13% of AML cases, while ALL accounts for 10–30% of cases. Chronic leukemias (CML, CLL) rarely cause leukostasis.
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2. Which of the following organs is most commonly affected by leukostasis? A. Liver and spleen B. Brain and lungs C. Heart and kidneys D. Skin and bone marrow
B. Brain and lungs Rationale: The brain (intracerebral leukostasis) and lungs (pulmonary leukostasis) are the most commonly affected organs, leading to neurologic and respiratory compromise.
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3. Which of the following clinical signs is associated with intracerebral leukostasis? A. Hypotension B. Papilledema and retinal hemorrhages C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. Chest pain
B. Papilledema and retinal hemorrhages Rationale: Intracerebral leukostasis can cause papilledema, retinal vein distension, and retinal hemorrhages, along with neurologic deficits such as ataxia, confusion, and coma.
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5. What is the most common malignant cause of hemoptysis? A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung B. Small cell lung cancer C. Breast cancer D. Esophageal cancer
A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung Rationale: Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is the most common malignant cause of hemoptysis, due to its tendency to invade bronchial vessels.
35
6. A patient with NSCLC on bevacizumab therapy presents with massive hemoptysis. What is the best initial management step? A. Stop bevacizumab and perform bronchoscopy B. Increase chemotherapy dose C. Start anticoagulation therapy D. Perform pneumonectomy immediately
A. Stop bevacizumab and perform bronchoscopy Rationale: Bevacizumab (anti-VEGF) increases the risk of life-threatening hemoptysis, particularly in squamous cell lung cancer. Bronchoscopy helps localize the bleeding site.
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7. What is the first-line definitive treatment for massive hemoptysis? A. Endotracheal intubation B. Bronchial artery embolization C. Pneumonectomy D. Thoracentesis
B. Bronchial artery embolization Rationale: The first-line definitive treatment for massive hemoptysis (≥ 100–600 mL of blood expectorated in 24 hours) is bronchial artery embolization (BAE). It is a minimally invasive procedure that effectively stops bleeding by occluding abnormal bronchial arteries supplying the affected lung area.
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10. Which symptom strongly suggests upper airway involvement in malignancy-related airway obstruction? A. Hemoptysis B. Hoarseness C. Dyspnea D. Wheezing
B. Hoarseness Rationale: Hoarseness suggests laryngeal involvement, commonly seen in lung, esophageal, and thyroid cancers.
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1. Which malignancy is most commonly associated with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)? A. Hodgkin lymphoma B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) Rationale: TLS occurs most frequently in rapidly proliferating tumors like ALL, AML, Burkitt lymphoma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
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2. What is the earliest electrolyte abnormality seen in tumor lysis syndrome? A. Hyperphosphatemia B. Hyperuricemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperuricemia Rationale: The earliest electrolyte abnormality in tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is hyperuricemia, which occurs due to the rapid breakdown of tumor cells, leading to the release of nucleic acids that are metabolized into uric acid. • Hyperuricemia (B) develops first because nucleic acid breakdown happens rapidly after chemotherapy or spontaneous tumor lysis. Uric acid is poorly soluble in acidic urine, increasing the risk of acute kidney injury. • Hyperphosphatemia (A) follows as intracellular phosphate is released from lysed cells. • Hyperkalemia (C) occurs due to massive cell lysis, leading to potassium release into the bloodstream. • Hypocalcemia (D) is secondary to hyperphosphatemia, as phosphate binds to calcium, reducing its serum levels.
40
7. What is the primary mechanism of human antibody infusion reactions? A. Direct complement activation B. Cytokine release syndrome C. IgE-mediated hypersensitivity D. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
B. Cytokine release syndrome Rationale: Infusion reactions are caused by cytokine release (IL-6, TNF-α, IL-10) from activated immune cells, leading to fever, hypotension, and respiratory symptoms.
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12. Which of the following is the hallmark peripheral blood smear finding in hemolytic-uremic syndrome? A. Target cells B. Schistocytes C. Spherocytes D. Acanthocytes
B. Schistocytes Rationale: Schistocytes (fragmented RBCs) are characteristic of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) seen in HUS.
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13. Which triad of symptoms is characteristic of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)? A. Fever, splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia B. Hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure C. Hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, ascites D. Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, leukopenia
B. Hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure Rationale: Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is classically defined by the triad of: 1. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) – characterized by schistocytes on peripheral smear, elevated LDH, and low haptoglobin. 2. Thrombocytopenia – due to platelet consumption in microthrombi formation. 3. Acute renal failure – caused by endothelial damage in renal microvasculature.
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15. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for chemotherapy-induced HUS? A. Plasma exchange B. Dialysis C. IV antibiotics D. Platelet transfusion
A. Plasma exchange Rationale: Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis) is the first-line treatment for HUS associated with factor H antibodies.
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1. Which of the following chemotherapy drugs is most commonly associated with pulmonary toxicity? A. Methotrexate B. Cyclophosphamide C. Bevacizumab D. Cisplatin
A. Methotrexate Rationale: Methotrexate is a well-known cause of pulmonary toxicity, along with Bleomycin, Busulfan, Gemcitabine, and Ifosfamide.
45
2. A leukemia patient presents with dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and hypoxemia. CT scan shows thickened bronchovascular bundles. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Bacterial pneumonia C. Leukemic infiltration of the lungs D. Radiation pneumonitis
C. Leukemic infiltration of the lungs Rationale: Leukemic infiltration is common in hematologic malignancies, often presenting as diffuse interstitial infiltrates or bronchovascular thickening.
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3. Which pulmonary condition is caused by diffuse spread of tumor cells through lung lymphatics? A. Bronchiolitis obliterans B. Pulmonary lymphangitic carcinomatosis C. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) D. Pneumocystis pneumonia
B. Pulmonary lymphangitic carcinomatosis Rationale: Pulmonary lymphangitic carcinomatosis is caused by tumor cell invasion of lymphatic vessels, most often seen in breast, lung, and stomach cancers.
47
4. What is the most common imaging finding in radiation pneumonitis? A. Cavitary lung lesion B. Ground-glass opacities C. Upper lobe consolidation D. Pleural effusion
B. Ground-glass opacities Rationale: Radiation pneumonitis presents with ground-glass opacities and fibrosis, typically in the radiation field.
48
9. Which malignancy is most commonly associated with neutropenic enterocolitis (typhlitis)? A. Hodgkin lymphoma B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) Rationale: Neutropenic enterocolitis occurs most frequently in AML and ALL patients receiving high-dose cytotoxic chemotherapy.
49
10. What is the classic CT finding in neutropenic enterocolitis (typhlitis)? A. Cecal wall thickening >10 mm B. Pneumomediastinum C. Honeycombing pattern D. Bilateral pleural effusions
A. Cecal wall thickening >10 mm Rationale: Cecal wall thickening (>10 mm) with mesenteric stranding on CT is a hallmark of neutropenic enterocolitis.
50
11. What is the most common causative organism in neutropenic enterocolitis? A. Clostridium difficile B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A. Clostridium difficile Rationale: C. difficile, Enterobacteriaceae, and Pseudomonas species are common pathogens in neutropenic enterocolitis.
51
1. Which of the following chemotherapy agents is most commonly associated with hemorrhagic cystitis? A. Cisplatin B. Ifosfamide C. Vincristine D. Doxorubicin
B. Ifosfamide Rationale: Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide are the two chemotherapy agents most commonly associated with hemorrhagic cystitis due to their toxic metabolite, acrolein.
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2. What is the most effective preventive measure against hemorrhagic cystitis in patients receiving ifosfamide? A. Furosemide B. Mesna C. Heparin bladder irrigation D. Cranberry extract
B. Mesna Rationale: Mesna binds acrolein, detoxifying it and preventing bladder toxicity. It is routinely given with ifosfamide and high-dose cyclophosphamide.
53
4. What is the hallmark symptom of hemorrhagic cystitis? A. Dysuria B. Gross hematuria C. Urinary retention D. Pyuria
B. Gross hematuria Rationale: Gross hematuria is the classic feature of hemorrhagic cystitis, often accompanied by urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria.
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1. Which chemotherapy agent is most commonly associated with irreversible cardiotoxicity? A. Trastuzumab B. Doxorubicin C. Ibrutinib D. Ponatinib
B. Doxorubicin Rationale: Anthracyclines like doxorubicin cause irreversible congestive heart failure (CHF) due to dose-dependent myocardial damage and myofibrillar dropout.
55
2. Which cancer therapy is most associated with reversible heart failure? A. Anthracyclines B. Trastuzumab C. Ponatinib D. Ibrutinib
B. Trastuzumab Rationale: Trastuzumab-induced cardiotoxicity is NOT dose-dependent and is usually reversible upon discontinuation.
56
5. What is the most common non-cancer cause of death in childhood cancer survivors? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Congestive heart failure C. Pericarditis D. Coronary artery disease
B. Congestive heart failure Rationale: Anthracycline-induced cardiomyopathy is a leading cause of non-cancer-related mortality in childhood cancer survivors.
57
1. Which chemotherapy agent is most commonly associated with dose-related pneumonitis? A. Gemcitabine B. Bleomycin C. Mitomycin D. Methotrexate
B. Bleomycin Rationale: Bleomycin causes dose-dependent pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis. Cumulative doses >400 units increase the risk.
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5. Which physical exam finding is most commonly associated with pulmonary fibrosis? A. Expiratory wheezing B. Loud P2 heart sound C. Fine "Velcro" crackles D. Decreased breath sounds in one lung field
C. Fine "Velcro" crackles Rationale: Pulmonary fibrosis causes fine inspiratory crackles ("Velcro rales") due to alveolar fibrosis and restriction of lung expansion.
59
6. What is the most sensitive test for detecting early pulmonary toxicity in chemotherapy patients? A. Chest X-ray B. Pulmonary function test (DLco) C. High-resolution CT scan D. ABG (Arterial Blood Gas)
B. Pulmonary function test (DLco) Rationale: DLco (Diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide) is the most sensitive test for detecting early chemotherapy-induced pulmonary damage.
60
1. Which class of chemotherapy drugs is most strongly associated with the development of secondary acute leukemia? A. Antimetabolites B. Alkylating agents C. Monoclonal antibodies D. Topoisomerase I inhibitors
B. Alkylating agents Rationale: Alkylating agents like cyclophosphamide, melphalan, and ifosfamide cause DNA damage, increasing the risk of secondary acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).
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2. Which cancer therapy is most associated with an increased lifetime risk of developing secondary solid tumors? A. Monoclonal antibodies B. Radiation therapy C. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors D. Checkpoint inhibitors
B. Radiation therapy Rationale: Radiotherapy increases the risk of secondary malignancies, including breast, lung, thyroid, and sarcomas, particularly when exposure occurs at a young age.
62
4. A female patient with a history of radiation therapy for breast cancer presents with a new breast mass in the opposite breast. What is the most likely explanation? A. Metastasis from her prior breast cancer B. A second primary breast cancer C. A benign fibroadenoma D. Chemotherapy-induced mastopathy
B. A second primary breast cancer Rationale: Breast cancer survivors treated with radiation have an increased risk of developing a second primary breast cancer in the opposite breast.
63
1. Which chemotherapy agent is most strongly associated with severe encephalopathy? A. Cisplatin B. Methotrexate C. Vincristine D. Cyclophosphamide
B. Methotrexate Rationale: Methotrexate is the most common chemotherapeutic agent associated with acute and delayed encephalopathy, particularly when administered intrathecally.
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2. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely to cause irreversible hearing loss? A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. Cisplatin D. Carboplatin
C. Cisplatin Rationale: Cisplatin causes sensorineural hearing loss by damaging cochlear hair cells, particularly at high doses.
65
4. A patient undergoing chemotherapy presents with numbness and tingling in a stocking-glove distribution. Which agent is most likely responsible? A. Vincristine B. Methotrexate C. Doxorubicin D. Bleomycin
A. Vincristine Rationale: Vinca alkaloids like vincristine cause peripheral neuropathy in a characteristic stocking-glove distribution.
66
5. A cancer patient receiving chemotherapy develops an electric shock-like sensation radiating down the spine when flexing the neck. What is this sign called? A. Babinski’s sign B. Lhermitte’s sign C. Hoffmann’s reflex D. Romberg’s sign
B. Lhermitte’s sign Rationale: Lhermitte’s sign is an electric shock-like sensation down the spine upon neck flexion, often seen in patients with radiation myelopathy or high-dose methotrexate therapy.
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6. Which neurologic complication is most associated with platinum-based chemotherapy (e.g., Cisplatin)? A. Cognitive impairment B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Myasthenia gravis
B. Peripheral neuropathy Rationale: Cisplatin and other platinum-based agents commonly cause sensory neuropathy, presenting as paresthesias, loss of vibratory sensation, and proprioception.
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5. Which drug is most effective in rapidly reducing serum uric acid in high-risk TLS patients? A. Allopurinol B. Rasburicase C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Calcium gluconate
B. Rasburicase Rationale: Rasburicase enzymatically degrades uric acid and is superior to allopurinol in high-risk TLS patients.
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10. Which treatment is specifically used for severe cytokine release syndrome (CRS) associated with monoclonal antibody therapy? A. Tocilizumab B. Ibrutinib C. Methotrexate D. Prednisone
A. Tocilizumab Rationale: Tocilizumab (IL-6 inhibitor) is the preferred treatment for severe cytokine release syndrome (CRS).
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11. Which chemotherapy drug is most commonly associated with hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)? A. Methotrexate B. Gemcitabine C. Vincristine D. Pembrolizumab
B. Gemcitabine Rationale: Gemcitabine, Mitomycin, and VEGF inhibitors are the most common chemotherapy-related causes of HUS.
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7. Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is most commonly associated with cytokine release syndrome (CRS)? A. Rituximab B. Bevacizumab C. Trastuzumab D. Cetuximab
A. Rituximab Rationale: Rituximab can cause cytokine release syndrome due to rapid activation of B cells and macrophages, leading to fever, hypotension, and hypoxia.